Cell and Molecular Biology
Test Bank
Course Introduction
Cell and Molecular Biology explores the fundamental structures and processes that define living organisms at the cellular and molecular levels. The course covers the organization, function, and regulation of cells, delving into topics such as cell structure, membrane dynamics, signal transduction, gene expression, DNA replication, and the molecular mechanisms controlling cell division and communication. Emphasis is placed on experimental techniques, model systems, and recent scientific advances, providing a strong foundation for further studies in the biological sciences, biotechnology, and medicine.
Recommended Textbook
Brock Biology of Microorganisms Global 14th Edition by Michael T. Madigan
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microorganisms and Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cyanobacteria and purple bacteria both obtain energy from light.However,only the ________ are capable of releasing ________.
A) cyanobacteria / organic compounds
B) cyanobacteria / oxygen
C) purple bacteria / organic compounds
D) purple bacteria / oxygen
Answer: B
Q2) Developments in the fields of immunology and medical microbiology were practical extensions of the work of
A) Sergei Winogradsky.
B) Antoni van Leeuwenhoek.
C) Joseph Lister.
D) Robert Koch.
Answer: D
Q3) Describe two capabilities of microbes that exemplify their dynamic nature.
Answer: Answers could possibly include cell-cell communication,ability to move (motility),ability to differentiate,and exchange of materials (any two).
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Chapter 2: Microbial Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ are charged molecules that are partially responsible for the ________ charge of the gram-positive bacterial cell surface.
A) Diaminopimelic acids / positive
B) Teichoic acids / negative
C) Phospholipids / negative
D) Peptide interbridges / neutral
Answer: B
Q2) Using bright-field microscopy to look at a slide prepared with a basic dye you observe cells under 400X magnification with a clear inner compartment within the cell.The cell is most likely a(n)
A) prokaryote.
B) bacterium.
C) archaeon.
D) eukaryote.
Answer: D
Q3) Teichoic acids are commonly found in gram-negative cell walls.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) In substrate-level phosphorylation,ATP storage is depleted during the steps in catabolism of the fermentable compounds.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The terminating step of moving electrons onto oxygen releases additional ATP during aerobic metabolism not made during anaerobic growth.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Five-carbon sugars are used in the
A) biosynthesis of DNA and RNA.
B) catabolic pentose phosphate pathway for carbon and energy.
C) biosynthesis of DNA and RNA as well as catabolic pentose phosphate pathway.
D) activation of pentoses to form glycogen for energy storage.
Answer: A
Q4) Explain what an enzyme must accomplish to catalyze a specific reaction.
Answer: Answers will vary,but the focus of the answer should be on overcoming the required activation energy.
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Chapter 4: Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genes found on plasmids DO NOT impact metabolism or cellular structures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the role of sigma factors in RNA synthesis in Bacteria.
Q3) GTP provides energy for
A) transcription.
B) translation.
C) DNA replication.
D) protein folding.
Q4) DNA-binding proteins interact predominantly within which portion of a double-stranded DNA helix?
A) major groove
B) minor groove
C) 3' end
D) supercoil
Q5) DNA participates in protein synthesis through A) cyclic messengers.
B) direct pairing with amino acids.
C) an RNA intermediate.
D) protein folding.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Microbial Growth and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following forms of oxygen is/are generally toxic to living organisms?
A) superoxide anion
B) hydrogen peroxide
C) hydroxyl radical
D) superoxide, hydrogen peroxide, and hydroxyl radicals are all toxic
Q2) Use the formulas N = N 2 and g = t/n.
N = final cell number,N = initial cell number, n = number of generations,t = time,g = generation time.
Find the generation time if N = 2 × 10 ,N = 3 × 10 and t = 3 hours.
Q3) Some microbes can grow in boiling water.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ratio of the vapor pressure of the air in equilibrium with a substance to the vapor pressure of pure water is known as
A) water activity.
B) vapor activity.
C) positive water balance.
D) osmosis.
Q5) Explain the difference between the division rate and the generation time.
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Chapter 6: Microbial Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Few genes in all organisms have common evolutionary roots.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain horizontal gene transfer and demonstrate how this phenomenon has complicated evolutionary studies using a diagram that illustrates phylogenetic relationships between organisms and genes.
Q3) Chromosomal islands contain clusters of genes for
A) DNA repair and replication.
B) virulence, biodegradation of pollutants, and symbiotic relationships.
C) catabolic and anabolic reactions.
D) antibiotic resistance.
Q4) The largest cellular genomes belong to prokaryotes that are parasitic or pathogenic.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Paralogs always have the same function.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain why the proteome is NOT defined as "all the proteins encoded by an organism's genome."
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Metabolic Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is the activity of a riboswitch controlled?
A) by other riboswitches
B) metabolite binding can change its structure
C) sigma factor binding alters its structure
D) small RNA complementary binding disrupts its function
Q2) Transcriptional regulation is considered negative when an inducer binds to and deactivates a repressor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Multiple mechanisms for small RNA (sRNA)-mediated translational regulation exist but all are unified by inactivating protein synthesis of the target mRNA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following IS a characteristic of an isoenzyme?
A) More than one enzyme is regulated by the same mechanism.
B) The same reaction can be catalyzed by multiple enzyme variants.
C) Multiple binding sites on the same enzyme enable multiple regulation mechanisms.
D) More than one gene makes the same enzyme.
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9
Chapter 8: Viruses and Virology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would be the consequence of deleting the late T4 genes?
A) The T4 genome would not be copied.
B) T4 mRNA would not be produced.
C) T4 capsid proteins would not be made.
D) ATP would not be produced and the T4 genome would not be packaged into the capsid.
Q2) ALL viral particles
A) are metabolically inert.
B) are smaller than bacterial cells.
C) contain an envelope to prevent its degradation outside of a host.
D) exhibit cell lysis under a particular condition.
Q3) Although T4 encodes over 250 proteins,it does not encode its own RNA polymerase.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Bacteriophages' genomes are typically composed of A) single-stranded RNA.
B) single-stranded DNA.
C) double-stranded RNA.
D) double-stranded DNA.
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Chapter 9: Viral Genomes and Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Baltimore Scheme to classify viruses contains a total of ________ groups based on ________.
A) four / genome composition
B) four / genome composition and transcription mechanism
C) seven / genome composition
D) seven / genome composition and transcription mechanism
Q2) Integration of Mu DNA into the host genome is essential for A) lytic growth.
B) lysogenic growth.
C) both lytic and lysogenic growth.
D) neither lytic nor lysogenic growth.
Q3) Unusually shaped viruses,such as lemon-shaped and spindle-shaped,have recently been discovered in
A) Archaea.
B) Bacteria.
C) Archaea and Bacteria.
D) Eukarya.
Q4) Why are phylogenetic studies of viruses more challenging than Bacteria? Explain how genes are selected in viruses for phylogeny and the constraints those create.
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Chapter 10: Genetics of Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the F factor is integrated,all Hfr strains have the origin of replication functioning in the same direction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hfr means high frequency of ________,and these cells are capable of transferring genes from their ________ to other cells.
A) transformation / chromosome
B) transduction / plasmids
C) recombination / chromosome
D) transduction / chromosome
Q3) Lysogeny probably carries a strong selective advantage for the host cell because it A) prevents cell lysis.
B) confers resistance to infection by viruses of the same type.
C) confers resistance to infection by viruses of a different type (or strain).
D) confers resistance to infection by many virus types and prevent cell lysis.
Q4) How does the SOS system simultaneously fix damage DNA and increase the mutation rate? How does the SOS system increase the survival of microorganisms?
Q5) Compare and contrast generalized transduction with specialized transduction.
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Chapter 11: Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Strong promoters used for genetic manipulation are usually regulated by specific molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q2) While other types exist,Type II restriction endonucleases are by far the most commonly used enzymes for genetic engineering.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How can foreign DNA of greater than 300 kbp be inserted and stably maintained in BAC vectors?
Q4) One problem with both BACs and YACs is that genetic regions of these chromosomes cannot be subcloned.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Due to well developed molecular tools and careful screening designs,functional genes can be isolated directly by isolation from the environment rather than cultivating the diverse species in a microbial community.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Microbial Evolution and Systematics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately 4 billion years ago Archaea and Bacteria diverged as being distinct from each other.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Oxygen did not accumulate in the early atmosphere until it reacted with reduced materials,especially ________,in the oceans.
A) hydrogen
B) elemental sulfur
C) ferrous iron
D) nitrate
Q3) The earliest stromatolites were probably formed by
A) anoxygenic phototrophs.
B) anoxygenic lithotrophs.
C) oxygenic phototrophs.
D) oxygenic lithotrophs.
Q4) The domains of life arose as barriers between gene exchange evolved between organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the hydrogen hypothesis and why it is favored over other hypotheses.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Metabolic Diversity of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because H levels in oxic environments are transient,it is likely that aerobic hydrogen bacteria shift between chemoorganotrophy and chemolithotrophy depending on levels of organic compounds and hydrogen in their habitats.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following are NOT found within the photosynthetic gene cluster of Rhodobacter (a purple phototrophic bacterium)?
A) genes encoding reaction center and light-harvesting photocomplexes
B) genes encoding proteins involved in phycobiliprotein biosynthesis
C) genes encoding proteins involved in bacteriochlorophyll biosynthesis
D) genes encoding proteins involved in carotenoid biosynthesis
Q3) Alternative autotrophic routes to the Calvin cycle such as the reverse citric acid cycle and the hydroxypropionate pathway are unified in their requirement for
A) CO .
B) coenzyme A.
C) NAD(P)H.
D) organic compound(s) formed.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Functional Diversity of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acetogens are anaerobic organisms that produce acetate as the main product of their metabolism.They are important in
A) the production of vinegar.
B) the carbohydrate metabolism of the human gut.
C) hydrothermal vent communities.
D) the production of vitamin C.
Q2) Which of the following conditions would you use to enrich purple nonsulfur bacteria from lake sediments?
A) anoxic media with a good light source
B) mineral media with ammonia and oxygen in the dark
C) anoxic mineral media with an organic acid and a good light source
D) mineral media with nitrate and acetate in the dark
Q3) Diazotrophs are obligately symbiotic bacteria that fix N into ammonia,thus providing a critical source of nitrogen to their host.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How do Cyanobacteria impact the ecology of both aquatic and terrestrial environments on Earth?
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Chapter 15: Diversity of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pseudomonad that loses its R plasmid in the soil is LEAST likely to A) cause an infection in a human.
B) colonize a surface.
C) infect a shrub.
D) survive a habitat dominated by antibiotic-producing Streptomyces spp.
Q2) Chemolithotrophic ammonia-oxidization is a metabolic requirement for members of A) Nitrosomonas.
B) Nitropseudomonas.
C) Nitrosomonas and Nitrosospira.
D) Nitrosomonas, Nitrosospira, and Nitropseudomonas.
Q3) A yogurt,which had "contains live cultures" on its label,was transferred onto an acidic carbohydrate-containing medium for selective enrichment.Eventually,isolates of the ________ genus were obtained.
A) Lactobacillus
B) Leuconostoc
C) Peptococcus
D) Streptococcus
Q4) Chlamydiae are MOST commonly transmitted throughout environments by insects.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Diversity of Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why the presence of many Archaea has been confirmed only by community sampling of rRNA genes and not by culture in the laboratory.How has metagenomics helped to solve this problem?
Q2) Detail the mechanism by which halophilic Archaea obtain energy from light.
Q3) The cytoplasmic membrane of Thermoplasma contains a lipopolysaccharide-like material called lipoglycan which
A) behaves like peptidoglycan and creates a strong cell wall.
B) forms a monolayer that stabilizes the cytoplasmic membrane.
C) contains ether linkages.
D) contains ether linkages and forms a monolayer that stabilizes the cytoplasmic membrane.
Q4) Hot sulfur-rich environments associated with terrestrial sulfur-rich springs are called A) acid-mine drainage. B) hydrothermal vents.
C) solfataras.
D) terrestrial volcanoes.
Q5) What makes the lifestyle and genome of Nanoarchaeum equitans unique?
Q6) Where is the thermosome found,and what is its apparent role?
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Chapter 17: Diversity of Eukaryotic Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does the genus Pfiesteria cause problems in both humans and fish?
Q2) Ascospores are produced in all of the following taxa EXCEPT
A) Aspergillus.
B) Candida.
C) Rhizopus.
D) Saccharomyces.
Q3) Discuss three findings that support the theory of primary endosymbiosis.
Q4) Yeasts are immature fungal spores.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Sporozoites observed in an insect's body likely indicate infection by an apicomplexan.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Dinoflagellates have flagella that enable motility and occur in both freshwater and marine waters.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe the differences between the algae and the cyanobacteria.
Q8) Compare and contrast the ectomycorrhizae and the endomycorrhizae.
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Chapter 18: Methods in Microbial Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term axenic is used to describe a(n)
A) anaerobic culture.
B) anoxygenic culture.
C) nutritionally deficient culture.
D) pure culture.
Q2) Describe what an ITS region is in the context of prokaryotes,and explain the significance of the ITS region for microbial ecology.
Q3) When dealing with stable isotopes,enzymes tend to favor
A) the lighter isotope.
B) the heavier isotope.
C) the isotopes in about equal proportions.
D) either the lighter or the heavier isotope, depending on environmental conditions.
Q4) When laser tweezers are used,the laser beam traps
A) isolated single-copy genomes.
B) a single microbial cell.
C) a single microbial colony on a plate.
D) multiple cells of the same type.
Q5) Propose a set of procedures or steps to sequence an individual cell's genome present in lake water.
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Chapter 19: Microbial Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells within a biofilm excrete an adhesive matrix primarily composed of ________ but can also contain nucleic acids as well as proteins.
A) lipids
B) fatty acids
C) monomers
D) polysaccharides
Q2) Shallow marine sediments are dominated by
A) Firmicutes.
B) Planctomycetes.
C) Proteobacteria.
D) Tenericutes.
Q3) Sudden nutrient perturbations in an environment generally ________ the overall prokaryotic diversity.
A) increase
B) decrease
C) maintain
D) replicate
Q4) Mineral soils largely come from weathered limestone and sand.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Nutrient Cycles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Human activities have disrupted the carbon cycle by
A) burning carbon stored as fossil fuels or biomass, thus increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
B) decreasing the primary productivity of the oceans, resulting in increased atmospheric carbon dioxide.
C) burning methane hydrates to produce electricity.
D) acidifying the ocean, resulting in the release of large amounts of dissolved carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
Q2) Denitrification of fertilizer can result in harmful algal blooms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Abiotic oxidation of Fe² requires oxygen; no other chemicals can directly oxidize Fe² . A)True B)False
Q4) Why is sulfur cycling more complex to study than other nutrient cycles such as the nitrogen cycle? How might this influence researchers whose primary research interest is in understanding sulfur cycling?
Q5) What are the similarities and differences between the Fe cycle and Ca cycle?
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Chapter 21: Microbiology of the Built Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bioremediation of uranium depends on metal-reducing bacteria to change the oxidation state of the uranium to form insoluble uranium compounds.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What role does Acidithiobacillus ferrooxidans play in the copper leaching process?
A) oxidation of sulfide to sulfate
B) reduction of oxidized iron (Fe³ ) to reduced iron (Fe² )
C) oxidation of reduced iron (Fe² ) to oxidized iron (Fe³ )
D) reduction of sulfate to sulfide
Q3) Natural underground pyritic deposits that are not disturbed by mining activities do not form acidic drainage waters.Why not? Explain the critical steps in the formation of acid mine drainage in your answer.
Q4) BOTH physical and chemical methods are used to treat and purify drinking water.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Water disinfection agents such as chlorine can easily inactivate viruses.
A)True
B)False
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Microbial Symbioses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Obligately symbiotic relationships generally do not foster horizontal gene transfer at a higher rate than non-symbiotic relationships.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a function of the human gut microbiome?
A) production of essential amino acids and vitamins
B) production of volatile fatty acids from polysaccharides
C) iron and trace metal absorption
D) maturation of the gastrointestinal tract
Q3) Which of the following is a common feature of primary insect symbionts?
A) accelerated mutation rates
B) extreme genome reduction
C) high A+T / low G+C content
D) accelerated mutation rates, extreme genome reduction, and high A+T / low G+C content
Q4) Ruminants digest bacterial cells as a primary source of A) carbohydrates.
B) vitamins and proteins.
C) proteins.
D) vitamins.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Microbial Interactions With Humans
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clostridium botulinum cannot produce toxins in improperly preserved foods.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Vaginal acidity in the adult female is due to acid production by Lactobacillus acidophilus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pathogen virulence NEVER changes throughout a host's life.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A loose network of polymers extending outward from a cell is called a(n)
A) slime layer.
B) lipid A.
C) capsule.
D) adhesion.
Q5) Normal flora ________ colonization of pathogenic organisms.
A) promote B) prevent C) maintain
D) accelerate
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Chapter 24: Immunity and Host Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rapid increase in adaptive immunity after a second antigen exposure is called A) immune memory.
B) specificity.
C) tolerance.
D) immune memory, specificity, or tolerance.
Q2) New vaccine strategies resulting from progress in biochemistry and molecular biology include the production of
A) DNA vaccines.
B) recombinant vector vaccines.
C) synthetic peptide vaccines.
D) DNA, recombinant vector, and synthetic peptide vaccines.
Q3) Individuals with severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID)have a genetic defect that prevents proper formation and expression of immunoglobins and T cells and therefore do not have adaptive immunity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is tolerance,and why must the adaptive immune system exhibit tolerance?
Q5) Compare and contrast the origin and roles of B cells and T cells.
Q6) How do phagocytes interact speedily and effectively with pathogens?
26
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Chapter 25: Immune Mechanisms
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Q1) Staphylococcus aureus produces carotenoids that neutralize singlet oxygen and prevent killing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Antigen-presenting cells present antigens to
A) B lymphocytes.
B) T lymphocytes.
C) dendritic cells.
D) neutrophils.
Q3) T cell-target cell interactions induce specialized Tc cells to produce ________ that kill virus-infected target cells.
A) perforins
B) granulozymes
C) leukocidins
D) pyogens
Q4) Effective immunogens generally have a molecular weight of ________ or greater.
A) 1,000
B) 5,000
C) 7,500
D) 10,000
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Molecular Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following biomolecules interact with toll-like receptors (TLRs)?
A) bacterial LPS
B) immunoglobulins
C) major histocompatibility complex proteins
D) none of these
Q2) The peptides bound by a single MHC protein share a common
A) C domain.
B) peptide motif.
C) V domain.
D) nucleotide sequence.
Q3) Why is the secondary immune response stronger in regard to antibodies?
Q4) The mechanism by which antigen-reactive cells respond to foreign antigens while ignoring self-antigens is called clonal
A) selection.
B) deletion.
C) anergy.
D) expansion.
Q5) Somatic hypermutation mechanisms generate TCR diversity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Diagnostic Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ defines the lowest quantity of an antigen that can be detected in a serological test.
A) Specificity
B) Antigenic capacity
C) Minimal inhibitory concentration
D) Sensitivity
Q2) Protein A,commonly used in immunoblots,is derived from
A) Staphylococcus.
B) Escherichia.
C) Bacillus.
D) Clostridium.
Q3) Which of the following is a mechanism of aminoglycosides?
A) inhibition of cell wall biosynthesis
B) prevention of peptidoglycan crosslinking
C) inhibition of DNA replication
D) targeting the 30S ribosomal subunit
Q4) Describe mechanisms of transfer of healthcare-associated infections (HAIs).
Q5) Differentiate between the various biosafety levels and when they are most appropriately used.
Page 29
Q6) Describe the three main components to PCR-based testing.
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Chapter 28: Epidemiology
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Q1) Diseases that suddenly become prevalent are referred to as ________ diseases.
A) indirect
B) emerging
C) vector
D) common source
Q2) The incidence of HIV among hemophiliacs and transfusion recipients has remained constant since 1994.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which group of organisms is difficult to control through immunization because of their rapid and unpredictable genetic mutations?
A) vector-borne organisms
B) RNA viruses
C) Archaea
D) DNA viruses
Q4) To control a disease in a population,100% immunization is necessary.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the concept of coevolution in terms of host-pathogen interactions.
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Chapter 29: Person-To-Person Bacterial and Viral Diseases
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Q1) The prevalence of penicillin-resistant strains of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is localized almost exclusively in North America and western Europe.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe three antiretroviral drug types that are commonly used in highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART).
Q3) Which organism causes the highest number of sexually transmitted diseases each year?
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Treponema pallidum
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Trichomonas vaginalis
Q4) Tuberculoid Hansen's disease is caused by the pathogen
A) Listeria monocytogenes.
B) Mycobacterium leprae.
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D) either Mycobacterium leprae or Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Q5) Explain the stages of syphilis.What are the characteristics of and treatments required at each stage?
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Chapter 30: Vectorborne and Soilborne Bacterial and Viral Diseases
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73 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lyme disease is limited almost exclusively to the northeastern United States. A)True
B)False
Q2) Virtually ALL cases of tetanus occur in individuals who have failed to receive tetanus toxoid booster immunizations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Septicemic plague usually causes death before a diagnosis can be made. A)True
B)False
Q4) During a camping and hiking expedition in the Ice Age National Scenic Trail at Hartman Creek State Park (Waupaca,WI),an individual notices a small tick on his arm.After removing the partially embedded deer tick,what symptoms should this individual look for to indicate infection of Borrelia burgdorferi? Also,what should be done on future hiking trips to decrease the likelihood of B.burgdorferi infection?
Q5) Rickettsia prowazekii is transmitted to humans when a louse bite becomes contaminated with louse feces.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 31: Water and Food As Vehicles of Bacterial Diseases
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81 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) For much of the period of microbial growth in food,there is no visible or easily detectable change in food quality.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Clostridium botulinum is a gram- ________ rod that produces an ________.
A) negative / endotoxin
B) negative / exotoxin
C) positive endospore-forming / exotoxin
D) positive endospore-forming / endotoxin
Q3) Verotoxin can cause
A) hemorrhagic diarrhea.
B) liver failure.
C) brain damage.
D) hemorrhagic diarrhea, liver failure, and brain damage.
Q4) Typhoid fever has been virtually (although not completely)eliminated from developed countries.
A)True
B)False
Page 33
Q5) Compare and contrast the most probable number (MPN)procedure and the membrane filter (MF)procedure.
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Chapter 32: Eukaryotic Pathogens: Fungal and Parasitic Diseases
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Q1) Use the events in the life cycle of Schistoma mansoni to propose two different strategies to reduce the incidence of snail fever.
Q2) Which of the following are malaria vaccines currently in development?
A) synthetic peptide vaccines
B) recombinant particle vaccines
C) DNA vaccines
D) synthetic peptide, recombinant particle and DNA vaccines
Q3) Eukaryotic human parasites are ALL respiratory aerobes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) With respect to their life cycles,how are fungal pathogens different than bacterial pathogens?
Q5) You and your friends are hiking the Appalachian trail in North Carolina.You run out of water and your friends want to fill up from a beautiful clear stream in the middle of the forest.What precautions should you take before drinking the water and why?
Q6) Parasitic helminths only cause very rare tropical diseases.
A)True
B)False
Page 35
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