Cell and Molecular Biology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Cell and Molecular Biology explores the fundamental principles governing the structure, function, and behavior of cells at the molecular level. This course examines the organization of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, the roles of critical biomolecules such as DNA, RNA, and proteins, and the mechanisms behind gene expression, signal transduction, and cellular communication. Students will gain an understanding of molecular techniques used in modern biology and the application of these concepts in fields such as biotechnology, genetics, and medicine. Through lectures, discussions, and laboratory experiments, the course provides a comprehensive overview of the molecular basis of life and cellular processes.
Recommended Textbook
Biology The Unity and Diversity of Life 14th Edition by Cecie Starr
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Chapter 1: Invitation to Biology
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Q1) Homeostasis provides what kind of internal environment?
A) positive
B) tolerable
C) limiting
D) changing
E) chemical and physical
Answer: B
Q2) Which characteristic will NOT strengthen the validity of a theory?
A) repetitions of experiments
B) increased observations
C) time after the experiment
D) faith in the experiment
E) confirmation by many scientists
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Lifes Chemical Basis
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Q1) The column of water extending in tubes from plant roots to leaves is maintained by
A) hydrophilic interactions
B) ionic bonds
C) covalent bonds
D) hydrophobic interactions
E) cohesion between water molecules
Answer: E
Q2) Atoms with a(n) ____ are more likely to form chemical bonds.
A) filled outer orbital shell
B) unfilled outer orbital shell
C) filled inner orbital shell
D) unfilled inner orbital shell
E) large number of orbital shells
Answer: B
Q3) 14Cis a radioactive isotope, and it turns into ____________________ when it decays.
Answer: nitrogen
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Chapter 3: Molecules of Life
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Q1) What type of molecule is shown in the accompanying figure?
A) saturated fatty acid
B) unsaturated fatty acid
C) triglyceride
D) wax
E) steroid
Answer: B
Q2) main storage carbohydrate in plants
A)glycogen
B)cellulose
C)starch
D)phospholipid
E)wax
F)steroid
G)cholesterol
H)DNA
I)RNA
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) DNA molecules
A)contain enzymes for intracellular digestion
B)primary cellular organelles where proteins are assembled
C)package cellular secretions for export
D)extract energy stored in carbohydrates; synthesize ATP; produce water and carbon dioxide
E)synthesize subunits that will be assembled into two-part ribosomes in the cytoplasm
F)molecules that participate in protein synthesis
G)store substances
H)encode hereditary information
I)help distribute chromosomes to the new cells during cell division
J)convert light energy to chemical energy stored in the chemical bonds of glucose or starch
Q2) extends across cell boundaries
A)chloroplast
B)central vacuole
C)plasmodesmata
D)cell wall
E)chromoplasts
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Chapter 5: Ground Rules of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement below characterizes metabolic pathways?
A) They are a random sequences of reactions.
B) They are always biosynthetic.
C) They are always degradative.
D) They are enzyme-mediated sequences of reactions.
E) They are always linear reactions.
Q2) movement of molecules would be out of this fluid
A)diffusion
B)hypertonic
C)hypotonic
D)isotonic
E)osmosis
F)osmotic pressure
G)turgor
Q3) What are the effects of long term excessive alcohol consumption on the liver?
A) fat accumulation and abnormal discoloration of the liver
B) scarring, hardening, and increased fat metabolism
C) increased ability to degrade fats and toxins
D) decreased production of ethanol and cholesterol
E) scarring, hardening, and fat accumulation
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Chapter 6: Where It Starts - Photosynthesis
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Q1) This process releases electrons to replace those lost from chlorophyll in noncyclic ATP formation.
A)reduction of NADP+
B)phosphorylation of ADP
C)photolysis of water
D)oxidation of chlorophyll
E)reduction of chlorophyll
Q2) In the electromagnetic spectrum, ____.
A) infrared energy has the shortest wavelength
B) infrared radiation has more energy than red radiation
C) visible light has more energy than ultraviolet radiation
D) near-infrared radiation provides the energy for photosynthesis
E) visible light provides the energy for photosynthesis
Q3) Ethanol can be easily produced from ____.
A) photosynthetic pigments
B) crystalline cellulose
C) root systems of plants
D) plant sugars
E) stems of plants
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Chapter 7: How Cells Release Chemical Energy
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Q1) What is the most important product of stage 2 of aerobic respiration?
Q2) What process requires oxygen to function?
A) aerobic respiration
B) anaerobic respiration
C) alcoholic fermentation
D) lactate fermentation
E) substrate-level phosphorylation
Q3) How many net ATP are generated in aerobic respiration?
A) two
B) eight
C) 10
D) 32
E) 36
Q4) Lactate fermentation transfers the electrons and hydrogen ions carried by NADH directly to ____.
A) acetaldehyde
B) pyruvate
C) carbon dioxide
D) oxygen
E) myoglobin
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Dna Structure and Function
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Q1) Miescher
A)discovered that the hereditary system of one strain of bacteria could be transformed by the hereditary system from another strain of bacteria
B)first to describe DNA and extract it from cell nuclei
C)discovered that DNA-digesting enzymes prevented bacterial transformation
D)the first to build an accurate model of DNA and to describe it explicitly in a publication
E)the first to demonstrate, through the use of radioactive isotopes, that DNA, not protein, is the genetic material
F)provided two important clues to the structure of DNA; one clue is that A = T and the other is that C = G
G)worked at King's College at the same time as Franklin
H)obtained excellent x-ray diffraction photographs that suggested that DNA was a long, thin molecule with regularly repeating units
Q2) A bacterium undergoes four rounds of replication. How many cells would result, and how many of those cells would still have part of an original DNA strand from the starting bacterium?
Q3) In ____________________, one somatic cell is fused with an enucleated egg.
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Chapter 9: From Dna to Protein
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Q1) DNA and RNA are alike in that they
A) both have same pentose sugar.
B) use the same nitrogenous bases to assemble the genetic code.
C) have the same number of strands.
D) both play vital roles in gene expression.
E) are both made in the cytoplasm.
Q2) During transcription, uracil pairs with
A) ribose.
B) adenine.
C) cytosine.
D) thymine.
E) guanine.
Q3) Of all the different codons that exist, three of them
A) are involved in mutations.
B) do not specify a particular amino acid.
C) cannot be copied.
D) do not specify a particular amino acid and are signals to begin translation.
E) do not specify a particular amino acid and are signals to terminate translation.
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Chapter 10: Gene Control
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Q1) Which of the following causes DNA to wrap tightly around histones essentially shutting down transcription?
A) methylation
B) acetylation
C) nitrogenation
D) dehydration
E) carbonation
Q2) BRCA1
A)a condensed X chromosome
B)protein that combines with DNA all along its length
C)attaches or detaches from operator to regulate transcription
D)portion of the operon that binds RNA polymerase
E)genes that induce expression of other genes
F)genes controlling the development of the body plan
G)the mutated form of this gene is associated with breast cancer
H)binding sites on DNA for regulatory proteins that increase transcription rates
Q3) What is the most efficient way to regulate gene expression from the perspective of cellular resources?
Q4) The __________ governs expression of three genes active in lactose metabolism.
Q5) Why is SRY considered to be a master gene?
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Chapter 11: How Cells Reproduce
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bipolar spindle is composed of __________.
Q2) DNA is replicated during A) anaphase.
B) metaphase.
C) interphase.
D) prophase.
E) telophase.
Q3) period when DNA is duplicated
A)G2
B)mitosis
C)S
D)G1
E)cytokinesis
Q4) How could telomerase inhibitors be used to treat cancer?
Q5) Which characteristic is correlated with cancer cells and metastasis?
A) gainof nuclear-cytoplasmic controls governing cell growth and division
B) changes in adhesion proteins on membrane surfaces
C) expansionof the cytoskeleton
D) normal chromosome number
E) deceased blood supply to the tumor
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Meiosis and Sexual Reproduction
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Q1) What makes bdelloid rotifers so unique?
A) They reproduce sexually.
B) They can reproduce sexually or asexually.
C) They are all males.
D) They can import DNA from other major kingdoms.
E) A female can become a male if males are scarce.
Q2) Anaphase
A) involves the lining up of the chromosomes across the equatorial plate.
B) is the same in mitosis and meiosis I and II.
C) is initiated when the chromosomes begin to move apart.
D) results in an unequal distribution of chromosomes to the resulting cells.
E) occurs after telophase.
Q3) During ____, microtubules fasten the cell's chromosomes to the spindle poles.
A) prophase I
B) anaphase II
C) metaphase I
D) metaphase II
E) telophase I
Q4) With sexual reproduction, two genes for the same trait that are slightly different are called __________.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Observing Patterns in Inherited Traits
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Q1) True-breeding yellow guinea pigs crossed with true-breeding white ones produce only cream-colored offspring. This pattern indicates incomplete dominance. Rough hair is found to be dominant to smooth hair. Give the F1 and F2 genotypic and phenotypic ratios of a cross of a smooth, white guinea pig with a homozygous, rough, yellow guinea pig.
Q2) Which most completely describes the circumstances under which yarrow will alter its phenotype?
A) temperature, soil conditions and water conditions
B) soil conditions only
C) being produced by sexual versus asexual reproduction
D) water conditions only
E) asexual reproduction, soil conditions, and water conditions
Q3) In garden peas, one pair of alleles controls the height of the plant, and a second pair of alleles controls flower color. The allele for tall (D) is dominant to the allele for dwarf (d), and the allele for purple (P) is dominant to the allele for white (p). A tall plant with white flowers crossed with a dwarf plant with purple flowers produces all tall offspring with purple flowers. What is the genotype of the parents?
Q4) Different molecular forms of the same gene are __________.
Q5) A(n) __________ is a hybrid, with two nonidentical alleles (Aa).
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Chapter 14: Chromosomes and Human Inheritance
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Q1) What is the sex chromosome composition of a person with Klinefelter syndrome?
A) XXX
B) XO
C) XXY
D) XYY
E) YY
Q2) What is the sex chromosome composition of a person with Turner syndrome?
A) XXX
B) XO
C) XXY
D) XYY
E) YY
Q3) Which syndrome is characterized by a karyotype with 45 chromosomes?
A) Turner
B) Down
C) androgen insensitivity
D) Klinefelter
E) cri-du-chat
Q4) Some conditions like progeria do not run in families despite being autosomal dominant. How is this possible?
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Chapter 15: Studying and Manipulating Genomes
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Q1) a(n. ____ includes the entire genome.
A) cDNA library
B) transcribed library
C) genomic library
D) RNA library
E) plasmid library
Q2) Small circular molecules of "extra" DNA in bacteria ____.
A) are plasmids
B) are DNA fragments from their main chromosome
C) result from the activity of restriction enzymes
D) are eventually degraded
E) cannot survive outside of the cell
Q3) Recombinant DNA is any DNA that ____.
A) has been cut by restriction enzymes
B) is at least four to eight base pairs in length
C) has had its gene sequence rearranged
D) consists of DNA from two or more organisms of the same or different species
E) inserted into plasmids
Q4) __________ are multiple copies of a short DNA sequence that occur at a given locus.
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Chapter 16: Evidence of Evolution
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Q1) The large, ancient land mass that contained all the continents is known as ____.
A) Laurasia
B) Pangea
C) Gondwana
D) Atlantis
E) Europa
Q2) Darwin
A)wrote Principles of Geology
B)developed the theory of catastrophism
C)believed that giraffes have long necks because their short-necked ancestors stretched their necks and passed this change onto their offspring
D)was a naturalist who sailed on the Beagle and studied finches
E)wrote an essay relating population size to competition for limited resources
F)natural historian and author; formed early ideas of the great chain of being
Q3) ____________________ that impart greater ____________________ to an individual become more common in a population over generations, compared with less competitive forms.
Q4) Differential survival and reproduction of individuals of a population that vary in the details of shared traits is called ____________________.
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Chapter 17: Processes of Evolution
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Q1) In the United States, superbugs cause serious illness in over ____ people per year.
A) 1000
B) 100,000
C) 1,000,000
D) 2,000,000
E) 5,000,000
Q2) __________ occurs in different patterns depending on the species and selection pressures.
Q3) __________ occurs when two species act as agents of selection upon one another.
Q4) As the trees in England become less sooty due to pollution controls on factories, which of the moths in the accompanying figure will be selected against?
A) The dark moth on the dark tree
B) The light moth on the light tree
C) All of the light moths equally
D) The dark moth on the light tree
E) All of the dark moths equally
Q5) __________ selection favors intermediate forms of a trait where __________ selection favors extreme forms.
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Chapter 18: Organizating Information About Species
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Q1) Which explanation is NOT a reason for why Hawaiian honeycreepers are vulnerable to extinction.
A) reduction of their habitats
B) frequent volcanic eruptions
C) encroachment of humans into their habitats
D) importation of new predators and competitors into their habitats
E) warming of their habitats, supporting mosquitoes that carry avian malaria pathogens
Q2) Phylogeny research is LEAST likely to include which type of analysis?
A) genetic
B) anatomical
C) behavioral
D) physiological
E) direct observation of evolution
Q3) Which group is the sister group to humans?
A) earthworm
B) lizard
C) tuna
D) mouse
E) duck
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Chapter 19: Lifes Origin and Early Evolution
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Q1) __________ is a field of study concerned with the origins, evolution, and persistence of life on Earth as it relates to life in the universe.
Q2) The ozone layer is valuable because it blocks
A) heat.
B) UV radiation.
C) radio waves.
D) asteroids.
E) X-rays.
Q3) What can RNA do that DNA cannot that makes RNA a good starting point for life?
Q4) The ____ hypothesis states that mitochondria and chloroplasts evolved from bacteria.
A) invagination
B) exosymbiont
C) membrane folding
D) captured bacteria
E) endosymbiont
Q5) Provide evidence to both support and refute the current existence of life on Mars.
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Chapter 20: Viruses - Bacteria - and Archaea
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Q1) Which characteristic is LEAST accurate about endospores?
A) They can be destroyed with boiling water.
B) They are resistant to acids.
C) They can withstand irradiation.
D) They can remain viable for millions of years.
E) They can withstand drying out.
Q2) Four of the following are viral diseases. Which one is the exception?
A) herpes
B) measles
C) bubonic plague
D) hepatitis
E) chicken pox
Q3) Viroids are constructed primarily of ____.
A) lipids
B) DNA
C) protein coats
D) RNA
E) bacteriophages
Q4) Why are endospores so dangerous to food production?
Q5) Some viruses cause disease; they act as __________ in humans.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Protists - the Simplest Eukaryotes
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Q1) Four of the following statements are true about stramenopiles. Which statement is FALSE?
A) They are filamentous heterotrophs.
B) Some species are unicellular.
C) They include diatoms and red algae.
D) Most are photosynthetic.
E) Their chloroplast structure suggests evolution by secondary endosymbiosis.
Q2) The red algae are classified as ____.
A) rhodophytes
B) chlorophytes
C) phaeophytes
D) bryophytes
E) pterophytes
Q3) Red algae ____.
A) are primarily marine organisms
B) are thought to have developed from green algae
C) contain xanthophylls as their main accessory pigments
D) are mostly unicellular
E) survive only in shallow water
Q4) __________ are single-celled and mostly or entirely heterotrophic.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Land Plants
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Q1) Conifers, cycads, ginkgos, and gnetophytes are all ______.
Q2) In seed plants, the microspores become ___.
A) ovules
B) seeds
C) pollen grains
D) cones
E) sperm cells
Q3) The ____ are tropical and subtropical gymnosperms that resemble palms.
A) foxtails
B) gingkoes
C) gnetophytes
D) cycads
E) conifers
Q4) Although we know of threats to about ____ wild plant species, the actual number is likely much higher.
A) 5,000
B) 7,000
C) 12,000
D) 37,000
E) 130,000
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Chapter 23: Fungi
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Q1) The common mushroom bought in the average supermarket is a member of this group.
A)Zygomycetes
B)Ascomycetes
C)Basidiomycetes
D)Glomeromycetes
Q2) The accompanying figure is of one of the most poisonous mushrooms. Four of the following statements about this fungus are true. Which is the exception?
A) Its spores are created by mitosis.
B) It is called the death cap.
C) It is often mistaken for a puffball.
D) It kills by causing liver and kidney failure.
E) It is a club fungus.
Q3) In club fungi, each club-shaped cell initially ____.
A) is a spore
B) is a zygote
C) contains a single nucleus
D) is dikaryotic
E) undergoes mitosis to produce spores
Q4) What sort of symbiosis would a mycorrhiza represent?
Q5) What is the danger of Ug99 to global food production?
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Chapter 24: Animal Evolution - the Invertibrates
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Q1) You stumble upon an unidentified arthropod with no antennae and eight legs. This organism is likely closely related to _____.
A) grasshoppers
B) ticks
C) crayfish
D) millipedes
E) trilobites
Q2) ___________, or water bears, have a reduced coelom and an external body covering.
Q3) In __________, an anus forms first.
Q4) Trilobites were members of this phylum.
A)Porifera
B)Cnidaria
C)Platyhelminthes
D)Nematoda
E)Annelida
Q5) Explain how insects are both essential for, and detrimental to agriculture
Q6) In annelids, ____ regulate the composition of body fluid.
Q7) Animals most likely evolved from a colony similar to __________, a type of protist.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Animal Evolution - the Chordates
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Q1) Sharks differ from most other fish in that they lack ____.
A) gill slits
B) scales
C) bone
D) paired appendages
E) teeth
Q2) Four of the following are features found exclusively among all vertebrates. Which one is the exception?
A) notochord
B) pharyngeal gill slits
C) four legs
D) post-anal tail
E) dorsal nerve cord
Q3) __________, or four-legged walkers, evolved from lobe-finned bony fishes.
Q4) The letter "A" in the accompanying figure represents which teeth?
A) incisors
B) molars
C) canines
D) premolars
E) grinders
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Chapter 26: Human Evolution
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Q1) Four of the following statements about Denisovians are true. Which statement is false?
A) They are most closely related to Homo erectus.
B) The first fossils were found in Siberia.
C) Fossils attributed to this group have been found in Spain.
D) The first fossil to be found was a pinky finger.
E) They may be at least 400,000 years old.
Q2) Why is it so difficult to identify the beginnings of the hominin line?
Q3) The Neanderthals belong to this species.
A)Homo habilis
B)Homo erectus
C)Homo sapiens
D)Homo neanderthalensis
Q4) What cultural trait is unique to hominins?
Q5) Did Homo sapiens mate with Homo neanderthalensis?
Q6) Our own species evolved from this species.
A)Homo habilis
B)Homo erectus
C)Homo sapiens
D)Homo neanderthalensis
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Plant Tissues
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Q1) The spongy mesophyll is labeled ____.
Q2) A mass of ____ lies just below the surface of a terminal bud of an actively lengthening shoot.
A) ground tissue
B) dermal tissue
C) vascular tissue
D) apical meristem
E) cortex cells
Q3) Do trees really sequester carbon permanently or does this take place simply while they are alive?
Q4) The plant parts ABOVE the line at "C" represent the __________.
A) ground tissue only
B) root system
C) shoot system
D) stalk
E) light-independent parts
Q5) Monocots and eudicots differ in how xylem and phloem are distributed in ground tissue, in the number of petals in flowers, and in the number of ____________________.
Q6) Photosynthetic parenchyma is called ____________________.
29
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Chapter 28: Plant Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) What drives the movement of soil water, through a root's epidermis and cortex, to the vascular cylinder?
A) translocation
B) pressure flow
C) Casparian strip
D) osmosis
E) active transport
Q2) A layer of endodermal cells around the cylinder deposits a waterproof band called a(n) __________ in their abutting walls.
Q3) A difference in charge between guard cell cytoplasm and extracellular fluid is called ____.
A) osmosis
B) tension
C) turgor
D) pressure gradient
E) voltage
Q4) Root nodules are swellings on some plants that contain mutualistic __________ bacteria.
Q5) Explain the cohesion-tension theory.
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Chapter 29: Life Cycles of Flowering Plants
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Q1) pollen grain
A)haploid cell that gives rise to pollen grain
B)releases two sperm cells when it reaches and penetrates female gametophyte
C)develops into a fruit at maturity
D)created from a triploid cell that is produced when one sperm cell fuses with the endosperm mother cell
E)reproductive organs that produce the plant's male gametophytes
F)modified leaf with pigments and fragrance-producing cells
G)immature male gametophyte
H)female reproductive organ
I)landing platform for pollen
J)contains pollen sacs
K)forms in an ovule and gives rise to a female gametophyte
L)outermost whorl of leaf parts on a receptacle; generally green, but sometimes pigmented
M)region of carpel that receives pollen grains
N)arrival of pollen on a receptive stigma
O)forms a seed at maturity
Q2) carpel
Q3) Describe what a typical wind-pollinated flower looks like.
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Chapter 30: Communication Strategies in Plants
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Q1) The effect of directional growth shown in the accompanying figure is known to be caused by ____.
A) thigmotropism
B) gravitropism
C) abscisic acid
D) salicylic acid
E) vernalization
Q2) Photoperiodism is the ____.
A) duration of flowering in a plant
B) amount of light needed by a plant to exhibit normal growth
C) response of a plant to the duration of light and darkness
D) light phase of photosynthesis during which photolysis of water occurs
E) opposite of photorespiration
Q3) The flavonoid called epicatechin, found in cocoa, is probably responsible for the absence of __________ among the Kuna tribe.
Q4) Explain how gibberellin "removes the brakes" from some cellular processes.
Q5) In the root apical meristem, __________ supports division of undifferentiated meristem cells, and cytokinin signals the cells to differentiate.
Q6) Explain what occurs when a plant exhibits heliotropism.
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Animal Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which system produces red blood cells?
A) endocrine
B) skeletal
C) muscular
D) immune
E) integumentary
Q2) adipose tissue
A)comprises ligaments and tendons
B)contains collagen and elastin; acts as a packing material that supports internal organs
C)receives, conducts, and initiates signals in response to environmental changes
D)stores fat
E)offers resistance to mechanical injury and loss of internal fluids; also a barrier against microorganisms
F)secretes extracellular products such as sweat, mucus, tears, and saliva
G)fluid ground substance plus free cells; involved in transport, pH, and temperature stability
H)extracellular fluid that bathes cells and tissues
Q3) hair follicle
Q4) hair
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Chapter 32: Neural Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) slows digestion
A)parasympathetic
B)sympathetic
Q2) Radially symmetrical animals have a nerve __________.
Q3) The parietal lobe is responsible for ____.
A) vision
B) sensory input
C) hearing
D) generating a motor response
E) inhibiting unsuitable behaviors
Q4) The fluid that covers the brain and spinal cord is ____.
A) part of the meninges
B) part of a rapid type of nerve conduction
C) involved in reflex actions
D) involved in the "jumping" of impulses
E) called cerebrospinal fluid
Q5) decreases heart rate
A)parasympathetic
B)sympathetic
Q6) A neuron's __________ receive signals, and its __________ transmits signals.
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Chapter 33: Sensory Perception
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Q1) People tend to crave sweet and salty foods, but dislike bitter foods. What is the evolutionary explanation for this?
Q2) Whales and elephants use sound to communicate with which kind of receptor?
A) photoreceptors
B) nociceptors
C) thermoreceptors
D) chemoreceptors
E) mechanoreceptors
Q3) pitch
A)relays action potentials from the ear to the brain
B)contains the organ of Corti
C)separates the outer and middle ears
D)membrane-covered gateway to inner ear
E)consists of tissue containing rods and cones
F)bone in middle ear
G)defined by peak height and valley depth of sound waves
H)helps maintain balance and position; detects acceleration
I)depends on the number of wave cycles per second
J)a substance that elicits a response in members of the same species
K)regulates size of pupil and amount of incoming light
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Chapter 34: Endocrine Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) A normally functioning pancreas produces insulin, a hormone that causes cells to
A) produce glucagon.
B) take up and store glucose
C) synthesize protein
D) break down glucose
E) produce glucagon
Q2) As males and females age they produce lower volumes of sex hormones. For women, taking testosterone to increase libido in becoming more common. Why is the same not common for males?
Q3) One effect of type 1 diabetes is ____.
A) ketosis
B) storage of proteins
C) secretion of pancreatic juices
D) metabolism of glucose
E) fat storage
Q4) adrenal glands
Q5) All vertebrates have a(n) __________ system of secretory glands and cells.
Q6) ovaries
Q7) thymus
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Chapter 35: Structural Support and Movement
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Q1) A _____ cushions the area between the knee cap and the femur.
A) suture
B) ligament
C) Bursa
D) Tendon
E) fascia
Q2) A frequent site of bone injury is at or near a(n) _____.
A) connective tissue
B) joint
C) insertion point
D) matrix
E) ligament
Q3) This bone is not part of the appendicular skeleton.
A)fibrous joint
B)cartilaginous joint
C)synovial joint
Q4) A(n) __________ consists of hardened parts inside the body.
Q5) __________ are cells that synthesize bone, whereas __________ break bone down.
Q6) Signals from motor neurons result in action potentials in muscle fibers, which in turn causes the __________ to release stored calcium ions.
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Chapter 36: Circulation
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Q1) The anatomical structure identified with the letters "B" and "E" in the figure above is the ____.
A) arterial wall
B) lumen
C) venous wall
D) capillary wall
E) connective tissue
Q2) Circulation in the above diagram functions primarily as a(n) ____.
A) closed circulatory system
B) open circulatory system
C) semi-closed circulatory system
D) system of exchange using capillaries
E) continuous system of vessels
Q3) A heart with three chambers, one atrium, and two ventricles is shared by _____.
A) reptiles and mammals
B) reptiles and amphibians
C) amphibians and mammals
D) birds and mammals
E) birds and reptiles
Q4) __________ is mostly water in which diverse ions and molecules are dissolved.
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Immunity
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Q1) Residual air volume is indicated by the letter ____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q2) __________ relieve allergy symptoms by dampening the effects of histamines.
Q3) These cells kill tumor cells but are not B or T lymphocytes.
A)macrophages
B)helper T cells
C)B cells
D)cytotoxic T cells
E)natural killer cells
Q4) Why is it beneficial to urinate after sexual activity?
Q5) These bind, as in a lock-and-key mechanism, to foreign proteins.
A)antigens
B)antibodies
C)helper T cells
D)cytotoxic T cells
E)effector B cells
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Chapter 38: Respiration
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Q1) Non-smokers live about ____ years longer than smokers.
A) two
B) four
C) six
D) eight
E) ten
Q2) Another name for "Adam's apple".
A)pharynx
B)larynx
C)trachea
D)bronchiole
E)alveolus
Q3) Why would athletes in aerobic sports benefit by training at high altitude?
Q4) larynx
A)pharynx
B)larynx
C)trachea
D)bronchiole
E)alveolus
Q5) bronchus
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Chapter 39: Digestion and Nutrition
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Q1) Saliva contains the enzyme __________, which begins the process of starch digestion.
Q2) Food is moved through the digestive system by ____.
A) sphincters
B) accessory organs
C) smooth muscle contractions
D) movement of villi
E) skeletal muscle contractions
Q3) amino- and carboxypeptidase
A)made in the small intestine and pancreas; act on peptide fragments
B)glucose, fructose, and galactose are examples
C)made in the pancreas; acts on fats
D)made by the pancreas and salivary glands; acts on starch
E)made by the small intestine; acts on two-unit sugars
F)made by the pancreas; acts on proteins and polypeptides
G)contains cholesterol; helps emulsify fats
H)made in the stomach; acts on proteins
I)stimulates hydrochloric acid secretion
J)circular muscle; acts like valve
Q4) oral cavity
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Chapter 40: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) Where does hormonal adjustment to solute and volume levels occur?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) C and D
Q2) The descending arm of the loop of Henle is permeable to ____ but impermeable to ____.
A) water; potassium ions
B) water; sodium ions
C) sodium ions; water
D) potassium ions; water
E) all choices are incorrect
Q3) __________ and __________ fluid are the main components of extracellular fluid.
A)Bowman's capsule
B)proximal tubule
C)descending portion of loop of Henle
D)distal tubule
Q4) Provide some of the adaptations that allowed animals to adapt to life on dry land.
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Chapter 41: Animal Reproductive Systems
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Q1) This represents the product of the first meiotic division.
A)spermatogonium
B)secondary spermatocyte
C)primary spermatocyte
D)spermatid
E)sperm
Q2) During menopause, ____.
A) estrogen levels rise
B) menstruation increases
C) ovulation ceases
D) women experience chills
E) weight loss is typical
Q3) labium majus
Q4) The emergency contraceptive pill (morning after pill) produces a pregnancy rate of about _____ percent.
A) 1
B) 5
C) 10
D) 20
E) 50
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Chapter 42: Animal Development
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Q1) The placenta ____.
A) forms from endometrial and extraembryonic tissues
B) will cover about one-half of the inner uterine surface at full term
C) intermingles fetal blood with maternal blood
D) secretes only estrogen to maintain the uterine lining during the second and third trimesters
E) secretes only progesterone to maintain the uterine lining during the second and third trimesters
Q2) In humans, the term embryo refers to the following period of time: ____.
A) from the ninth week after fertilization until birth
B) from the eighth week after fertilization until birth
C) from fertilization until the ninth week after fertilization
D) from 2 to 10 weeks after fertilization
E) from 2 to 8 weeks after fertilization
Q3) Nutrients and antibodies move across the placenta from mother to embryo or fetus, as do __________, which can cause birth defects.
Q4) During gastrulation, three tissue layers form: the outer __________, the inner __________, and the __________ in between the first two layers.
Q5) During implantation, the __________ buries itself in the uterine wall.
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Chapter 43: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Altruism in animals _____.
A) increasesanother individual's reproductive success at its own expense
B) has no selective value
C) is a recent evolutionary development observed only in mammals
D) is attributable to random behavior
E) is commonplace in vertebrates
Q2) Behavior refers to coordinated responses that an animal makes to a(n) __________.
A)altruism
B)cooperation
C)selfish herd behavior
D)subordination
Q3) Genes that affect the __________ system often affect behavior.
Q4) Epigenetic effects cause _____ behavior without altering _____.
A) instinctive; oxytocin level
B) instinctive; the genome
C) conditioned; the genome
D) heritable changes in; DNA sequence
E) temporary changes in; RNA sequence
Q5) A behavior that has a genetic basis is subject to evolution by __________.
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