Cell and Molecular Genetics
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Cell and Molecular Genetics explores the fundamental principles governing the structure, function, and regulation of genetic material within cells. The course delves into DNA and RNA organization, gene expression, replication, and repair mechanisms, as well as chromosome dynamics and the molecular basis of heredity and variation. Students examine classical and modern genetics, genetic mapping, and genome editing technologies, gaining insight into the molecular processes underlying genetic disorders and biotechnological applications. Emphasis is placed on experimental techniques and model organisms to understand cellular processes and the regulation of gene activity in both normal and pathological states.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Biology 2nd Edition by David P. Clark
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Chapter 1: Cells and Organisms
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Q1) Membrane bound structures involved in digestion are called .
A)mitochondria
B)nuclei
C)Golgi complexes
D)lysosomes
Answer: D
Q2) Membrane-bound organelles in eukaryotes that are specialized for energy production are called .
A)nuclei
B)lysosomes
C)Golgi complexes
D)mitochondria
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is not common to all cells?
A)ribosomes
B)plasma membrane
C)nucleus
D)cytosol
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Basic Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A triploid organism would have copies of all genes. A)0
B)1 C)2
D)3 Answer: D
Q2) Humans have chromosomes in the gametes. A)2 B)12
C)24 D)48
Answer: C
Q3) Sex-linked genes only affect male carriers. A)True B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: DNA, RNA, and Protein
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Q1) During DNA base pairing,which of the following would be incorrectly paired?
A)guanine:cytosine
B)adenine:thymine
C)purine:purine
D)purine:pyrimindine
Answer: C
Q2) The free 3' end of nucleic acids contains a and the free 5' end contains a
A)phosphate;hydroxyl
B)hydroxyl;phosphate
C)phosphate;phosphate
D)hydroxyl;hydroxyl
Answer: B
Q3) All of the following are pyrimidines except .
A)thymine
B)adenine
C)cytosine
D)uracil
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Genes, genomes, and DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following describe Z-DNA except .
A)left-handed helix
B)12 base pairs per turn
C)acid conditions
D)GC- or GT-rich tracts
Q2) Alu elements represent of the human genome.
A)less than 1%
B)4-5%
C)6-8%
D)more than 10%
Q3) Which of the following sequences would have the highest melting temperature relative to the others listed?
A)5'-ATATATAT-3'
B)5'-GAGAGAGA-3'
C)5'-GCGCGCGC-3'
D)5'-AAAAAAAA-3'
Q4) The most common form of DNA is A-DNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Manipulation of Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which of the following fragments of DNA would migrate closest to the wells during agarose gel electrophoresis?
A)1000 bp
B)150 bp
C)10,000 bp
D)650 bp
Q2) Which type of blotting uses antibodies to detect proteins on a membrane?
A)Southern blot
B)Northern blot
C)Western blot
D)South-Western blot
Q3) What types of labels are added to probes to enable detection during hybridization experiments?
A)fluorescence
B)chemical
C)radioactive
D)all of the above
Q4) GC base pairs absorb more ultraviolet light than AT base pairs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Polymerase Chain Reaction
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Q1) Messenger RNA from eukaryotic cells can be specifically amplified using
A)Standard PCR
B)RT-PCR
C)Differential display PCR
D)RACE
Q2) Which component of the PCR reaction mixture confers specificity in the reaction for the target sequence on the original DNA template?
A)Taq polymerase
B)primers
C)nucleotides
D)template DNA
Q3) Which of the following uses an RNA template during the technique?
A)TA cloning
B)RAPD
C)Inverse PCR
D)RT-PCR
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Chapter 7: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Q1) Why must a shuttle vector possess two origins of replication instead of one?
A)Shuttle vectors must replicate in multiple hosts with each host requiring a different origin.
B)Shuttle vectors must be able to replicate from two different origins of replication depending upon the specific growth conditions.
C)Shuttle vectors only have one origin of replication,not two.
D)Shuttle vectors use one origin for replication and the other origin for shuttling recombinant DNA into new hosts.
Q2) What types of genes are found on plasmids and often used as selectable markers?
A)antibiotic resistance genes
B)multiple cloning sites
C)origins of replication
D)methylated sequences
Q3) Reverse transcriptase generates cDNA from a template.
A)DNA
B)transfer RNA
C)messenger RNA
D)cDNA
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9
Chapter 8: DNA Sequencing
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Q1) Dideoxy nucleotides are missing a 3' hydroxyl.
A)True
B)False
Q2) DNA chip technology relies on the hybridization of .
A)DNA to DNA
B)DNA to RNA
C)RNA to DNA
D)RNA to RNA
Q3) Nanopore technology is speedy and handles long DNA molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which sequencing method would work best for determining the sequence of a single DNA molecule?
A)pyrosequencing
B)third generation sequencing
C)second generation sequencing
D)chain termination sequencing
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Chapter 9: Genomics Systems Biology
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Q1) Sequence tagged sites are needed when genomes .
A)contain mostly coding sequence
B)contain mostly non-coding sequence
C)are very tiny
D)have many repetitive sequences
Q2) In some metagenomic analyses,organisms in the community do not have to be cultured.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following makes up more percentage of the human genome than the others listed in the answer choices?
A)protein coding genes
B)LINEs
C)heterochromatin
D)introns
Q4) The genomes of some plants and a few protozoa have more genes than humans.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Cell Division and DNA Replication
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Q1) The process of does not use mitosis.
A)gamete formation
B)embryogenesis
C)asexual reproduction
D)tissue repair/wound healing
Q2) Origins are replication are .
A)GC-rich
B)AT-rich
C)runs of adenine residues
D)heavily methylated
Q3) Replication always proceeds relative to the new strand.
A)unidirectional from the origin
B)left to right
C)3' to 5'
D)5' to 3'
Q4) G1,S,and G2 are collectively called .
A)the cell cycle
B)interphase
C)cell division
D)cytokinesis
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Chapter 11: Transcription of Genes
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Q1) Large ribosomal RNAs are transcribed by .
A)RNA polymerase I
B)RNA polymerase II
C)RNA polymerase III
D)None of the above
Q2) The Sigma subunit of RNA polymerase binds to the .
A)-10 and -35 sites
B)enhancer
C)RNA
D)+1
Q3) Transcription occurs in the of eukaryotes and the of prokaryotes.
A)nucleus;nucleus
B)cytosol;cytosol
C)nucleus;cytosol
D)cytosol;nucleus
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Chapter 12: Processing of RNA
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Q1) In bacteria, is involved in processing tRNAs.
A)ribonuclease P
B)ribonuclease H
C)ribonuclease D
D)ribonuclease E/F
Q2) Primary transcripts are in the final form for translation into protein.
A)True
B)False
Q3) PolyA)polymerase .
A)adds the polyA)tail to prokaryotic mRNAs
B)generates short RNA molecules with repeating adenine residues used in regulation of transcription
C)adds the adenine cap to processed eukaryotic mRNAs
D)generates the 3' tail on eukaryotic mRNAs
Q4) Some pre-rRNAs are processed to generate mature rRNA and tRNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Protein Synthesis
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Q1) Release factors .
A)help terminate transcription
B)help terminate translation
C)help the ribosome to release uncharged tRNA molecules
D)help the ribosome release the amino acids on the charged tRNAs
Q2) Which of the following is not associated with tRNA?
A)transfer of amino acids
B)anticodon loop
C)cloverleaf appearance
D)type of RNA translated into protein
Q3) A triplet of three nucleotides found on the DNA or mRNA that codes for one amino acid is called a/an .
A)anticodon
B)codon
C)trio
D)peptide
Q4) The anticodon of the tRNA is complementary to the codon on mRNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Protein Structure and Function
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Q1) Dissociation refers to the loss of structure of proteins.
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
Q2) Changes in can cause proteins to denature.
A)pH
B)salt concentration
C)temperature
D)all of the above
Q3) Enzymes the activation energy of the reaction.
A)lower
B)raise
C)inhibit
D)stabilize
Q4) All of the following are functions of proteins except .
A)defense
B)structural support
C)energy production
D)major plasma membrane component
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Chapter 15: Proteomics
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Q1) How are proteins denatured in SDS-PAGE?
A)detergent and high temperature
B)high temperature only
C)acylamide
D)electrical charge
Q2) Proteins microarrays .
A)are used to investigate protein-protein interactions
B)are used to determine enzymatic activity
C)help determine the binding of DNA or RNA to protein
D)all of the above
Q3) All of the following are appropriate methods for investigating protein-protein interactions except .
A)mass spectrometry
B)two hybrid analysis
C)electrophoretic mobility shift assays
D)co-immunoprecipitation
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Chapter 16: Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes
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Q1) All of the following are examples of transcriptional regulation in prokaryotes except
A)binding of a repressor to an operator
B)premature termination of RNA polymerase during transcription elongation
C)binding of cAMP-CRP complex to the lac operon of Escherichia coli
D)over-riding termination by anti-terminator proteins
Q2) Some nucleotides are involved in transcriptional regulation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Gratuitous inducers .
A)are metabolized like the natural inducer
B)are not broken down
C)are nutrient sources
D)are competitive inhibitors
Q4) Autoregulation occurs when .
A)IPTG binds to LacI
B)allo-lactose binds to LacI
C)a repressor binds to its own gene to prevent transcription
D)CRP binds to cAMP and the the lac operon
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Chapter 17: Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes
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Q1) X-inactivation .
A)only occurs in males
B)is the deactivation of both X chromosomes in all females
C)shuts down one of the two X chromosomes in females
D)occurs by the action of histone acetylation
Q2) Which of the following is commonly used as a control point in eukaryotic transcription?
A)initiation
B)elongation
C)termination
D)RNA processing
Q3) Xist is .
A)a gene encoding an untranslated RNA involved in X-inactivation
B)the heterochromatin of inactivated X chromosomes
C)is a gene that is only found on active X chromosomes
D)helps inactivate the X chromosome of males
Q4) Simple repressors are common in eukaryotes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Regulation at the RNA Level
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Q1) Riboswitches .
A)can bind small molecules
B)are useful in translational control
C)are found on the 5' end of the mRNA
D)are all of the above
Q2) Proteins that prevent translation of mRNA are called .
A)nucleases
B)translational repressors
C)proteases
D)mRNA silencers
Q3) RISC proteins recognize small RNA fragments called . A)Slicer
B)Dicer
C)siRNA
D)miRNA
Q4) Attenuation of RNA involves the formation of alternate stem-loop structures.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Analysis of Gene Expression
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Q1) DNase I protection assays or DNA footprinting is useful for .
A)determining the start of transcription
B)determining the location of a DNA binding sequence
C)preventing contamination of RNA in primer extension samples
D)none of the above
Q2) Primer extension is used to .
A)determine the transcriptional start site
B)locate the binding of RNA polymerase
C)determine the interaction of RNA and proteins
D)generate primers for PCR
Q3) Deletion analysis allows a researcher to examine the effects of regulatory proteins on gene expression.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Microarrays and SAGE have the ability to monitor .
A)large numbers of mRNAs simultaneously
B)small numbers of specific mRNAs
C)proteins expressed under a given condition
D)the binding of a protein to a DNA or RNA molecule
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Chapter 20: Plasmids
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Q1) The Ti-plasmid was used as the platform for genetically engineering plants.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which family of plasmids carries genes for antibiotic resistance?
A)R-plasmids
B)F-plasmids
C)P-plasmids
D)X-plasmids
Q3) Plasmids are self-replicating extrachromosomal pieces of DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Ti-plasmid is found in .
A)Escherichia coli
B)yeast
C)Agrobacterium tumefaciens
D)plants
Q5) All plasmids are circular
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Viruses
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Q1) All viruses are .
A)parasitic
B)saprophytic
C)enveloped
D)bacteriophages
Q2) The next step of viral propagation following attachment and entry is
A)genome replication
B)assembly
C)viral protein manufacture
D)release of new virions
Q3) Which enzyme is required for RNA viruses to replicate their genomes?
A)reverse transcriptase
B)RNA replicase
C)DNA polymerase
D)host RNA polymerase
Q4) Viruses hijack host cell replication machinery to produce more viral particles.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Mobile DNA
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Q1) Conservative transposition .
A)generates a copy of the transposon
B)generates double-stranded breaks in the DNA
C)occurs only for RNA transposons
D)has no detrimental effects on the host genome.
Q2) Resolvase is needed for .
A)conservative transposition
B)replicative transposition
C)simple transposons
D)retrotransposons
Q3) Reverse transcsriptase is needed for .
A)the movement of retrotransposons
B)the integration of RNA transposons
C)the transcription of RNA transposons
D)the excision of retrotransposons
Q4) Where might mobile DNA elements be found?
A)plasmids
B)chromosomes
C)viral genomes
D)all of the above
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Chapter 23: Mutations and Repair
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Q1) In some repair mechanisms,the parental DNA strand is used as a guide for repairing mistakes made in the newly synthesized DNA strand.The cell is able to distinguish the parental strand from the new strand because immediately following replication,the DNA is .
A)fully methylated
B)still single-stranded
C)hemi-methylated
D)non-methylated
Q2) A mutation has no effect on phenotype.
A)frameshift
B)deletion
C)silent
D)nonsense
Q3) DNA polymerases often proofread their recently inserted nucleotides.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mutations occur more frequently in hotspots.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Recombination
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Q1) RAD genes are essential for recombination events during both mitosis and meiosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Holliday junction only forms during excision.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Chi sites are .
A)generated from Holliday junctions
B)inverted repeats
C)binding sites for RecA protein
D)specific sequences in prokaryotic genomes where crossovers occur
Q4) Site specific recombination only occurs for homologous sequences.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Xis protein .
A)is involved in X-inactivation in female animals
B)helps recombine homologous sequences
C)is used to excise previously recombined DNA segments
D)all of the above
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Chapter 25: Bacterial Genetics
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Q1) The preferential transfer of DNA fragments using viruses is called .
A)generalize transduction
B)specialized transduction
C)conjugation
D)transformation
Q2) Only the can initiate conjugation.
A)F<sup>-</sup>
B)F<sup>+</sup>
C)Hfr
D)recipient
Q3) The F-plasmid .
A)is transferable
B)non-transferable
C)is involved in transduction
D)always results in Hfr strain formation
Q4) During conjugation,the entire double-stranded F-plasmid is transferred into the recipient.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Molecular Evolution
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Q1) The African Eve hypothesis is based on .
A)Y chromosome analysis
B)identification of junk DNA sequences
C)mitochondrial DNA sequences
D)ribosomal RNA sequencing
Q2) Evolution relies upon .
A)mutations made in somatic cells only
B)mutations occurring in gametes
C)mutations that result in altered protein function of somatic cells
D)mutations in mRNA only
Q3) Mitochondrial DNA .
A)has a high mutation rate
B)is useful for determining paternal ancestry
C)has a low mutation rate
D)is only present in animal cells
Q4) Recent evolutionary changes are easier to identify from .
A)DNA with slow mutation rates
B)DNA with high mutation rates
C)ribosomal RNA sequences
D)Y chromosomes
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