Cell and Molecular Biology Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Cell and Molecular Biology explores the fundamental structure and function of cells, the basic units of life. This course examines the molecular mechanisms that govern cellular processes, including DNA replication, gene expression, protein synthesis, and signal transduction. Students gain an in-depth understanding of organelle function, membrane dynamics, cell communication, and the regulation of cell growth and division. Emphasizing experimental approaches and modern techniques, the course provides the groundwork for further study in genetics, biotechnology, and biomedical sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Evolving Science 4th Edition by John W. Foster
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbial Life: Origin and Discovery
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Q1) Briefly describe how the ultracentrifuge is used to determine the sizes of cellular macromolecules.
Answer: The ultracentrifuge uses centrifugal forces to separate cell components. Theodor Svedberg calculated that the particle sizes could be determined based on the rate of sedimentation of the particles in an ultracentrifuge.
Q2) Suppose Pasteur's swan-necked flasks containing boiled broth became cloudy twenty-four hours after boiling. Which choice could best explain the turbidity or cloudiness in the broth without supporting spontaneous generation?
A) Endospores in the broth survived boiling and grew after the broth cooled.
B) Contaminating organisms in the broth killed by boiling became alive again after the broth cooled.
C) Chemicals in the broth came together to form living organisms.
D) The broth allowed light to pass through it with less interference after boiling.
E) Solid material in the broth dissolved during boiling.
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Observing the Microbial Cell
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Q1) The highest useful magnification for a light microscope is about A) 100X.
B) 1,000X.
C) 10,000X.
D) 100,000X.
E) 1,000,000X.
Answer: C
Q2) When two waves are out of phase by ________ wavelength, they produce destructive interference, canceling each other's amplitude and resulting in contrast in the image.
A) one-tenth of a B) one-eighth of a C) one-quarter of a D) one-half of a E) one
Answer: D
Q3) List and describe three common shapes of bacteria.
Answer: Bacilli (bacillus in the singular) are rod-shaped bacteria. Cocci (singular, coccus) are spherical-shaped bacteria. Spirochetes are tightly coiled spirals or corkscrew-shaped bacteria.
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) How can weak acids and weak bases cause pH stress to cells?
A) Only weak acids can cause stress by diffusing across a membrane at low pH.
B) Weak acids and weak bases do not cause stress.
C) If a cell has transporters that are not well regulated, weak acids or weak bases can accumulate inside the cells and cause stress.
D) At certain pHs, both weak acids or weak bases will be uncharged and thus are small uncharged molecules that can diffuse across a membrane and cause pH stress inside the cell.
E) Weak bases will only cause pH stress at low pH.
Answer: D
Q2) Polar aging of symmetrical bacteria such as E. coli plays a role in stress responses in which of the following ways?
A) Antibiotics only affect older poles of stressed cells.
B) Alternators and accelerators are better at responding to stress.
C) Proteins damaged by stresses accumulate at old poles, thereby allowing new poles to continue growing.
D) Newer poles are more resistant to acidity and heat.
E) Newer poles produce flagella and can swim away from stress.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Bacterial Culture, Growth, and Development
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Q1) Which of the following are responsible for the CO -fixation component of the carbon cycle?
A) heterotrophs
B) symbionts
C) autotrophs
D) chemotrophs
E) organotrophs
Q2) You are measuring growth in a bacterial culture. The number of viable cells remains constant, and when you check the medium, you find that the carbon source has been used up. In which phase of growth is the culture?
A) lag
B) early log
C) late log
D) stationary
E) death
Q3) If you determined the number of cells in a sample using viable plate counts and optical density measurements, why would the results from the two methods be so different?
Q4) Compare and contrast complex media, synthetic media, and enriched media.
Q5) Discuss some disadvantages of viable counts of microorganisms.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Environmental Influences and Control of
Microbial Growth
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Q1) Why is moist heat more efficient at killing microbes than dry heat? How does an autoclave kill microbes so efficiently?
Q2) An organism that requires atmospheric oxygen levels for growth is A) aerobic.
B) microaerophilic.
C) aerotolerant.
D) anaerobic.
E) facultative.
Q3) Organisms that grow at temperatures as high as 121°C as well as high pressure are known as
A) thermophiles.
B) extreme halophiles.
C) psychrophiles.
D) hyperpsychrophiles.
E) hyperthermophiles.
Q4) Halophiles require high salt concentrations to survive. Describe a mechanism involving compatible solutes that has evolved to achieve low internal sodium ion concentrations.
Q6) What is biocontrol? Describe two examples. Page 7
Q5) Briefly describe three techniques used to culture anaerobes in the laboratory.
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Chapter 6: Viruses
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Q1) During the eclipse period of a viral infection, why are the virions undetectable in the growth medium?
Q2) What can be counted as representing individual infectious virions from a phage suspension?
A) plaques
B) viruses
C) genomes
D) proteomes
E) burst size
Q3) Which of the following is a term for the observable destruction of cells as a result of viral lysis?
A) tissue culture
B) lawn
C) soft agar
D) plaque
E) host
Q4) Why was the advent of tissue culture heralded as the end of the "monkey era"? What types of things are we able to do with it?
Q5) What is the advantage of symmetry in viral particles?
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Chapter 7: Genomes and Chromosomes
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Q1) What is metagenomics? How have the methods of metagenomics allowed discovery of so many new species? How is it possible to know about these organisms without being able to grow them in a laboratory?
Q2) The main replication DNA polymerase in E. coli is Pol III. What type of bonds do DNA polymerases form?
A) aminoacyl-tRNA
B) peptide
C) phosphodiester
D) hydrogen
E) disulfide
Q3) What determines the timing of DNA replication in Escherichia coli?
Q4) Which of the following is NOT true about histones?
A) They are rich in arginine and lysine.
B) They bind to negatively charged DNA.
C) They are positively charged.
D) They are used to control expression of bacterial operons.
E) They form units with DNA called nucleosomes.
Q5) What is the main difference between structural genes and control sequences in bacteria? Cite examples for both.
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Chapter 8: Transcription, Translation, and Bioinformatics
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Q1) In the absence of Rho, what can bring about transcription termination?
A) stem and loop and stretches of uridines
B) stem and loop only
C) GC-rich region near the 3¢ terminus
D) GC-rich region near the 3¢ terminus followed by four to eight uridines
E) stem and loop followed by a GC-rich region
Q2) A consensus sequence of any genetic element is
A) sequences that are rarely found in nature.
B) the sequence with the most likely base (or bases) at each position.
C) hairpins in RNA to slow down or stop transcription.
D) sequences to which ribosomes bind.
E) primer sequences used to initiate transcription.
Q3) Which form of RNA has the task of unsticking stuck ribosomes?
A) mRNA
B) rRNA
C) sRNA
D) tmRNA
E) tRNA
Q4) Explain the process of transcription initiation.
Q5) What are the functions of the different types of RNA molecules?
Page 11
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer, Mutations, and Genome
Evolution
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Q1) Approximately what percentage of the 4,288 open reading frames of E. coli have no known or annotated function?
A) 10
B) 14
C) 24
D) 52
E) 70
Q2) A difference between type II restriction enzyme and type I or type III restriction enzymes is that
A) type II enzymes require shorter recognition sequences.
B) type II enzymes cut at the recognition sequence rather than elsewhere.
C) type I and III cut palindromic sequences but type II does not.
D) type I and III require different proteins for methylation and cutting.
E) type II enzymes are found only in Gram-positive bacteria.
Q3) Describe the process whereby DNA is transferred from Agrobacterium to plants.
Q4) Define a pseudogene and what it is thought to represent.
Q5) Describe a frameshift mutation in terms of insertions and deletions. Does an insertion always result in a frameshift mutation? Will an insertion always render the gene product nonfunctional?
Q6) Describe four of the error-proof DNA repair mechanisms. Page 12
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Chapter 10: Molecular Regulation
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Q1) Explain what happens to motility when a chemoattractant is added to bacterial cells.
Q2) ________ prevent transcription, whereas ________ stimulate transcription.
A) Activators; repressors
B) Inducers; corepressors
C) Corepressors; inducers
D) Regulators; repressors
E) Repressors; activators
Q3) All the cell's expressed RNAs are collectively referred to as the cell's A) genome.
B) transcriptome.
C) proteome.
D) holoenzyme.
E) ORF.
Q4) Integrated circuits are involved in all of the following EXCEPT
A) controlling chemotactic activities of a cell.
B) coupling the genetic and biochemical control of a metabolic pathway.
C) timing the events of a developmental cycle.
D) having an influence on nitrogen metabolism.
E) specifically inverting the flagellin genes.
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Chapter 11: Viral Molecular Biology
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Q1) Replication of herpes viruses requires all of the following elements EXCEPT
A) primase.
B) helicase.
C) single-strand DNA binding proteins.
D) ligase.
E) viral DNA polymerase.
Q2) The lymphocyte protein chemokine receptor 5 (CCR5) is involved in HIV. Functionally, CCR5 is a(n)
A) antagonist.
B) coreceptor.
C) cofactor.
D) inhibitor.
E) regulator.
Q3) Describe how priming for mRNA synthesis or template synthesis for viral progeny of influenza A virus differs from typical mRNA synthesis mechanisms.
Q4) Explain what happens in individuals infected with HIV who are homozygous for functional CCR5, heterozygous for a CCR5 deletion, or homozygous for a CCR5 deletion.
Q5) What is an oncolytic virus? Give an example.
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Chapter 12: Biotechniques and Synthetic Biology
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Q1) Describe the whole-genome DNA-binding analysis using ChIP-on-chip technology.
Q2) Potential applications of bacterial oscillator switches include all of the following EXCEPT the
A) study of controlled interactions between two feedback genetic loops.
B) design of bacterial genetic circuits to detect toxins.
C) design of bacterial clocks.
D) reduction of noise in biological circuits.
E) reactivity to concentrations of specific molecules such as arabinose.
Q3) Double-stranded DNA probes must be denatured when used in northern blot experiments to ensure that
A) they are properly radioactively labeled or tagged with a dye.
B) the DNA coding strand hybridizes to RNA on the membrane.
C) both DNA strands bind the single-stranded RNA on the membrane.
D) the RNA coding strand hybridizes to DNA on the membrane.
E) an RNA strand binds to another RNA strand on the membrane.
Q4) How can a protein be detected on a western blot?
Q5) Describe the use of a primary and secondary antibody in a western blot.
Q6) Explain the principle of riboswitches and switchboards, and provide examples of their application.
Q7) What is synthetic biology? Provide an example of its potential applications.
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Chapter 13: Energetics and Catabolism
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Q1) What technique can be used to determine entropy and enthalpy changes associated with biochemical reactions?
A) nuclear magnetic resonance
B) calorimetry
C) electron microscopy
D) mass spectroscopy
E) measurement of light levels
Q2) Which of the following is FALSE with respect to enzymes that use the reducing equivalents NADH and NADPH?
A) Some enzymes only use NADH.
B) Some enzymes only use NADPH.
C) Some enzymes may use either NADPH or NADH.
D) FADH can be used as a substitute.
E) NADPH is more often used in biosynthesis.
Q3) Pathways involving both anabolic and catabolic reactions are referred to as
A) amphibolic.
B) amphipathic.
C) ambivalent.
D) ambidextrous.
E) syntrophibolic.
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Chapter 14: Electron Flow in Organotrophy, Lithotrophy, and
Phototrophy
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Q1) How are drug efflux pumps spread among virulent bacterial strains?
A) They are spread through generalized transduction.
B) Their genes are contained in plasmids that are transmitted among bacterial cells.
C) They are spread through conjugation between two virulent strains.
D) They are spread through transformation with Hfr plasmids.
E) DNA is released from bacterial cells previously infected with bacteriophages.
Q2) Cyanobacteria have __________-based photosynthesis and are the only __________-producing bacteria.
A) H S; S0
B) Mg2+; NO
C) H O; O
D) succinate; O
E) fumarate; O
Q3) How does Shewanella oneidensis donate electrons to oxidized minerals in marine sediments?
Q4) The F F ATP synthase is a remarkably complex enzyme, its subunit structure highly conserved across life domains. Is it possible to use this enzyme as an antibiotic target?
Q5) What are methanotrophs? What is their role in the global carbon cycle?
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Chapter 15: Biosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following molecules links glycolysis with the TCA cycle, and also serves as a precursor for many biosynthetic products?
A) malate
B) citrate
C) oxaloacetate
D) acetyl-CoA
E) succinate
Q2) Two strains of E. coli were developed, each of which overproduced an amino acid, either histidine or tryptophan. When grown together in medium with adequate amino acids, they grew but did not associate with each other. When these strains were grown together in medium without histidine and tryptophan, they grew and formed ________ in order to ________.
A) carboxysomes; share the excess of the two amino acids
B) carboxysomes; provide ATP to each other to make the missing amino acids
C) nanotubes; share the excess of the two amino acids
D) nanotubes; provide ATP to each other to make the missing amino acids
E) heterocysts; share the excess of the two amino acids
Q3) Briefly discuss how carbon molecules of different sizes can be made for biosynthesis. What else is needed and how is it obtained?
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Chapter 16: Food and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Alcohol dehydrogenase in the ________ detoxifies alcohol produced in the intestines.
A) lungs
B) liver
C) mouth
D) pancreas
E) spleen
Q2) Which of the following aids microbial growth?
A) drying
B) radiation
C) addition of spices
D) refrigeration
E) warming the food to body temperature
Q3) In the process of ________, NO standard starter culture is available.
A) sourdough bread making
B) yogurt making
C) chocolate production
D) cheese making
E) beer making
Q4) Explain the difference between food spoilage and food poisoning.
Page 20
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Chapter 17: Origins and Evolution
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Q1) Molecular clocks use genes that
A) code for TCA cycle enzymes.
B) are found primarily on plasmid DNA.
C) are involved in transcription and translation.
D) are acquired through transduction.
E) encode enzymes for glycolysis.
Q2) All of the following are examples of "operational genes," EXCEPT ________ genes.
A) metabolic
B) ribosomal RNA
C) stress response
D) pathogenicity
E) resistance
Q3) Why and how is the gene for small subunit ribosomal RNA (SSU 16S rRNA) used to determine molecular phylogeny?
Q4) Define the term "metagenomics" and explain why growth in this field has led to an increase in SSU rRNA species designations.
Q5) Briefly discuss the types of geological evidence of early life and their advantages and limitations.
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Chapter 18: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT correct with respect to the species of Frankia?
A) It belongs to the phylum Actinobacteria.
B) It can live as an endophyte in the roots of some vascular plants, where it fixes nitrogen.
C) Some species can protect plants, such as wheat, from fungal infection.
D) Some species can grow as saprophytes on dead leaf litter.
E) Some species have been found to form spores.
Q2) Treponema azotonutricium is known for its symbiotic association with A) phototrophs in microbial mats.
B) corals.
C) fungi in lichens.
D) protists in the termite gut.
E) the mammal epithelium.
Q3) Methylobacterium species are methylotrophs, which means that they
A) can oxidize reduced single-carbon compounds.
B) exclusively feed on methane.
C) generate methane as a product of fermentation.
D) perform bacteriochlorophyll-based photosynthesis.
E) are classified as lithotrophs.
Q4) Describe the photosynthetic machinery of cyanobacteria.
Page 22
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Chapter 19: Archaeal Diversity
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Q1) Methanogenesis includes a unique pathway of carbon fixation, called the carbon monoxide ________ pathway, because the key enzyme can fix CO as well as CO .
A) gyrase
B) helicase
C) polymerase
D) reductase
E) dismutase
Q2) What novel adaptation would you expect undersea vent archaea to have versus archaea growing at a similar temperature in terrestrial hot springs?
A) barophily
B) thermophily
C) bacteriorhodopsin phototrophy
D) pseudopeptidoglycan
E) positively supercoiled genome
Q3) Describe some of the unique metabolic pathways found in archaea but not bacteria or eukarya.
Q4) Where are methanogens found in nature? What are some of the problems they can cause in these habitats?
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Chapter 20: Eukaryotic Diversity
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Q1) Briefly describe the life cycle of Ascomyta and describe three ascomycetes that have been used in science or in the culinary arts.
Q2) One of the smallest eukaryotes recently discovered, the green alga Ostreococcus tauri, measures less than ________ across and its genome (8 Mb) is ________ the size of that of Escherichia coli.
A) 2 mm; barely twice B) 500 nm; half C) 10 mm; about D) 1 mm; three times E) 100 mm; five times
Q3) What are nanoeukaryotes and how has their discovery changed our understanding of biological systems?
Q4) The Rhodophyta alga Porphyra is known to colonize aquatic environments deeper than the Chlorophyta algae Spirogyra. Why does this happen? What advantages does Porphyra have by inhabiting this niche?
Q5) Why are sponges, jellyfish, worms, reptiles, humans, yeast, and microsporidia placed in the same eukaryotic clade?
Q6) What are choanoflagellates and what is their importance in evolutionary studies?
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Chapter 21: Microbial Ecology
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Q1) Most forest trees require mycorrhizae for growth because
A) forest soils are rich in phosphorous.
B) mycorrhizae limit toxic metal uptake.
C) the mycorrhizal form an ammensalic association.
D) mycorrhizae significantly increase the uptake of nutrients.
E) forest trees do not have deep roots.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true regarding food webs in ecosystems?
A) Primary producers assimilate minerals into biomass.
B) Primary producers absorb energy from outside the ecosystem.
C) Grazers convert 10% of carbon back to carbon dioxide.
D) Consumers convert 90% of biomass carbon to atmospheric CO .
E) All energy gained by an ecosystem is eventually lost as heat.
Q3) Metatranscriptomics is the study of ________ obtained from an environmental community.
A) lipids
B) proteins
C) organisms
D) DNA
E) RNA
Q4) Compare and contrast the photic zones of freshwater lake and pelagic ecosystems.
Page 25
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Chapter 22: Microbes in Global Elemental Cycles
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Q1) Predict the relative levels of biological oxygen demand (BOD) of water flowing into and out of a municipal wastewater treatment plant. Why is this difference desirable?
Q2) Which of the following reservoirs contains the most rapidly cycled carbon?
A) the atmosphere
B) ocean biomass
C) ocean inorganic molecules
D) land biomass
E) crust below land and ocean
Q3) On which of the following does humankind expect to find life because of the similarity of its geology to that of Earth?
A) Jupiter
B) Venus
C) Mars
D) Jupiter's moon Europa
E) Pluto
Q4) Why does the burning of fossil fuels have such a drastic impact on the atmospheric carbon reservoir?
Q5) Some bacteria are responsible for degrading concrete. How do they accomplish this?
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Chapter 23: Human Microbiota and Innate Immunity
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Q1) Are the Langerhans cells of skin-associated lymphoid tissue (SALT) related to the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas that secrete insulin? What is the function of Langerhans cells?
Q2) The microbiome can influence obesity through
A) regulating energy metabolism.
B) increasing intestinal inflammation.
C) creating a more diverse gut microbiome.
D) It does not influence obesity.
E) no bacterial interactions.
Q3) Which of the following factors contribute to dysbiosis?
A) emotional stress
B) carbohydrate catabolism
C) probiotics
D) bacteriocin
E) anti-inflammatory cytokines
Q4) Why is the alternative complement cascade not considered a part of adaptive immunity?
Q5) How can differences in gut microbiota account for obesity and leanness in humans?
Q6) Explain the distinguishing characteristics of innate and adaptive immunity.
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Chapter 24: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) The five classes of antibodies (IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE, and IgD) that can be produced during an immune response are based on differences in ________ chain regions.
A) CL
B) VH
C) CH
D) VL
E) all constant and variable
Q2) The gut is able to distinguish between indigenous microbiota and pathogens by using which part of epithelial cells?
A) TLRs and NLRs
B) SIgA
C) cytokines
D) IL-22
E) ILCs
Q3) List the steps for the classical complement cascade. Discuss two ways this cascade results in microbial destruction.
Q4) Detail the benefits and predict possible risks of vaccinations.
Q5) Would taking probiotic health supplements be good for the average person's immunity?
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Chapter 25: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) Toxins with ADP ribosyltransferase activity cause
A) membrane pore formation.
B) immune system activation.
C) proteolytic degradation of host proteins.
D) adenylate cyclase inhibition.
E) inhibition of elongation factor 2.
Q2) Binding of the protein ________ of the EPEC pathogenicity system directly triggers a remarkable reorganization of host cellular cytoskeletal components.
A) actin
B) SPI-1
C) intimin
D) Nef
E) Ivet
Q3) The anthrax, Escherichia coli, cholera, and Bordetella toxins all
A) inhibit protein synthesis.
B) possess ADP ribosyltransferase activity.
C) cause diarrhea.
D) disrupt the cell membrane.
E) trigger apoptosis.
Q4) Diphtheria toxin is a classic AB exotoxin. How does it cause host cell damage?
Page 29
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases
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Q1) Giardia lamblia enters a human or other host in what form?
A) spore
B) endospore
C) cyst
D) worm
E) trophozoite
Q2) Which of the following is NOT matched correctly?
A) erythema migrans-Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Borrelia burgdorferi-Lyme disease
C) salvanic cycle-wild rodent and flea cycling of plague
D) pelvic inflammatory disease-antigen phase variation
E) multidrug resistance-emerging Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q3) Name and describe the role of the three domains found in tetanus and botulism neurotoxins.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT correct about malaria?
A) It infects over 300 million people worldwide each year.
B) It is highly communicable from host to host.
C) Plasmodium species are the causative agents.
D) Free-iron toxicity is the mode of action of chloroquine.
E) Drug resistance is a challenge.
Page 30
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Chapter 27: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) The multidrug resistance, or MDR, efflux pumps found in organisms such as resistant strains of Escherichia coli work most similarly to A) ABC transporters.
B) facilitated diffusion.
C) reverse osmosis.
D) electron transport.
E) phospholipid flip-flop.
Q2) Gene-expression elements that account for rapid transmission of drug resistance due to their mobility and ability to collect resistance gene cassettes are called A) mobile units.
B) virulence plasmids.
C) integrons.
D) insertion prophages.
E) multidrug resistant enhancers.
Q3) In the 1930s, Gerhard Domagk injected his own daughter with a red dye in hopes of curing her invasive streptococcal infection, even though testing of this agent on agar plates growing Streptococcus sp. showed no antimicrobial effect. Analyze why he did this. What did this study show the importance of?
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Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Epidemiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/27338
Sample Questions
Q1) Humans are an incidental (dead-end) host in which clinical disease?
A) West Nile virus
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Staphylococcus aureas
E) picornavirus
Q2) The use of a laminar flow hood when studying the organism Francisella tularensis is an example of level ________ biological safety.
A) 0
B) I
C) II
D) III
E) IV
Q3) Which of the following clinical specimens would be expected to be sterile in a healthy individual?
A) blood
B) urine
C) sputum
D) stool
E) skin and wound swabs
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