Cell and Molecular Physiology Practice
Exam
Course Introduction
Cell and Molecular Physiology explores the fundamental mechanisms by which cells function and communicate at the molecular level. The course covers topics such as membrane structure and transport, signal transduction pathways, energy production, and gene expression regulation. Students examine the molecular basis of cellular processes including cell cycle control, differentiation, and apoptosis, and explore how these processes integrate within tissues and organ systems. Emphasis is placed on experimental methods and contemporary research that uncover the dynamic interactions governing cellular physiology and their implications for health and disease.
Recommended Textbook
Beckers World of the Cell 8th Edition by Jeff Hardin
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A Preview of the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have been a sample of Mimivirus,which has the largest capsid diameter of all currently known viruses (600 nm)and is hexagon shaped (icosahedral).Based on your knowledge of microscopes,what would you be able to see/determine about mimiviral structure using each of the following microscopes?
a.simple compound (light)microscope
b.fluorescent microscope using fluorescently labeled antibodies to a novel capsid protein
c.magnetic resonance force microscope
Answer: a.Light microscope: will be able to see basic viral shape,especially if particles are stained
b.Fluorescent microscope: should illuminate the outside of the viral particles
c.Magnetic resonance microscope: would allow imaging of the various macromolecules of the nucleus and capsid
Q2) Melvin Calvin used ________,a specific ________,to deduce the Calvin-Benson cycle of photosynthesis.
Answer: ¹ C; radioisotope
Q3) Glycolysis is also called the ________ pathway after the scientists who did most of the work to define it.
Answer: Embden-Meyerhof
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of the Cell
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Q1) Due to the directionality of polymer synthesis,proteins have distinct ________ and ________ ends.
Answer: amino (-NH ); carboxyl (-COOH)
Q2) Monomers are removed from polymers by ________ reactions.
A)condensation
B)hydrolysis
C)neutralization
D)substitution
E)redox
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following statements about the polymerization of macromolecules is false?
A)Often the energy needed for polymerization is supplied by ATP.
B)The polymer chain usually has two different ends.
C)Water is added to join the monomers of the macromolecules.
D)A monomer is usually activated by the coupling of the monomer to a carrier.
E)Macromolecules are synthesized by the stepwise addition of monomers.
Answer: C
Q4) ________ aid in the assembly of some biomolecules.
Answer: Molecular chaperones
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Chapter 3: The Macromolecules of the Cell
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Q1) For the amino acid glutamine,the three-letter abbreviation is ________ and the one-letter is ________.
Answer: gln; Q
Q2) The level of protein structure that is even higher than quaternary structure is
A)R-group interactions.
B)subunit interactions and assembly.
C)enzyme complex formation.
D)the linear sequence of amino acids.
E)hydrogen bond formation.
Answer: C
Q3) Structurally,starch exists as both unbranched polysaccharide chains called ________ and branched polysaccharide chains called ________.
Answer: amylose; amylopectin
Q4) Which of the following is not true of phospholipids?
A)Phospholipids are important in membrane structure.
B)Serine is a molecule that may be part of a phosphoglyceride.
C)Phosphatidic acid contains two fatty acids and a phosphate group.
D)Sphingolipids are the predominant phospholipid in membranes.
E)Phospholipids are amphipathic.
Answer: D
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Cells and Organelles
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Q1) The size range of most plant and animal cells is ________.
A)1-10 nm
B)1-5 m
C)10-50 m
D)0.1-0.5 mm
E)50-100 mm
Q2) As a cell increases in size,the surface area ________ and the volume ________.
Q3) Which of the following is true of plant cells?
A)Plant cells may contain chloroplasts.
B)Plant cells are always much larger than animal cells.
C)Chromosomes are found only in plant cells.
D)Only plant cells have a cell membrane.
E)The plant cell has no cell wall.
Q4) Which of the following is not generally associated with a chloroplast?
A)thylakoids
B)grana
C)stroma
D)matrix
E)both choices A and B
Q5) The ________ are prokaryotes that live in very salty environments.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Bioenergetics: the Flow of Energy in the Cell
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Q1) Under the conditions of a given reaction,a positive G' means
A)the reaction is spontaneous.
B)no energy needs to be added.
C)the reaction is at equilibrium.
D)work can be done.
E)the reaction will not occur.
Q2) The steady state so vital to life is possible because
A)the cell cannot convert energy from one form to another.
B)all cells are autotrophic.
C)the cell continually takes up energy from the environment.
D)all reactions are at equilibrium.
E)all reactions are exothermic.
Q3) Fermentation is a process that proceeds without oxygen.Such a process can be described as ________.
Q4) All of the following are used as bioluminescent tools for cell biologists except A)luciferase.
B)rhodopsin.
C)GFP.
D)YFP.
E)none of the above
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Enzymes: the Catalysts of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inhibitors of enzymes can be either reversible or irreversible.The most common reversible inhibitors are competitive or noncompetitive.Based on what you know about enzyme inhibitors,can you determine the type of inhibition discussed in these examples?
a.Diisopropyl fluorophosphate binds to acetylcholinesterase and permanently inactivates the enzyme.Paralysis results.
b.An inhibitor binds to the active site of an enzyme but disassociates and leaves the enzyme active.
c.A toxin binds to an enzyme.The enzyme then binds the substrate.No product is produced.The toxin may disassociate and allow for product formation.
d.Vitamin K is a coenzyme involved in blood clotting.An anticoagulant drug binds at the site of vitamin K and prevents clotting.Clotting resumes after the drug has been discontinued.
e.Aspirin binds to prostaglandin synthetase and permanently stops its ability to produce prostaglandin.
Q2) ________ is the class of enzymes able to convert a substrate to its mirror image.
Q3) ________ inhibitors bind reversibly at the active site of an enzyme.
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Chapter 7: Membranes: Their Structure, function, and Chemistry
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Q1) A colleague gives you two membrane fractions from a plant cell lysate.One contains the plasma membrane fraction,the other the mitochondrial fraction.The tubes are not labeled,but you run the samples anyway,looking at the macromolecule composition of the samples.You know for certain that the second sample contains the mitochondrial fraction simply because it contains insignificant amounts of A)lipids.
B)protein.
C)specifically phospholipids.
D)carbohydrates.
E)both choices C and D
Q2) Which of the following molecules would not readily cross an intact cell membrane by simple diffusion?
A)water
B)glucose
C)oxygen
D)fatty acids
E)ethanol
Q3) In E.coli the enzyme responsible for creating unsaturated bonds from saturated ones in the fatty acids of the cell membrane is ________.
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Chapter 8: Transport Across Membranes: Overcoming the
Permeability Barrier
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Q1) You are wanting to modify plant cells.With the procedure you are using,the plant cells must be in a plasmolyzed state.This means that the plant cells must be placed in a(n)
A)acid solution.
B)hypotonic solution.
C)isotonic solution.
D)basic solution.
E)hypertonic solution.
Q2) In examining glucose transport into a cell,the immediate phosphorylation of glucose following its entry into the cell
A)keeps the glucose from being transported back out of the cell.
B)allows the cell to maintain higher levels of glucose outside the cell.
C)converts glucose into a form for use in cellular respiration.
D)converts glucose into a form to be stored.
E)all of the above
Q3) Transmembrane movement of a substance with a concentration gradient,with no involvement of membrane proteins,is called ________.
Q4) Receptor-mediated endocytosis involves vesicles with a special coat protein known as ________.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Chemotrophic Energy Metabolism: Glycolysis and Fermentation
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Q1) During strenuous exercise,you may notice that your muscles burn.Which of the following statements best explains this phenomenon?
A)Proteins are being digested to provide energy.
B)Carbon dioxide is building up in muscle and changing the pH.
C)Without oxygen, pyruvate is being converted to lactic acid.
D)ADP is accumulating, which produces a burning sensation.
E)Pyruvic acid causes muscle pain.
Q2) The coenzyme ________ must interact with pyruvate before fermentation by-products are produced.
Q3) Pyruvate is the end-product of glycolysis.Many organisms,such as anaerobic bacteria,can only produce energy by glycolysis; therefore,pyruvate has no more potential for ATP generation for these organisms.Rather than simply excrete pyruvate,this molecule is changed to another molecule such as lactate.In these organisms,why is pyruvate changed to lactate and excreted,rather than simply excreted?
A)Pyruvate export requires more energy than lactate.
B)Electrons (and protons)are added to pyruvate to make lactate.
C)NAD is regenerated as pyruvate is changed to lactate.
D)Substrate level phosphorylation changes pyruvate to lactate.
E)both choices B and C
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Chapter 10: Chemotrophic Energy Metabolism: Aerobic Respiration
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Q1) Which of the following statements is not true of the TCA cycle?
A)Oxidation occurs at three steps in the TCA cycle.
B)Decarboxylation occurs at two steps in the TCA cycle.
C)ATP/GTP is generated at one point by substrate-level phosphorylation.
D)Acetate enters the TCA cycle and joins a four-carbon acceptor molecule to form citrate.
E)FAD is an electron acceptor in the cycle.
Q2) The TCA cycle and glyoxylate cycle are similar in many respects.Which of the following statements accurately describes these cycles?
A)Both cycles are catabolic in function.
B)The glyoxylate cycle has only a single decarboxylating reaction.
C)In the glyoxylate cycle, two acetyl CoA molecules are used to generate succinate.
D)The glyoxylate cycle is used by some organisms to synthesize proteins.
E)The TCA and glyoxylate cycles both occur in the mitochondrion.
Q3) Explain how fatty acids are activated in the cytoplasm and ultimately transported into the mitochondrion to be oxidized.Why would the use of carnitine be an advantage for this process?
Q4) Respiration includes glycolysis,the ________,electron transport,and ________.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Phototrophic Energy Metabolism: Photosynthesis
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Q1) When atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations decrease,the ________ cycle gives C plants an advantage over C when it comes to fixation.
Q2) Of the following plastids,which is not paired with the proper contents?
A)amyloplasts; amylase
B)chromoplasts; non-chlorophyll pigments
C)chloroplasts; chlorophyll
D)proteinoplasts; protein
E)elaioplasts; lipids
Q3) Biosynthesis of sucrose occurs in the A)cytoplasm.
B)stroma.
C)thylakoid lumen.
D)intermembrane space.
E)stroma thylakoids.
Q4) The Emerson enhancement effect
A)was proposed by Robert Emerson in the 1980s.
B)states that there are three or four separate photoreactions.
C)is a synergistic phenomenon.
D)is the result of two distinct photosystems.
E)both choices C and D
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Chapter 12: The Endomembrane System and Peroxisomes
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Q1) Ribosomes that do not anchor to the surface of the rough endoplasmic reticulum during translation most probably
A)are synthesizing cytoplasmic proteins.
B)have a defect in ribosomal proteins that allow attachment to the ER.
C)have a signal/trafficking error.
D)do not make the appropriate anchor protein.
E)all of the above
Q2) You have genetically engineered a yeast cell to make a protein that will ultimately be secreted from the cell. If all is functioning well,in which order (from first to last)do you expect to find the protein in the cell until it is secreted?
A)rER Golgi secretory vesicle environment
B)rER Golgi sER nucleus environment
C)nucleus rER Golgi secretory vesicle environment
D)sER Golgi secretory vesicle environment
E)rER secretory vesicle Golgi environment
Q3) Design an experiment that will allow you to follow a protein from the endoplasmic reticulum,Golgi complex,and secretion vesicles to the outside of the cell.How will this differ if the protein is localized within lysosomes?
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Chapter 13: Signal Transduction Mechanisms: Ielectrical and Synaptic Signaling in Neurons
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Q1) ________ receptors act more slowly because they act in a(n)________ manner.
Q2) Many drugs work by interfering with the inactivation of neurotransmitters once they have been released.What are the two basic mechanisms whereby a drug may interfere in this process? Explain how you would design a potential mechanism for a new drug based on either of these mechanisms.
Q3) Upon transmission of a nerve signal to a muscle cell,________ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum through a gated channel.
Q4) Refer to the graph above.If the myelin fibers were stripped from this membrane,you would expect the action potential cycle to go
A)much faster than depicted in the graph.
B)much faster than normal but not peak at 30 mV.
C)slower than depicted in the graph.
D)much slower than normal but peak much higher than 30 mV.
E)none of the above
Q5) At rest,a cell has a ________ charge inside of the cell and a ________ charge outside of the cell.
Q6) Ions of ________ initiate the release of a neurotransmitter,such as acetylcholine,via ________ into the synaptic cleft.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Signal Transduction Mechanisms: Iimessengers and Receptors
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Q1) It would be useful to determine if the mechanism of action for the XFFXFF receptor is similar to that of estrogen or epinephrine.To test this,you use a nonhydrolyzable analogue of GTP in the reaction mixture.If the mechanism is still similar to that of epinephrine,you would expect the cellular responses would be A)blocked.
B)prolonged.
C)delayed.
D)both choices B and C
E)The mechanism cannot be determined.
Q2) You have recently identified a molecule that you believe to be a ligand associated with a signal transduction mechanism.All you know about this ligand is that chemically it is hydrophilic.As a result,you expect it to interact with its receptor
A)at the outer cell surface.
B)within the cytoplasm of the cell.
C)within the nucleus of the cell.
D)on the cytoplasmic side of the plasma membrane.
E)all of the above
Q3) ________ is the second messenger associated with the regulation of blood pressure.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Cytoskeletal Systems
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Q1) The ________ model was proposed by Mitchison and Kirschner to explain how polymerization and depolymerization of microtubules occur simultaneously.
Q2) A unique feature of ________ is that they are tissue specific.
Q3) The ________ is a complex network of interconnected filaments and tubules that extends throughout the cytosol,from the nucleus to the inner surface of the plasma membrane.
A)cytoskeleton
B)microtubule apparatus
C)cell scaffold
D)desmin sheath
E)microfilament array
Q4) Which of the following is not a cellular activity associated with microtubules?
A)maintenance of axons
B)cell shape
C)orientation of cellulose microfibrils
D)cilial structure
E)mititotic spindle
Q5) Cytochalasins prevent addition of monomers to pre-existing ________.
Q6) Activation of the ________ G-protein results in the extension of lamellipodia.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Cellular Movement: Motility and Contractility
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Q1) Sidearms are attached to ________.
A)B tubules
B)A tubules
C)central pairs
D)radial spokes
E)interdoublet nexin
Q2) All of the following are actin-dependent nonmuscle motility except A)translocation of multienzyme complexes.
B)pinching off of the cleavage furrow in cytokinesis.
C)chemotaxis.
D)cyclosis or cytoplasmic streaming.
E)amoeboid movement.
Q3) The "9 + 0" cilia arrangement is associated with A)eubacteria.
B)cyanobacteria.
C)cilia lining the respiratory tract.
D)flagella on sperm cells.
E)animal embryonic development.
Q4) Cytoplasmic streaming depends on the protein ________.
Q5) Tubulin subunits are added to growing cilia or flagella by ________.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Beyond the Cell: Cell Adhesions, cell Junctions, and Extracellular Structures
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Q1) You are investigating a clinical disorder in one of your patients.You discover that the patient has an autoimmune disease that targets and destroys fibroblasts.This disorder would most likely affect
A)fiber production by the cells, as occurs with blood clotting.
B)annulus formation.
C)hyluronate production in the joints.
D)collagen production.
E)all of the above
Q2) A(n)________ is the ring of cytoplasm lining the plasmodesmata.
Q3) Which of the following is not associated with the basal lamina?
A)serves as a structural support
B)allows for movement of some small molecules
C)can influence cell migrations in certain areas of the body
D)contains collagen type IV, proteoglycans, laminins, and entactin
E)contains the most abundant supply of fibronectins.
Q4) One of the most important roles of proteoglycans is to trap ________.
Q5) ________ are insoluble polymers of aromatic alcohols that are primarily found in woody tissues.
Q6) A collection of collagen fibrils is a collagen ________.
Q7) ________ are cytoplasmic channels through openings in plant cell walls. Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Structural Basis of Cellular Information:
DNA, chromosomes, and the Nucleus
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Q1) The specific field of study that examines the gene products of a genome is known as A)genomics.
B)bioinformatics.
C)annotation.
D)proteomics.
E)none of the above
Q2) DNA isolated from Aspergillis has an adenine content of 25%.Based upon this information,what is the %G + C within the Aspergillis DNA?
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
E)The answer cannot be determined from this information.
Q3) Interspersed repeat DNA
A)constitutes 25-40% of most mammalian genomes.
B)is clustered in the genome.
C)is approximately 10 -10 bp in length for each repeat.
D)occurs in gene families, such as the Alu family.
E)both choices A and D
Page 21
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Chapter 19: The Cell Cycle, DNA Replication, and Mitosis
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding DNA replication is true?
A)Bacterial replication is faster than eukaryotic replication.
B)DNA replication during embryonic development occurs at a slower rate than in the early stages of neonatal life.
C)Early-replicating genes are those that are not actively transcribed.
D)The rate of DNA replication is constant at all stages of development in eukaryotes.
E)Cyclin-dependent kinases (Cdk)are not involved in the DNA replication process.
Q2) The phase of the cell cycle associated with the doubling of the amount of DNA in the cell is
A)G0.
B)G1.
C)G2.
D)M.
E)S.
Q3) Proteins bound to CEN sequences form a complex known as the ________.
Q4) The type of DNA repair that fixes mistakes in nucleotide incorporation is known as ________ repair.
Q5) The region of the centromere contains repeated DNA sequences known as ________.
Q6) Analysis of chromosomes in metaphase of mitosis is known as ________ .
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Sexual Reproduction, meiosis, and Genetic
Recombination
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Q1) ________ chromosomes pair during ________ of meiosis.
Q2) Mitosis and meiosis differ in that
A)homologues are separated in prophase I of meiosis.
B)homologues are separated in prophase II of meiosis.
C)homologues are separated in prophase of mitosis.
D)sister chromatids are separated in prophase I of meiosis.
E)sister chromatids are separated in anaphase of mitosis.
Q3) As a child,you greatly disliked having to receive vaccines by injection (shots).Therefore,you have elected to genetically engineer a vaccine that can be administered via ingestion.How would you design such a vaccine? What may be some limitations of the vaccine you have designed?
Q4) A mouse line that lacks a specific gene in order to study the effects of the absence of said gene is called called a(n)________.
A)transgenic
B)chimera
C)knockout
D)clone
E)mosaic
Q5) The first disease to be treated by gene therapy was ________.
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Chapter 21: Gene Expression: Ithe Genetic Code and Transcription
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Q1) Which of the following enzymes is responsible for specifically transcribing tRNA in eukaryotic cells?
A)RNA polymerase I
B)RNA polymerase II
C)RNA polymerase III
D)primase
E)RNase H
Q2) A new antibiotic is able to bind the rho ( )factor associated with some transcription processes; as a result this antibiotic would affect
A)initiation of transcription.
B)elongation of transcription.
C)binding of the RNA polymerase.
D)termination of all transcription.
E)termination of some transcription.
Q3) An example of a retrovirus in the human genome is the ________ family of sequences.
Q4) In eukaryotic transcription,TFIID recognizes and binds the ________ box in the DNA.
Q5) The coding regions of a gene are known as ________.
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Chapter 22: Gene Expression: Iiprotein Synthesis and Sorting
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Q1) Which of the following statements is not true concerning peptidyl transferase?
A)It is a ribozyme having catalytic activity.
B)It catalyzes peptide bond formation.
C)It moves the ribosome, so translation continues.
D)It is associated with the large subunit of ribosomes.
E)It requires no outside source of additional energy, such as ATP.
Q2) Messenger RNAs that contain no stop codons due to a frameshift mutation are eliminated by
A)nonstop decay.
B)directed RNase activity.
C)nonsense-mediated decay.
D)error-mediated repair.
E)none of the above
Q3) In eukaryotic initiation,one will often see the sequence ACCAUGG as a translational start sequence. This sequence is known as the ________ sequence.
A)Okazaki
B)ETS (eukaryotic translational start)
C)Kozak
D)IRES (internal ribosome entry sequence)
E)CIBS (complex initiation binding sequence)
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Chapter 23: The Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Inactivated X chromsomes form dark spots in the nucleus known as ________.
Q2) Transcriptionally active chromatin has a large content of ________ proteins,nonhistone proteins associated with chromatin.
Q3) Within a genome,an enhancer may be located
A)upstream of the gene enhanced.
B)downstream of the gene enhanced.
C)within the gene enhanced.
D)choices A, B, and C
E)both choices A and B
Q4) In the lactose operon,a P mutant would have a mutation in the ________ region of the operon.
Q5) The ________ experiments use an initial exposure to a radioactive compound in the mRNA followed by monitoring of the radioactive compound to determine its fate in the cell.
Q6) Genes associated with embryonic development are known as
A)homologous genes.
B)sigma factors.
C)heterologous genes.
D)hopanoids.
E)homeotic genes.
Page 26
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Chapter 24: Cancer Cells
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Q1) Genes that,when present,trigger the development of cancer are known as A)tumor suppressor genes.
B)oncogenes.
C)proto-oncogenes.
D)apoptosis genes.
E) p53.
Q2) A tumor is actively producing both VEGF and FGF,factors associated with angiogenesis. However,no network of blood vessels to the tumor has been established in spite of the fact that blood vessels are nearby. This observation most likely suggests that
A)the VEGF and FGF are not functional.
B)angiogenesis inhibitors are in greater concentration.
C)only one of the molecules is active, not both.
D)angiostatin is not produced by the cancer cells.
E)the tumor is metastatic.
Q3) How are cancer cells able to evade the immune system and thus able to proliferate seemingly uncontrolled?
Q4) ________ and ________ have been demonstrated to trigger DNA mutation associated with particular geographical cancers.
Q5) How does genetic instability arise,and how might you test your hypothesis?
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