Cell Biology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Cell Biology is the scientific study of the fundamental structural and functional units of life cells. This course explores the organization, properties, and functions of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, examining cellular components such as membranes, organelles, and the cytoskeleton. Students will investigate essential cellular processes including energy production, signal transduction, cell division, communication, and transport mechanisms. Emphasis is placed on experimental techniques used to study cells and the importance of cellular biology in understanding health, disease, development, and biotechnological applications.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Genetic Analysis 11th Edition by Anthony J.F. Griffiths
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Chapter 1: The Genetics Revolution
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Q1) Choose the best answer from the list below.Not all of the answers will be used.
a.alleles
b.de novo mutations
c.point mutations
d.nucleases
e.DNA polymerase
f.Tatum and Beadle
g.Gregor Mendel
1.___one-gene-one-enzyme hypothesis
2.___gene variants
3.___cut DNA at specific location
4.___unique DNA variants that exist in a child but neither of its parents.
5.___DNA replication
Answer: 1. ___f__one-gene-one-enzyme hypothesis
2. ___a__gene variants
3. ___d__cut DNA at specific location
4. ___b__unique DNA variants that exist in a child but neither of its parents.
5. ___e__DNA replication
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Chapter 2: Single-Gene Inheritance
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Q1) The wild-type eye color in the fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster is dark red,as a result of a mixture of bright red and brown pigments."Enzyme A" is encoded by the "a" gene,and is required to synthesize the bright red pigment.A lack of red pigment results in a somewhat brown eye color.You cross two fruit flies who are heterozygous for a recessive mutation that completely inactivates the "a" gene.What proportion of their offspring will have a recessive eye color phenotype?
A)all of the offspring
B)3/4
C)1/2
D)1/4
E)none of the offspring
Answer: D
Q2) What is the mechanism that ensures Mendel's first law of segregation?
A)formation of chiasmata
B)formation of the kinetochore
C)pairing of homologous chromosomes
D)segregation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis I
E)segregation of sister chromatids during meiosis II
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Independent Assortment of Genes
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Q1) In the offspring of a dihybrid self,what percentage of the individuals are themselves dihybrid?
A)6)25%
B)12.50%
C)18.75%
D)25.00%
E)56.25%
Answer: D
Q2) Consider the following cross examining five unlinked genes.Identify what proportion of progeny will be phenotypically identical to parent 2?
Parent 1: A/a;B/b;C/c;D/d;E/e \(\times\) Parent 2: A/A;b/b;C/c;D/d;E/e
A)1/216
B)27/128
C)1/64
D)1/16
E)1/32
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Mapping Eukaryote Chromosomes by
Recombination
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Q1) In an experimental plant,the genes t and q are linked.A pure breeding t/t individual is crossed to a pure breeding q/q individual to obtain a dihybrid F<sub>1</sub>.Genotypically,the F<sub>1 </sub>individuals can be described as:
A)complementary dihybrids.
B)crossover dihybrids.
C)dihybrids in cis.
D)recombinant dihybrids.
E)dihybrids in trans.
Q2) In Drosophila,the genes crossveinless-c and Stubble are linked,about 7 map units apart on chromosome 3.cv-c is a recessive mutant allele of crossveinless-c (cv-c<sup>+</sup> is wild type),while Sb is a dominant mutant allele of Stubble (Sb<sup>+</sup> is wild type). A dihybrid female Drosophila with genotype cv-c Sb<sup>+</sup>/cv-c<sup>+</sup>Sb is testcrossed.The proportion of phenotypically wild-type individuals in the progeny of the testcross will be:
A)0.035.
B)0.070.
C)0.350.
D)0.465.
E)0.930.
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Chapter 5: The Genetics of Bacteria and Their Viruses
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Q1) A bacterial strain is able to grow on rich medium (which contains all the amino acids,vitamins,and a variety of carbon sources)but not on minimal medium or on minimal medium supplemented with leucine.What could be the genotype(s)of this bacterial strain with respect to the arg and leu loci?
A)arg<sup>+</sup>leu<sup>-</sup>
B)arg<sup>-</sup>leu<sup>+</sup>
C)arg<sup>+</sup>leu<sup>-</sup> or arg<sup>-</sup>leu<sup>+</sup>
D)arg<sup>-</sup>leu<sup>-</sup> or arg<sup>+</sup>leu<sup>-</sup>
E)arg<sup>-</sup>leu<sup>-</sup> or arg<sup>-</sup>leu<sup>+</sup>
Q2) Joshua Lederberg and Edward Tatum discovered a sex-like process in bacteria using:
A)high-powered microscopy in combination with antibiotic resistant genes.
B)populations of cells with complementing auxotrophs,and the measurement of the generation of prototrophs during microbial mixing.
C)mutations in bacteria that inhibit the mating process.
D)comparison of bacterial behavior to yeast behavior.
E)chromosome sequencing and analysis.
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Chapter 6: Gene Interaction
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Q1) Loppins can be purple or white,and this phenotype is inherited as a simple dominant/recessive trait with complete penetrance.In females,purple is dominant over white,while in males the opposite is true.If you cross a white female to a purple male,and then you "self" the F<sub>1</sub> (i.e.,you cross brothers and sisters)what phenotypic ratios would you expect in the F<sub>2</sub>? Assume that you always get a 1:1 ratio of males : females.
Q2) Remember that,in Labrador retrievers,B (black coat)is dominant to b (brown coat)and homozygosity for the recessive epistatic allele e always results in a yellow coat.A brown female is crossed to a yellow male,and their progeny consists of six black puppies.Interestingly,when one of the F<sub>1</sub> females is crossed to her yellow father,she gives birth to seven puppies: three yellow,three black,and one brown. What are the most likely genotypes of the original brown female and yellow male?
A)b/b;E/E (female)and B/B;e/e (male)
B)b/b;E/E (female)and B/b;e/e (male)
C)b/b;E/e(female)and B/B;e/e (male)
D)b/b;E/e(female)and B/b;e/e (male)
E)b/b;E/E (female)and b/b;e/e (male)
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Chapter 7: Dna: Structure and Replication
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Q1) Imagine it is the early 1900s and the nature of genetic material is not yet known.You believe that proteins (polypeptides)are the most likely candidates for storing heritable information,rather than DNA (which you regard as some kind of macromolecule used to store hydrocarbons).Make an argument supporting this position.
Q2) Which statement best describes the arrangement of components in a DNA molecule?
A)Nucleotides are located toward the outside of the strands and phosphates toward the interior.
B)Nucleotides are located toward the inside of the strands and the phosphates toward the outside.
C)Nucleotides,as well as the phosphates,are located toward the inside of the strands.
D)Nucleotides,as well as the phosphates,are located toward the outside of the strands.
Q3) Which of the following conditions is/are associated with abnormal telomerase activity resulting in premature aging?
A)Down syndrome
B)Patau syndrome
C)Cri-du chat syndrome
D)Werner syndrome
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Chapter 8: Rna: Transcription and Processing
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Q1) The initial discovery of the spliceosome resulted from experiments focused on:
A)autoimmunity in Lupus patients.
B)the isolation of large RNA/protein complexes from cells.
C)careful analysis of electron microscopy images from the cell nucleus.
D)RNAs from plant cells.
E)the cell biology of Huntington's disease.
Q2) Before the completion of the human genome project,it was generally estimated that human DNA would contain up to 100,000 genes.We now know humans contain only around 25,000 individual genes within our genomes.This "gene count" is so surprising because:
A)simple roundworms have over 10,000 genes,so humans should have many more.
B)experimental analysis of mRNA diversity generated estimates of ~100,000 genes.
C)humans have a large genome size (3.3 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup> base pairs).
D)the diverse types of tissue in humans require many thousands of genes.
E)All of the answer options are correct.
Q3) Pulse-chase experiments were vital for showing that RNA acts as an information-transfer intermediary between DNA and protein.Describe the basic steps of a pulse-chase experiment,and explain in your own words how the results suggested that RNA is the intermediate.
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Chapter 9: Proteins and Their Synthesis
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Q1) Francis Crick proposed "adapter" molecules to serve as an intermediary between mRNA and the synthesis of protein.Key to any model of how RNA is "read" in the process of protein synthesis would be a consideration of how:
A)amino acids are selected for addition to the new protein.
B)the RNA code was read by the translation enzyme.
C)peptide bonds are formed.
D)one codon could select a specific amino acid.
E)All of the answer options are correct.
Q2) The "wobble" base is a tRNA site where:
A)inosine nucleotide can sometimes be found.
B)mutations often create severe mutations in the encoded protein.
C)the amino acid is closely located to facilitate its addition to the new protein.
D)aminoacyl-tRNAs read the tRNA specificity.
E)tRNAs display structural instability.
Q3) Many antibiotics operate by interfering with translation-associated process or other essential cellular functions.How does tetracycline inhibit cellular translation? If tetracycline inhibits such an important process,why is it not lethal to humans when ingested to treat infection?
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Chapter 10: Gene Isolation and Manipulation
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Q1) A linear molecule of DNA 9 kb in length is isolated and mapped using restriction endonucleases EcoRI and HindIII.The fragments generated by the single and double digests are shown below.The numbers refer to the length of fragments in kilobases.
EcoRI: 7 kb,2 kb
HindIII: 5 kb,4 kb
EcoRI + HindIII: 4 kb,3 kb,2 kb
SalI: 8.5 kb,0.5 kb
EcoRI + SalI: 7 kb,1.5 kb,0.5 kb
Construct a restriction map of this linear fragment of DNA.
Q2) Bacterial cells have a variety of restriction enzymes that can degrade the DNA of an attacking virus.How do these bacterial cells protect their own DNA from being degraded by the very restriction enzymes that are meant to help them?
Q3) Human insulin can be made purer,and at a lower cost,using recombinant DNA technology.What sort of DNA clone might be ligated into a bacterial expression plasmid to be used in this strategy?
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12
Chapter 11: Regulation of Gene Expression in Bacteria and Their Viruses
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Q1) In Bacillus,the presence of alternate forms of which molecule is responsible for the control of large numbers of genes?
A)DNA dependent RNA polymerase
B)TFII
C) factor
D)Trp repressor
E)Operator protein
Q2) In the bacteriophage \(\lambda\),cro gene encodes the Cro repressor,which:
A)represses lytic growth and promotes lysogeny.
B)represses lysogeny and permits lytic growth.
C)represses both lytic growth and lysogeny.
D)promotes lysogeny.
E)None of the answer options are correct.
Q3) A promoter mutation (P<sup>-</sup>)results in:
A)no transcription.
B)inducible transcription.
C)transcription but no translation.
D)no translation.
E)constitutive transcription.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) Histones are essentially identical in sequence/structure in all eukaryotic organisms from yeast to plants to animals.What does this say about the biophysical properties of DNA-packaging and the evolution of eukaryotic organisms?
Q2) DNA elements that prevent the spreading of heterochromatin into adjacent euchromatic regions are called:
A)enhancer blocking elements.
B)euchromatin buffers.
C)barrier insulators.
D)barrier buffers.
E)barrier-blocking elements.
Q3) The mating-type (MAT)locus in yeast has how many alleles?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)The precise number is unknown.
Q4) Describe the difference between transcriptional gene regulation and post-transcriptional gene regulation in eukaryotes.
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14
Chapter 13: The Genetic Control of Development
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Q1) There are ______ Hox genes in Drosophila melanogaster.
A)12
B)8
C)10
D)25
E)39
Q2) In the developing chick vertebral limb bud,the zone of polarizing activity (ZPA)organizes a pattern along the anteroposterior axis.Transplantation of the ZPA from a posterior to anterior position:
A)causes no change in development.
B)induces extra digits with reverse polarity.
C)induces extra digits with the same polarity.
D)induces extra limbs.
E)None of the answer options are correct.
Q3) Drosophila melanogaster development proceeds in which of the following stages?
A)egg-segmented embryo-pupa-larva-adult
B)segmented embryo-egg-pupa-larva -adult
C)egg-segmented embryo-larva-pupa-adult
D)egg-larva-segmented embryo -pupa-adult
E)segmented embryo-larva-egg-pupa-adult
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Chapter 14: Genomes and Genomics
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Q1) What is meant by "codon bias"?
A)Codons are specific for the amino acids they specify.
B)Certain viruses like to infect particular DNA sequences in our genome.
C)Some organisms will use specific codons for amino acids they specify.
D)Certain viruses like to infect particular DNA sequences in our genome,and some organisms will use specific codons for amino acids they specify.
E)None of the answer options are correct.
Q2) The genome of Hemophilus influenzae,the first free-living organism to have its genome sequenced,is how large?
A)0)5-megabase
B)1.0-megabase
C)1.8-megabase
D)12-megabase
E)18-megabase
Q3) Please list three (3)approaches to reverse genetics.
Q4) Describe the information content of a genome.
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Chapter 15: The Dynamic Genome: Transposable Elements
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Q1) A corn plant is homozygous for a mutant allele that results in no pigment in the seed (i.e.,white).The mutant is caused by Ds insertion that often exits late in seed development,when there is an active Ac element in the genome.If there is NO active Ac element,the seeds of this plant will be:
A)no pigment (i.e. ,white).
B)pigmented all over.
C)white with small spots of pigment.
D)white with large spots of pigment.
E)weakly pigmented.
Q2) Which of the following statements is/are FALSE about Tc1 elements found in C.elegans?
A)Tc1 elements are retrotransposons.
B)Tc1 elements can transpose only in somatic cells.
C)Tc1 elements were used to study the RNAi based silencing mechanisms.
D)Single Tc1 element can trigger the silencing of all copies of Tc1 elements in the C.elegans genome.
E)None of the answer options are correct.
Q3) Compare and contrast IS elements,simple transposons,and composite transposons.Use diagrams to help in the comparison.
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Chapter 16: Mutation, Repair, and Recombination
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Q1) The fluctuation test of Luria and Delbruck showed that:
A)a selecting agent can affect mutation rate in E.coli.
B)mutations can arise spontaneously before exposure to the selecting agent.
C)mutations in E.coli occur at a relatively high frequency.
D)the mutation rate in E.coli fluctuates greatly from one generation to the next.
E)the T1 phage can act as a mutagen as well as a selecting agent in E.coli.
Q2) A small (one base pair)insertion in the middle of the coding region of a gene will cause a:
A)synonymous mutation.
B)silent mutation.
C)nonsense mutation.
D)missense mutation.
E)frameshift mutation.
Q3) The Spo11 enzyme in eukaryotic cells makes:
A)single-stranded cuts in the DNA to initiate replication.
B)double-stranded cuts in the DNA to initiate replication.
C)single-stranded cuts in the DNA to initiate recombination.
D)double-stranded cuts in the DNA to initiate recombination.
E)causes cancer.
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Chapter 17: Large-Scale Chromosomal Changes
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Q1) The red fox has 17 pairs of large,long chromosomes.The arctic fox has 26 pairs of smaller shorter chromosomes.What do you expect to be the chromosome number in somatic tissues of a red fox/arctic fox hybrid?
A)13
B)17
C)26
D)43
Q2) A man is found to be karyotypically 47,XYY.The presence of an extra Y chromosome most likely results from:
A)nondisjunction in a maternal meiocyte at meiosis I.
B)nondisjunction in a maternal meiocyte at meiosis II.
C)nondisjunction in a paternal meiocyte at meiosis I.
D)nondisjunction in a paternal meiocyte at meiosis II.
E)unequal crossing over.
Q3) An allotetraploid plant with 2n = 30 is backcrossed to one of its progenitor species that has an n = 8.A sterile progeny is produced.How many chromosomes will this sterile individual possess,and what are the chromosome numbers of the two progenitor species?
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Chapter 18: Population Genetics
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Q1) In a population of rats,35% of the individuals are genotypically B/B,10% are B/b,and 55% are b/b.Assuming there are no mutations,no selection and no migrations,the predicted frequency of the b/b genotype after one generation of random mating is: A)25%.
B)42.25%.
C)47.5%.
D)55%.
E)57.5%.
Q2) If the frequency of the recessive allele that causes phenylketonuria (PKU)when homozygote is about 0.01 in European and American populations,what is the estimated heterozygote frequency in these populations? (Assume that people mate randomly with respect to PKU,and that the mutant allele does not have any effects on fitness.)
A)about 0.0001
B)about 0.01
C)about 0.0198
D)about 0.99
E)It is impossible to make an estimate.
Q3) How is the genetic composition of a population defined?
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Chapter 19: The Inheritance of Complex Traits
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Q1) Which of the following statements is/are a central assumption of the multifactorial inheritance hypothesis?
A)Only one locus is associated with the trait.
B)Several loci are associated with the trait.
C)Environment plays no role in the final phenotype.
D)Only one locus is associated with the trait,and environment interacts with this locus to produce the final phenotype.
E)None of the answer options are correct.
Q2) Ten pairs of monozygotic twins were tested for their ability to solve geometry problems.The highest score obtained was 46 points,while the lowest was 6 points.The variance in geometry test score within the twenty subjects (measured in points<sup>2</sup>)was 208.The covariance for test score between twins was 125.In this study,the broad-sense heritability of geometry problem-solving ability is: A)26%.
B)32%.
C)40%.
D)60%.
E)It is impossible to calculate.
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21
Chapter 20: Evolution of Genes and Traits
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Q1) Tony Allison examined the allele frequency of hemoglobin (HbA,or HbS)in populations of Kenyon tribes.A surprising result of this study was that:
A)the HbS and HbA alleles were evenly distributed among Kenyan tribes.
B)the HbS alleles appeared more frequently in men than in women.
C)tribes living in arid or highland regions had high frequencies of HbS alleles.
D)tribes living near Lake Victoria had a low frequency of HbS alleles.
E)tribes living in arid or highland regions had low frequencies of HbS alleles.
Q2) Describe how a population can shift adaptive peaks.Be clear about what mechanisms can accomplish this transition.
Q3) In human populations,the "AS" allele arose from:
A)the insertion of a mutagenic transposon into the Hb gene.
B)one individual located in central Africa.
C)five independent events,in separate populations.
D)a frameshift mutation in the Hb gene.
E)a plasmodium-induced change in DNA sequence.
Q4) Darwin's theory of evolution was developed around three central principles: the principle of variation,the principle of heredity,and the principle of selection.Define each of these principles,and explain their role in evolution.
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