Cartography
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Cartography is the science and art of map-making, focusing on the representation of spatial information in ways that are informative, accurate, and visually engaging. This course explores foundational principles of cartography, including map projection, scale, symbolization, and generalization. Students will learn how to interpret and design maps using both traditional and digital methods, considering issues of data accuracy, visual hierarchy, and effective communication. The course combines theoretical knowledge with practical exercises to help students develop skills essential for creating maps that serve a variety of purposes in geography, urban planning, environmental science, and other fields.
Recommended Textbook
Geosystems An Introduction to Physical Geography 9th Edition by Robert W. Christopherson
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3026 Verified Questions
3026 Flashcards
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2
Chapter 1: Essentials of Geography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The science that specifically attempts to determine Earth's shape and size by surveys and mathematical means is called
A) geography.
B) geology.
C) cartography.
D) astronomy.
E) geodesy.
Answer: E
Q2) A scale of 1:900,000 is ________a scale of 1:24,000.
A) larger than
B) equal to
C) smaller than
D) twice as much as
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following describes the property of equal area on a map?
A) equivalence
B) conformality
C) proximity
D) equidistance
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Solar Energy to Earth and the Seasons
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Sun's altitude refers to
A) the angular distance from the equator to the latitude at which direct overhead insolation is received.
B) the angular height of the Sun above the horizon.
C) the subsolar point.
D) how far the Sun is from Earth.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is true of the March equinox?
A) Moving south of the equator, the daylen gth increases, while moving north of the equator the daylength decreases.
B) The suns direct rays strike perpendicular at the Tropic of Capricorn (23.5° S).
C) At all latitudes between the poles, day and night are of equal length.
D) In the Southern Hemisphere, it is known as the vernal equinox.
Answer: C
Q3) Earth is closest to the Sun in early January.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Earths Modern Atmosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Despite its high temperatures, why would the thermosphere feel cold to humans?
A) The number of molecules is not high enough to transfer heat to human's skin.
B) Humans would die due to pressure changes before they could experience the intense heat.
C) The atmosphere is denser in the thermosphere and this pressure reduces heat transfer.
D) The average kinetic energy is actually less in the thermosphere than the troposphere.
Answer: A
Q2) Sources of natural variable pollutants and materials include all of the following except A) volcanoes.
B) forest fires.
C) plants and decaying plants.
D) industrial activity.
Answer: D
Q3) Temperature inversions have little effect on air pollution.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Atmosphere and Surface Energy Balances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is false?
A) Urbanized surfaces tend to be sealed.
B) Urban surfaces have lower albedos and higher NET R values.
C) The amount of Human-produced heat is not significant in New York City.
D) A city responds much as a desert surface during and after a rainstorm.
Q2) When water evaporates from a surface, which of the following occurs?
A) Energy is stored within the water.
B) Energy is released to the surface.
C) The surface is warmed.
D) Heat is transferred back and forth between the air and surface.
Q3) The analogy of a greenhouse is
A) completely unrelated to our Earth-atmosphere system, and should never have been used to describe global warming.
B) exactly how the Earth-atmosphere system operates.
C) a useful, but inaccurate model since atmospheric gases do not trap, but absorb heat.
D) while it incorrectly describes shortwave energy transmission, it perfectly encapsulates how longwave terrestrial radiation is trapped.
Q4) Describe the different methods of heat transfer.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Global Temperatures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The flow of temperature into an object raises its heat.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The principal controls and influences of temperature patterns include
A) Earth's tilt, rotation, revolution, and sphericity.
B) latitude, altitude, land-water heating differences, cloud cover, ocean currents, and surface conditions.
C) the distance of the Earth from the sun and sunspot activity.
D) the seasons and human activity.
Q3) In colder temperatures, alcohol thermometers are preferred to mercury thermometers because
A) mercury freezes at -39°C (-38.2°F), whereas alcohol freezes at -120°C (-170°F).
B) alcohol thermometers are generally more accurate, especially in cold temperatures.
C) alcohol thermometers are less expensive and more easily to replace if broken in extreme temperatures.
D) mercury is poisonous and are rarely used in modern thermometers any more.
Q4) How does wind affect the wind-chill factor and the heat index?
Q5) Compare, contrast, and explain maritime and continental conditions.
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Chapter 6: Atmospheric and Oceanic Circulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) An area of high pressure circulates counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and is called an anticyclone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As of 2012, which country had the highest installed wind energy capacity?
A) Germany
B) The United States
C) Ethiopia
D) China
E) El Salvador
Q3) Which of the following is true of India's weather patterns?
A) Monsoonal rains are heaviest in winter from December to February.
B) The shifting of the intertropical convergence zone and upper air circulation brings heavy precipitation in summer from June to September.
C) Dry winds desiccate the land during each summer.
D) They are characterized by an even distribution of precipitation throughout the year.
Q4) Describe the formation of ridges and troughs in the upper atmosphere and how they are connected with weather patterns.
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Chapter 7: Water and Atmospheric Moisture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atmospheric water vapor is both a greenhouse gas and affects human comfort level.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A mass of air always becomes saturated when it reaches the
A) highest temperature of the day.
B) lowest temperature of the day.
C) specific humidity point.
D) dew-point temperature.
Q3) Surface tension and capillarity are the result of
A) hydrogen bonding.
B) gravitational attraction.
C) magnetic bonding.
D) molecular hold.
Q4) Relative humidity is the mass of water vapor per mass of air.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The technique of allowing water to freeze has been used to quarry rocks.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Weather
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term "orographic" refers to
A) convection stimulated principally by local heating.
B) lifting along the edges of conflicting air masses.
C) air mass modification and the formation of secondary air masses.
D) forced uplift due to the presence of a physical barrier.
E) vertical lifting due to converging air masses.
Q2) Which of the following is not associated with the development of a tornado?
A) squall lines and supercells
B) a strong updraft
C) a mesocyclone
D) minimal wind shear
Q3) The direction of travel of midlatitude wave cyclones is controlled largely by the polar jet stream.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Derechos are slow moving, curved-line winds.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Using several examples, discuss how climate change may affect severe weather events
10
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Chapter 9: Water Resources
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define the following: soil-moisture storage, hygroscopic water, wilting point, capillary water, field capacity, gravitational water, soil-moisture recharge, soil porosity, and soil permeability.
Q2) Much of Earth's water supply originated from A) asteroids.
B) icy comets.
C) gases expelled from the Sun; i.e., solar wind.
D) photosynthesis.
Q3) Intercepted water that drains across plant leaves and down their stems to the ground is known as A) throughfall.
B) overland flow.
C) infiltration.
D) stem flow.
Q4) The California Water Project is
A) a proposed dam of the Colorado River between the Parker and Palo Verde Dam.
B) a multi-year plan designed to harvest rainwater for agricultural purposes.
C) a water conveyance system to distribute water resources throughout the state.
D) an ambition goal to build a hydroelectric power station larger than China's Three Gorges.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Global Climate Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heave annual snowfalls is a common occurrence in Antarctica.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The largest percentage of Earth's population lives within the
A) tropical climates.
B) desert climates.
C) mesothermal climates.
D) microthermal climates.
Q3) Which of the following is an element of weather and climate?
A) insolation
B) temperature
C) atmospheric moisture
D) air pressure
E) insolation, temperature, atmospheric moisture, and air pressure are all elements of weather and climate.
Q4) Maritime tropical air masses influence the marine west coast climates.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Construct a climograph for your city or town.
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Chapter 11: Climate Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) As air temperatures increase, evaporation increases, leading to more condensation and cloud formation. Low, thick cloud cover increases the albedo of the atmosphere, thereby having a cooling effect on Earth. This is an example of a A) positive feedback loop.
B) negative feedback loop.
C) neither a positive or negative feedback loop.
Q2) Which of the following is correct regarding Arctic sea ice?
A) Until recently, seasonal variations in sea ice extent were rare.
B) Summer sea ice reached its minimum extent in 2001 and has gradually increased since then.
C) Since 1979, summer sea ice minimum extent and winter sea ice maximum extent have declined.
D) In the summer, most to all sea ice melts, only to refreeze in the winter. However, less water has been refreezing over the past decade.
Q3) As ocean temperatures increase, the ability of oceans to dissolve CO is diminished.
A)True B)False
Q4) What are some examples of positive and negative climate feedback loops?
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Dynamic Planet
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three principal cycles composing the geologic cycle include all the following except
A) hydrologic cycle.
B) biogeochemical cycle.
C) tectonic cycle.
D) rock cycle.
Q2) The occurrence of contact metamorphism would be direct evidence for
A) cementation of sedimentary rock.
B) the local intrusion of magma.
C) regional plate collision.
D) lithification of clastics.
Q3) The dominant element in continental crust are
A) silica and aluminum.
B) silica and magnesium.
C) magnesium and aluminum.
D) potassium and iron.
Q4) A mineral can be either organic or inorganic.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the important aspects of the formation and breakup of Pangaea.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Tectonics, Earthquakes, and Volcanism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vertical elevation differences in a local landscape are referred to as A) relief.
B) an order of relief.
C) topography.
D) crust.
Q2) Lava plateaus, such as the Columbia River Plateau, are formed from ________ magma which has a ________ viscosity.
A) granitic; high
B) granitic; low
C) basaltic; high
D) basaltic; low
Q3) The horizontal line that defines the portion of the anticline or syncline with the maximum curvature is known as the A) valley.
B) hinge.
C) trough.
D) basin.
Q4) Orogens are markably well correlated with the plate tectonics model.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Weathering, Karst Landscapes, and Mass Movement
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Sample Questions
Q1) The angle of repose represents a balance between gravity and friction and shear.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the factors influencing the weathering process.
Q3) The maximum angle at which soil, sediment, and rock will remain without moving downslope (e.g. a stable slope) is the
A) height of the slope.
B) angle of repose.
C) mass movement gradient.
D) the speed of the particles.
Q4) When rock is broken down and disintegrated without any chemical alterations, the process in operation is
A) physical weathering.
B) chemical weathering.
C) hydrolysis.
D) carbonation.
Q5) Fence posts and utility poles leaning downslope is indicative of slump.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
Q6) Describe the processes of denudation.
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Page 17
Chapter 15: River Systems and Landforms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Large river systems that have multiple large channels across a vast floodplain are termed
A) anabranching rivers.
B) braided streams.
C) meandering streams.
D) steep-walled channels.
Q2) The entrenchment of a river into its own floodplain produces A) backswamps.
B) alluvial terraces.
C) natural levees.
D) river deltas.
Q3) A 50-year flood has an annual exceedance probability of A) 0.5%.
B) 5%.
C) 25%.
D) 50%.
Q4) Describe the common stream channel patterns.
Q5) Discuss the concept of the graded stream. Do most streams approximate a graded stream? Why or why not?
Page 18
Q6) Describe the formation and typical characteristics of a floodplain.
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Chapter 16: The Oceans, Coastal Processes, and Wind Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Worldwide salinty varies between ________ and ________.
A) 5 ; 10
B) 34 ; 37
C) 47 ; 51
D) 65 ; 67
Q2) The salinity of seawater averages 35 .
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is correct regarding mean sea level?
A) A consistent value has yet to be determined due to all the variables involved in producing the tides.
B) It is at the same level along the entire North American coast.
C) It is calculated based on average tidal levels recorded hourly at a given site over a period of many years.
D) It has very little variability across all ocean basins and, therefore, is treated as an absolute value.
Q4) Discuss a how a tsunami is formed, how it behaves in the open ocean, and how it behaves when it contacts the shore. Include its physical characteristics, travel speed and pattern, and nature of impact with land.
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Glacial and Periglacial Processes and Landforms
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Sample Questions
Q1) A valley glacier is a form of alpine glacier.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The type of glacier that dominates Greenland and Antarctica is an
A) ice cap.
B) ice sheet.
C) ice field.
D) ice shelves.
Q3) The snowline is at a higher elevation on equatorial mountains than on midlatitude mountains.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A fjord is a glacial landform that occurs in areas in which a glacier encounters the ocean and subsequently retreats.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Solifluction is the downslope movement of soil particles resulting from freeze/thaw cycles.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: The Geography of Soils
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Sample Questions
Q1) The basic sampling unit, in soil surveys representing all the characteristics and variability used for classification, is
A) soil profile.
B) pedon.
C) soil horizon.
D) polypedon.
Q2) What are the six main horizons found in soils? Briefly describe each.
Q3) Most of the glacially derived till and outwash materials from New York through the Appalachians are
A) Spodosols.
B) Histosols.
C) Inceptisols.
D) Gelisols.
Q4) A few centimeters' thickness of prime farmland soil may require 500 years to mature.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What do you think are the biggest challenges related to soil conservation and management in the coming decades?
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Chapter 19: Ecosystem Essentials
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately half of the cultivated acreage in the United States and Canada is planted for animal consumption.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The zonation of flora and fauna along an altitudinal transect similar to that found along latitudinal transects is known as the
A) altitude-latitude hypothesis.
B) vegetation similarity theory.
C) the life zone concept.
D) altitudinal zonation principle.
Q3) Which of the following has the highest number of known species?
A) plants
B) insects
C) chordates
D) bacteria
Q4) Which of the following is the largest carbon sinks?
A) the atmosphere
B) fossil fuels and oil shales
C) dead organic matter
D) the oceans
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Chapter 20: Terrestrial Biomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not one of the major groups of terrestrial vegetation biogeographers often designate?
A) phytoplankton
B) forest
C) grassland
D) desert
Q2) The most extensive anthropogenic biome is
A) cropland.
B) rangelands.
C) settlements.
D) forested lands.
Q3) Fire is an important maintenance factor in the tropical savanna and midlatitude grasslands biomes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Of all the natural biomes, this one is most modified by human activity.
A) midlatitude grassland
B) tropical savanna
C) tropical rainforest
D) midlatitude broadleaf and mixed forest
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