Cell and Molecular Biology
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Cell and Molecular Biology explores the fundamental structures and functions of cells, the basic units of life. This course covers molecular mechanisms of cellular processes, including gene expression, signal transduction, metabolism, and the regulation of cell growth and division. Students will gain insights into the organization and dynamics of cellular components such as membranes, organelles, the cytoskeleton, and the extracellular matrix. Emphasis is placed on experimental techniques and recent advances that have expanded our understanding of the molecular basis of life, laying a strong foundation for careers and further study in biological and biomedical sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Concepts of Genetics 3rd Edition by Robert J. Brooker
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Chapter 1: Overview of Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The changes in the genetic makeup of a population over time is called ________.
A) homologous recombination
B) model organisms studies
C) genetic crosses
D) biological evolution
E) hypothesis testing
Answer: D
Q2) Most cellular characteristics, such as structure and function,are the result of the synthesis and activity of different ________.
A) DNA
B) carbohydrates
C) lipids
D) proteins
Answer: D
Q3) RNA is formed by the process of ________.
A) transcription
B) translation
C) both transcription and translation
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Reproduction and Chromosome Transmission
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the phase when the separated sister chromatids are considered independent chromosomes.
A) Metaphase
B) Prometaphase
C) Telophase
D) Anaphase
E) Prophase
Answer: D
Q2) Organelles are ________.
A) structures that contain the genetic material
B) membrane-bound compartments of eukaryotic cells
C) the region that contains the DNA in prokaryotic cells
D) the outer, rigid covering of a prokaryotic cell
Answer: B
Q3) A karyotype is a(n)________.
A) organelle of eukaryotic cells
B) stage of prophase I in meiosis
C) division of the cytoplasmic material following mitosis
D) photographic representation of the chromosomes of a cell
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a genetic cross,the ________ represent offspring with genetic combinations that were not found in the parental lines.
A) P generation
B) nonrecombinants
C) parentals
D) nonparentals
Answer: D
Q2) Mendel's work on inheritance had an immediate influence on the scientific community and theories of inheritance.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The chi square test is used to prove that a hypothesis is correct.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Sex Determination and Sex Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first person to experimentally determine that a trait is located on a specific chromosome was ________.
A) Mendel
B) Boveri and Sutton
C) Weissman
D) Morgan and Bridges
Q2) Flowering plants will produce flowers that are dioecious,meaning that the male and female parts are contained within the same flower.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a gene is located on the X chromosome,but not the Y,it is said to be an example of ________.
A) autosomal inheritance
B) sex-linkage
C) reciprocal cross
D) pseudoautosomal inheritance
E) holandric
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Chapter 5: Extensions of Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Huntington disease in humans is an example of ________.
A) essential genes
B) lethal alleles
C) semilethal alleles
D) nonessential genes
E) sex linked allele
Q2) If a combination of two or more genes is required to produce a specific trait,it is called a(n)________.
A) overdominance
B) simple mendelian trait
C) sex-influenced trait
D) sex-linked trait
E) gene interaction
Q3) In overdominance,the ________ genotype is beneficial over the ________ genotypes.
A) heterozygous; homozygous
B) homozygous; heterozygous
C) homozygous dominant; homozygous recessive
D) homozygous recessive; homozygous dominant
E) incomplete dominant; codominant
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Chapter 6: Extranuclear Inheritance, Imprinting, and Maternal Effect
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who is largely responsible for proposing the endosymbiosis theory?
A) Schimper, Wallin
B) Lyon, Margulis, Schimper
C) Schimper, Wallin, Barr
D) Barr, Lyon, Margulis
Q2) An example of genomic imprinting is
A) Leber hereditary optic neuropathy.
B) neurogenic muscle weakness.
C) snail coiling in water snails.
D) Angelman Syndrome.
E) bicoid gene in Drosophila.
Q3) The inheritance of leaf pigmentation in the four-o'clock plant Mirabilis jalapa is an example of ________.
A) maternal effect
B) maternal inheritance
C) epigenic inheritance
D) imprinting
Q4) Both parents usually imprint the same gene.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Genetic Linkage and Mapping in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two genes that are located on the same chromosome are said to be ________.
A) linked
B) recombinant
C) parental-like
D) nonparental-like
Q2) Following crossing over,chromosomes with genetic combinations that resemble the parents are called nonrecombinant.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Experimental evidence that crossing over occurs between the X chromosomes of female Drosophila was provided by ________.
A) Morgan
B) Punnett
C) Darwin
D) Bateson
Q4) A map unit or centiMorgan is equal to a 10% recombination frequency.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Variation in Chromosome Structure and
Number
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inversion loops can occur in which of the following?
A) paracentric inversions
B) pericentric inversions
C) gene duplications
D) reciprocal translocations
E) both paracentric inversions and pericentric inversions
Q2) Due to the formation of an inversion loop,sections of DNA may either be duplicated or deleted.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A ________ translocation occurs when a piece of one chromosome is attached to another chromosome.
A) simple
B) complex
C) reciprocal
D) balanced
Q4) The effects of a deficiency on an organism are dependent on the importance of the missing genetic material.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Genetics in Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) In experiments,interrupted mating may be used to
A) inhibit transduction.
B) generate loss of function alleles.
C) determine the relative position of genes.
D) alter the genotype of the donor cell.
Q2) Bacterial cells that can participate in ________ are known as competent cells.
A) transformation
B) transduction
C) conjugation
D) fission
Q3) A cell with an F factor integrated into the bacterial chromosome is called
A) Hfr
B) F+
C) a conjugative plasmid
Q4) DNA transfer via a physical connection between two bacteria is known as A) transformation.
B) transduction.
C) conjugation.
D) fission.
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Chapter 10: Genetics of Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The genetic material of HIV is single-stranded RNA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which virus uses reverse transcriptase in its reproductive cycle?
A) HIV
B) Phage lamda
C) Both of the viruses use reverse transcriptase
D) Neither of the viruses use reverse transcriptase
Q3) What is the genetic material in the T4 bacteriophage?
A) double-stranded DNA
B) single-stranded DNA
C) single-stranded RNA
D) double-stranded RNA
Q4) A ________ frequently integrates into the host genome,forming prophages and utilizing a lysogenic cycle to manufacture new phages.
A) virulent phage
B) temperate phage
C) bacteria
D) eukaryotic cell
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Chapter 11: Molecular Structure of DNA and RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) What form of DNA is most common in living organisms?
A) A DNA
B) B DNA
C) Z DNA
D) R DNA
Q2) Select the criteria that all genetic material must meet.
A) It must contain the information necessary to construct the entire organism.
B) It must be passed from parent to offspring.
C) It must be able to be copied.
D) It must have a limited amount of variation.
Q3) DNA differs from RNA in which way?
A) the structure of the nucleotide
B) the five-carbon sugar it uses
C) the size of the phosphate groups
D) the number of bases attached to the sugar
Q4) The helical shape of the DNA contains major and minor grooves,which assist in the regulation of gene expression.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Molecular Structure of Chromosomes and Transposition
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Q1) LINEs and SINEs together constitute over 30% of the human genome.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The individual who first proposed the existence of transposable elements was
A) Sturtevant
B) Morgan
C) McClintock
D) Franklin
E) Watson
Q3) What feature(s)may be found in insertion elements?
A) inverted repeats
B) transposase gene
C) reverse transcriptase gene
D) antibiotic resistance gene
E) integrase gene
Q4) To date,there are no indications that transposable elements offer a selective advantage to a species.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Dna Replication and Recombination
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA polymerases add new nucleotides in what direction?
A) 5 to 3
B) 3 to 5
C) both directions
Q2) Which enzyme synthesizes the lagging strand of the DNA?
A) DNA ligase
B) DNA primase
C) Topoisomerase
D) DNA polymerase I
E) DNA polymerase III
Q3) The origin of replication in bacteria is called oriC.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Meselson-Stahl experiments supported the model of dispersive DNA replication.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The movement of the replication fork in bacterial replication is unidirectional.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Gene Transcription and RNA Modification
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Sample Questions
Q1) What protein allows RNA polymerase II to interact with transcription factors bound to enhancers or silencers?
A) mediator
B) TFIIB
C) TFIID
D) sigma factors
Q2) What RNA modification is important for mRNA stability?
A) alternative splicing
B) RNA editing
C) base modification
D) 3' polyA tailing
E) processing
Q3) What do both the rho-dependent and rho-independent mechanisms of termination have in common?
A) terminate transcription immediately after the stop codon
B) a sequence rich with A-U base pairs
C) Both require a helicase to separate the DNA-RNA complex.
D) formation of a stem-loop structure
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Chapter 15: Translation of MRNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) A tRNA that has an amino acid attached is called ________.
A) rRNA
B) degenerate tRNA
C) coding tRNA
D) charged tRNA
E) None of the answers are correct.
Q2) What does eIF5 act to recruit during the initiation stage?
A) the mRNA
B) the polypeptide
C) the large ribosomal subunit
D) termination GTPases
E) the 7-methylguanosine cap
Q3) The scientist(s)________ developed a novel method to synthesize RNA.Short RNAs of 2 to 4 nucleotides were linked together to create a copolymer.The resulting peptide created after translation revealed the 3-letter code for the amino acids.
A) Garrod
B) Nirenberg and Matthaei
C) Khorana and colleagues
D) Nirenberg and Leder
E) Beadle and Tatum
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Chapter 16: Gene Regulation in Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enzymes involved in metabolism are most likely regulated via ________.
A) feedback inhibition
B) acetylation
C) methylation
D) None of the answers are correct.
Q2) Operons that code for catabolic enzyme systems are typically regulated by repressors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The regulation of protein function,not gene expression is called ________ regulation.
A) posttranslational
B) transcriptional
C) translational
D) posttranscriptional
Q4) The lac operon is under what type of control?
A) positive control
B) negative control
C) The gene would be expressed constitutively.
D) It depends on what the gene encodes.
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Chapter 17: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Covalent histone modification is sometimes involved in cell differentiation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is an example of epigenetic inheritance?
A) Expression of the Igf2 gene based on methylation of the ICR and DMR regions
B) Inheritance of flower color as studied by Mendel
C) Control of mRNA stability by an RNA-binding protein
D) Activation of transcription by a general transcription factor
Q3) Vernalization in Arabidopsis involves epigenetic changes as cold temperatures induce histone modifications that influence expression of genes for germination or flowering in the spring when temperatures increase.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What effect will a mutation in IRP that prevents it from binding to iron have on an individual?
A) Ferritin will not be made, so iron intake must be maximized.
B) There will be excess ferritin, so iron intake must be lowered.
C) Transferrin will not be made, so iron intake must be maximized.
D) There will be excess transferrin, so iron intake must be lowered.
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Chapter 18: Non-Coding Rnas
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bacterial ncRNA called OxyS regulates translation by binding to the Shine-Dalgarno sequence,which prevents ribosome binding.What is the function of this ncRNA?
A) Blocker
B) Decoy
C) Ribozyme
D) Scaffold
Q2) Select the four most common types of molecules to which ncRNAs bind.
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) Proteins
D) Small molecules
E) Lipids
Q3) The ncRNA HOTAIR recruits what type of proteins to target genes?
A) Histone-modifying complexes
B) Transcription factors
C) RNA polymerase
D) Histone acetyltransferase
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Chapter 19: Gene Mutation and DNA Repair
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Q1) The Lederbergs developed the process of replica plating to test whether advantageous mutations arose in response to the selective agent or were naturally present in the population before selection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Ames test may be used to determine if an agent is a mutagen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which DNA repair process identifies daughter strands by methylation?
A) homologous recombination repair
B) direct repair
C) base excision repair
D) mismatch repair
E) nucleotide excision repair
Q4) Which of the following are examples of spontaneous mutations?
A) depurination
B) deamination
C) tautomeric shifts
D) nitrogenous base oxidation
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Chapter 20: Molecular Technologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Restriction endonucleases recognize specific DNA sequences.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A plasmid that contains separate origins of replication for two different species is called a(n)________.
A) R factor
B) expression vector
C) viral vector
D) shuttle vector
Q3) What is the purpose of RNaseH in the making of cDNA?
A) It copies the RNA into a complementary DNA strand.
B) It reforms the sugar-phosphate backbone.
C) It generates short RNAs that are used as primers.
D) It proofreads the cDNA for errors.
Q4) What occurs during the annealing stage of a PCR reaction?
A) The DNA strands separate
B) The DNA polymerase copies the template DNA.
C) The primers bind to the template DNA.
D) The reaction stops.
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Chapter 21: Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A microsatellite marker may be used to predict the likelihood that an individual carries a trait for a specific disease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The human genome project's first draft took approximately ________ years.
A) 5
B) 13
C) 3
D) 50
Q3) ________ uses the unique banding patterns of a chromosome to determine the general location of a gene.
A) Physical mapping
B) Cytogenetic mapping
C) Linkage mapping
D) Shotgun sequencing
Q4) Part of the Human Genome Project involved sequencing the genomes of model organisms,including bacteria and a plant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Medical Genetics and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) A disease that is lethal only in the homozygous condition is most likely which of the following?
A) autosomal recessive
B) autosomal dominant
C) X-linked
D) None of these choices are correct.
Q2) What are the general ways that tumor supressors and oncogenes act?
A) Tumor suppressors inhibit the cell cycle and oncogenes stimulate the cell cycle.
B) Oncogenes inhibit the cell cycle and tumor suppressors stimulate the cell cycle.
C) Both tumor suppressors and oncogenes stimulate the cell cycle.
D) Both tumor suppressors and oncogenes inhibit the cell cycle.
Q3) Haplotypes can be useful in the identification of disease genes since
A) the least concordant marker(s) is typically the one that is closest to the disease gene.
B) the most concordant marker(s) is typically the one that is closest to the disease gene.
C) the most concordant marker(s) is the disease gene.
D) no pedigree information needs to be known.
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Chapter 23: Population Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Natural selection occurs when
A) individuals whose phenotypes are best suited for environmental conditions have higher reproductive success and contribute more alleles to the next generation.
B) humans breed certain individuals with the most desirable phenotypes.
C) individuals whose phenotypes are best suited for environmental conditions have lower reproductive success but live longer.
D) the genotype of an individual does not determine whether or not is has reproductive success.
Q2) If a gene has more than one allele and each allele has a frequency that is less than 99%,then the gene is considered to be
A) monomorphic.
B) polymorphic.
C) bialleleic.
D) polyallelic.
Q3) At equilibrium the allelic and genotypic frequencies of a population change over time.
A)True
B)False
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25
Chapter 24: Quantitative Genetics
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Q1) If a completely inbred population shows phenotypic variance,then that variance is caused by environmental effects.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In QTL mapping,the parental strains are crossed and the F generation backcrossed to which of the following?
A) the F generation
B) the parental generation
C) a strain that is homozygous recessive for all markers
D) a wild-type organism
Q3) What must be true regarding the strains of organisms used to construct a QTL map?
A) they must differ for the quantitative trait
B) they must differ for the molecular markers
C) Both of these choices must be true.
Q4) Inbreeding reduces which of the following variances to near zero?
A) genetic variance
B) environmental variance
C) both variances
D) neither variance
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