Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physical Therapy Exam Practice Tests - 861 Verified Questions

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Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physical Therapy Exam Practice Tests

Course Introduction

This course explores the principles and practices of physical therapy in the management of cardiovascular and pulmonary conditions. Students will learn to assess, plan, and implement therapeutic interventions for patients with disorders such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, heart failure, and post-surgical complications. Emphasis is placed on the application of evidence-based strategies for improving cardiopulmonary function, patient education, and promoting overall endurance and quality of life. Practical skills such as airway clearance techniques, exercise testing and prescription, and respiratory muscle training are integrated with clinical reasoning and multidisciplinary collaboration.

Recommended Textbook

Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physical Therapy Evidence to Practice 5th Edition by Donna Frownfelter

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861 Verified Questions

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2

Chapter 1: Epidemiology As a Basis for Informing

Contemporary Physical Therapy Practice

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Sample Questions

Q1) The World Health Organization definition of health encompasses which of the following dimensions?

A) Physical and emotional well-being and home environment

B) Emotional, physical, and educational well-being

C) Physical, emotional, and social well-being

D) Emotional, physical, and cultural well-being

Answer: C

Q2) Failure of traditional models of health education in reducing the prevalence of lifestyle-related conditions and their risk factors has been thought to be attributable to:

A) the personal, bidirectional model of delivery.

B) establishing rapport, trust, commitment, and follow-up.

C) understanding beliefs, timing, readiness to change, and barriers.

D) a unidirectional model of information delivery.

Answer: D

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3

Chapter 2: Oxygen Transport: the Basis of Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physical Therapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Nitrogen is the largest component of atmospheric (room)air.This concentration of nitrogen gas in the air is physiologically important to the mechanics of respiration for which of the following reasons?

A) Nitrogen is the gas that drives our respiration.

B) Nitrogen maintains the patency of the alveoli.

C) Nitrogen is a substitute for oxygen at higher elevations.

D) Nitrogen is the gas responsible for the ozone layer.

Answer: B

Q2) The movement of oxygen from the capillaries to the mitochondria is known as _________ and is regulated in part by metabolic rate,vascular resistance,and capillary recruitment.

A) oxygen transport

B) oxygen diffusion

C) oxygen convection

D) oxygen degradation

Answer: B

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4

Chapter 3: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Anatomy

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Sample Questions

Q1) The bronchi divide into many sections anteriorly,superiorly,posteriorly,and inferiorly,ultimately forming the tracheobronchial tree,which is composed of how many generations?

A) 24 generations

B) 22 generations

C) 23 generations

D) 21 generations

Answer: C

Q2) The mucociliary escalator,which is responsible for propelling mucus by the cilia,can become paralyzed.When this occurs,mucus accumulates in the distal airways.All of the following are potential causes of paralyzation for the escalator except:

A) smoking.

B) hypoxia.

C) anesthesia.

D) supplemental O .

Answer: D

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Chapter 4: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physiology

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Sample Questions

Q1) All of the following factors can affect ventilation and perfusion matching in the cardiovascular and pulmonary system except:

A) smoking history.

B) posture.

C) body position.

D) disease.

Q2) Considering the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve,a shift in the curve to the left results in decreased oxygen affinity and a greater dissociation of oxygen and hemoglobin.What condition might have this effect on the curve?

A) Working skeletal muscle

B) Emphysema

C) Polycythemia

D) None of the above

Q3) If the pneumotaxic center is compromised,the resulting breathing pattern would be known as:

A) pneumotaxic respiration.

B) apneustic breathing.

C) pneumotaxic breathing.

D) apneustic respiration.

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Page 6

Chapter 5: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Pathophysiology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following conditions or diseases is NOT considered to be a restrictive lung disorder (RLD)?

A) Pregnancy

B) Bronchiectasis

C) Lung cancer

D) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

Q2) Patients seen after having a myocardial infraction (MI)recover at various rates depending on the complicated versus uncomplicated nature of the MI.What is the most important factor for determining the prognosis of a patient for a physical therapist planning a rehabilitation program for that patient after MI?

A) Persistence of angina

B) Extent of ventricular damage

C) Use of nitrates versus antiarrhythmic agents

D) Pre-insult exercise intensity

Q3) Systemic hypertension presents with:

A) stiff peripheral arteries and dilated arterioles.

B) stiff central arteries and dilated arterioles.

C) normal peripheral arteries and constricted arterioles.

D) stiff central arteries and stiff peripheral arteries.

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Manifestations of Systemic Conditions

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Sample Questions

Q1) For patients diagnosed with sickle cell anemia,all of the following are characteristics of the condition EXCEPT:

A) vitamin K deficiency.

B) pleuritic chest pain.

C) abnormal pulmonary function test results.

D) erythrocyte rigidity.

Q2) A physical therapist completes an examination for a patient with quadriplegia.As part of the plan of care,the therapist should likely address which of the following?

A) Impaired cough

B) Sitting posture

C) Upper body strengthening

D) Cardiovascular endurance

Q3) Reduced lung compliance resulting from an increased fibrotic event of the lung parenchyma would be related to changes of what origin?

A) Musculoskeletal conditions

B) Neurologic conditions

C) Gastrointestinal conditions

D) Connective tissue conditions

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Chapter 7: Measurement and Documentation

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Q1) Which of the following is not a type or level of measurement?

A) Nominal

B) Ordinal

C) Ratio

D) Segmental

Q2) Which is the best example of a ratio measurement?

A) 0° Celsius

B) A classification of heart failure

C) 0° Kelvin

D) Grade 1 angina

Q3) Which best describes validity?

A) A measurement that is ordered or ranked

B) The consistency or reproducibility of a measurement

C) Measurements that provide meaningful information and accurately reflect the characteristic for which the measure is intended

D) A measurement that has a high level of relative error

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Chapter 8: History

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which is not true regarding dyspnea in cardiopulmonary patients?

A) Is not usually related to metabolic acidosis-induced hydrogen ion stimulus.

B) Increased pressure in the right side of the heart and pulmonary circulation during exertion may stimulate mechanoreceptors that increase ventilation and induce dyspnea.

C) A recent onset of dyspnea is more characteristic of heart failure than of chronic lung disease, which has a longer, more insidious onset.

D) Acute pulmonary problems such as pneumothorax, atelectasis, pneumonia, and other conditions superimposed on chronic lung disease can also explain a recent intensi cation of symptoms.

Q2) Which is not true regarding pleural chest pain?

A) Chest pain originates from the parietal pleura or endothoracic fascia.

B) Chest pain originates from the parietal pleura or visceral pleura.

C) Pleuritic chest pain worsens sharply with inspiration.

D) Deep breathing, coughing, and laughing are extremely painful.

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10

Chapter 9: Pulmonary Function Tests

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Sample Questions

Q1) What effects does aging have on airway closure?

A) Airway closure occurs at lower lung volumes.

B) A loss of pulmonary elastic recoil results in an increase of intrapleural negative pressure.

C) A loss of pulmonary elastic recoil results in a loss of intrapleural negative pressure.

D) Airway closer is improved with smoking and changes in body shape.

Q2) In regards to vital capacity (VC),which is true?

A) It contains the IRV, TV, and TLC.

B) An increase in VC can occur as a result of absolute reduction in distensible lung tissue.

C) A decrease in VC may also be seen only with primary lung disease or airway obstruction.

D) VC is the maximum amount of gas that can be expelled from the lungs by forceful effort after a maximum inspiration.

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11

Chapter 10: Arterial Blood Gases

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Sample Questions

Q1) When tissue Po decreases,what tissues send a response to the brain is to increase ventilation and cardiac output?

A) Lungs

B) Kidneys

C) The heart

D) The carotid and aortic bodies

Q2) Which of the following is true regarding the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (Pco )?

A) If the Pco is above 45 mm Hg, the patient is hyperventilating.

B) If the Pco is below 35 mm Hg, the patient is said to be hypoventilating.

C) If the Pco is below 35 mm Hg, the patient is said to be hyperventilating.

D) Normal Pco values are 55 to 65 mm Hg.

Q3) What are the normal arterial pH values?

A) 7.80 to 9.0

B) 2.5 to 5.0

C) 6.35 to 7.2

D) 7.35 to 7.45

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Chapter 11: Imaging of the Chest

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which imaging technique is used to measure conditions that affect blood flow?

A) Radiography

B) CT scan

C) MRI

D) Radionuclide ventilation-perfusion scan

Q2) What does a CT scan use for imaging?

A) Ionizing radiation

B) Magnetic energy

C) Radioactive isotopes

D) Radiolabeled glucose

Q3) How does a PET scan work?

A) Uses magnetic energy to align the cells and measures the density of tissue

B) Measures the uptake of radiolabeled glucose in the tissue

C) Uses standard ionizing radiation to generate images or slices of the body

D) Uses standard ionizing isotopes to measure the density of tissue to crease a single image

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13

Chapter 12: Electrocardiogram Identification

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Sample Questions

Q1) An impulse originating from an ectopic focus in the ventricles that is outside of the normal conduction pathway has which of the following characteristics?

A) Slower propagation because of the syncytial arrangement of the myocardial cells

B) Uncoordinated contraction

C) Decrease in ejection of blood volume

D) All of the above

Q2) An ECG that shows both positive and negative deflections of the QRS complex from the baseline would be likely showing:

A) PVCs occurring at regular intervals.

B) bigeminy.

C) a multifocal PVC.

D) disruption of the P wave.

Q3) Which of the following causes the absolute refractory period during depolarization?

A) An influx of Ca² ions

B) An influx of Na ions

C) The lack of an ion gradient for potential discharge

D) The increased ion gradient

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14

Chapter 13: Multisystem Assessment and Laboratory Investigations

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is a normal hemoglobin value for a man?

A) 10 g/dL

B) 15 g/dL

C) 20 g/dL

D) 25 g/dL

Q2) Why is knowledge of multisystem function within the body necessary for cardiovascular and pulmonary physical therapists?

A) The cardiovascular and pulmonary systems are affected by virtually all other body systems.

B) It is helpful to confirm a patient's diagnosis.

C) It is helpful to predict a patient's response to treatment as well as his or her prognosis.

D) All of the above

Q3) Which of the following is likely to result from an increase in thyroid hormones?

A) Decrease in the rate and depth of breathing

B) Increased appetite and food intake

C) Decreased gastrointestinal motility

D) None of the above

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Page 15

Chapter 14: Special Tests

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which testing is performed with FDG isotopes as a diagnostic tool for pulmonary nodules and mass lesions?

A) PET

B) Gallium scintigraphy

C) Ventilation-perfusion lung scan

D) Angiography

Q2) Which of the following is a measure of myocardial function?

A) Myocardial stunning

B) Ejection fraction

C) Ventilation-perfusion

D) All of the above

Q3) What is the strongest radionuclide predictor of patient outcome?

A) Exercise LVEF

B) First-pass study

C) Pharmacologic stress study

D) Gated equilibrium scan

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Chapter 15: Clinical Evaluation and Assessment of the

Cardiovascular and Pulmonary

Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which topographic landmarks designate the location of the left ventricular apex?

A) The midclavicular line and fifth intercostal space

B) The midclavicular line and second intercostal space

C) The left sternal border and second intercostal space

D) The right sternal border and second intercostal space

Q2) Which of the following may be present if crepitus is palpated over the chest wall?

A) An air leak from a chest-tube site

B) Pleural rub

C) Friction rub

D) All of the above

Q3) Which adventitious breath sounds are described as discontinuous,low-pitched sounds?

A) Crackles

B) Rhonchi

C) Wheezes

D) Whistles

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Chapter 16: Monitoring Systems, catheters, and Devices in the Intensive Care Unit

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the normal range for PaO in young adults in the upright seated position?

A) 70 to 85 mm Hg

B) 85 to 95 mm Hg

C) 90 to 100 mm Hg

D) 100 to 110 mm Hg

Q2) Which assessment of arousal and brain activity includes a review of motor,sensory,pain,arousal,and cognitive status?

A) Richmond Agitation-Sedation Scale

B) Glasgow Coma Scale

C) Electroencephalogram

D) FACES scale

Q3) Which of the following refers to acute reductions in arterial carbon dioxide levels?

A) Hypoxia

B) Hyperoxia

C) Hypocapnia

D) Hypercapnia

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Chapter 17: Maximizing Outcomes: Relating Interventions to an

Individuals Needs

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Sample Questions

Q1) The prescription must be reviewed at each treatment session and:

A) changed whether or not improvement has been made.

B) changed only if the patient requests.

C) kept the same as the previous week for a 4-week period.

D) modified accordingly.

Q2) The goals of treatment fall into three categories:

A) preventive, long term, and short term.

B) primary, secondary, and tertiary.

C) cognitive, psychosocial, and nutritional.

D) restricted mobility, intrinsic factors, and extrinsic factors.

Q3) Clinical reasoning is the process of critically analyzing the patient's status with respect to the individual's:

A) environmental context.

B) psychological context.

C) cultural context.

D) all of the above.

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19

Chapter 18: Mobilization and Exercise: Physiological Basis for Assessment,

evaluation, and Training

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Q1) Return to work is often related to oxygen transport capacity in terms of:

A) aerobic and muscle power.

B) mobilization and exercise.

C) stress level and social contact.

D) capacity for activity and participation.

Q2) Hospitalized patients whose oxygen transport capacity is reduced or threatened tend to be:

A) hypermetabolic

B) hypometabolic

C) catabolic

D) dehydrated

Q3) Physical therapists exploit the effects of exercise in most patients and adapt the prescription based on the patient's:

A) clinical presentation and needs.

B) ability to pay or insurance coverage.

C) age and gender.

D) past exercise training.

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Mobilization and Exercise: Testing and Training

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Q1) Positioning patients between treatments can contribute as much to the overall treatment response as the treatment itself because:

A) the patient spends more time in the before-treatment positions than in the within-treatment positions.

B) the patient spends the same amount of time in the between-treatment positions as in the within-treatment positions.

C) the patient spends more time in the within-treatment positions than in the between-treatment positions

D) the patient spends more time in the between-treatment positions than in the within-treatment positions.

Q2) Body positions that simulate the normal physiological effects of gravity and position change on oxygen transport are:

A) the clinical priority.

B) the patient's objective.

C) the principles for prescribing therapeutic body positioning.

D) the specific indications for body positioning.

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Chapter 20: Body Positioning

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Q1) An antidyspnea technique based on quiet expirations in a relaxed state and without use of postural drainage positions is:

A) neurogenic drainage.

B) mechanical drainage.

C) autogenic drainage.

D) passive drainage.

Q2) Efforts aimed at mucus clearance by creating a differential airflow rate led to the development of:

A) low-frequency chest wall moderated system.

B) low-frequency chest wall oscillation system.

C) high-frequency chest wall moderated system.

D) high-frequency chest wall oscillation system.

Q3) What technique is used in patients with endotracheal or tracheostomy tubes?

A) Manual hyperinflation

B) Manual hypoinflation

C) Mechanical hyperinflation

D) Mechanical hypoinflation

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Chapter 21: Airway Clearance Techniques

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Q1) Inhalation of prescribed bronchodilator medications should take placed before:

A) administration of supplemental oxygen to improve alveolar respiration.

B) airway clearance maneuvers to improve secretion removal by opening the airways.

C) determining the patients resting vital signs.

D) after airway clearance maneuvers to maintain open airways.

Q2) Light percussion,_______ and ________ are used in conjunction with postural drainage positioning:

A) vibration, clapping

B) clapping, shaking

C) vibration, shaking

D) soft clapping, shaking

Q3) The aim of loosening retained secretions by the use of percussion is so that:

A) they can be sent to the laboratory for culturing.

B) they may be removed by suctioning or expectoration.

C) they can be picked up and removed by the lymphatic system.

D) they may be redirected through collateral circulation.

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Chapter 22: Facilitating Airway Clearance With Coughing Techniques

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Q1) One of the two assisted cough techniques is:

A) intrathoracic assisted.

B) self-assisted.

C) manually assisted.

D) intraabdominal assisted.

Q2) The most effective assistive-cough technique for the widest cross-section of patients with:

A) musculoskeletal disorders.

B) chest wall muscle weakness.

C) neurologic disorders.

D) cardiovascular disorders.

Q3) If the cough is dry and unproductive,do not encourage frequent coughing.This is especially true for people with:

A) inflammation of the tracheobronchial tree (bronchitis).

B) acute inflammation of the lungs (pneumonia).

C) asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

D) swallowing dysfunction (dysphagia).

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Page 24

Chapter 23: Facilitating Ventilation Patterns and Breathing Strategies

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Q1) The patient's subjective feeling of shortness of breath is known as: A) eupnea.

B) hyperpnea.

C) dyspnea.

D) Cheyne-Stokes respiration.

Q2) Time spent in a horizontal position can be used as an opportunity in: A) retention of lung secretions.

B) active drainage.

C) passive drainage.

D) postural orthostatics.

Q3) Normal breathing,repeated rhythmic inspiratory-expiratory cycles,is known as: A) eupnea.

B) hyperpnea.

C) apnea.

D) Cheyne-Stokes respiration

Q4) The following are all goals of teaching controlled-breathing techniques EXCEPT:

A) to decrease the rate of respiration.

B) to decrease the work of breathing.

C) to assist in relaxation.

D) to improve airway clearance by improving cough.

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Chapter 24: Exercise Testing and Training: Primary

Cardiopulmonary Dysfunction

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Q1) Over the past 20 years,heart transplant had become an accepted therapy for:

A) end-stage heart failure.

B) multivalve failure.

C) conduction blocks.

D) increasing ejection fractions.

Q2) In individuals with severe disease,exercise intolerance may reflect limited _____________ and oxygen extraction caused by the disproportionate demand on the respiratory muscles.

A) peripheral circulation

B) central circulation

C) peripheral profusion

D) central profusion

Q3) Intermittent claudication is the symptom of exercise-induced muscle ischemia of:

A) peripheral venous disease.

B) peripheral arterial disease.

C) central venous disease.

D) central arterial disease.

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Page 26

Chapter 25: Exercise Testing and Training: Secondary

Cardiopulmonary Dysfunction

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Q1) All of the following are effected by poliomyelitis EXCEPT:

A) functional capacity.

B) work capacity.

C) exercise tolerance.

D) cardiovascular risk.

Q2) Limitation of mitochondrial oxidative capacity has been ruled out as a limiter of exercise capacity in patients with which of the following conditions?

A) Connective tissue disorders

B) Chronic renal failure

C) Rheumatoid arthritis

D) Hepatopulmonary

Q3) Knowledge of the cardiovascular and pulmonary consequences of conditions enables the physical therapist to assess oxygen transport status,limitations,and risk factors in these individuals.Furthermore,all of the following are possible with this knowledge EXCEPT:

A) optimize oxygen transport.

B) modify physiologic responses.

C) maximize functional capacity.

D) maintain optimal health.

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Chapter 26: Respiratory Muscle Training

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Q1) People with Parkinson disease can exhibit:

A) musculoskeletal weakness.

B) chronic lung dysfunction.

C) respiratory muscle weakness.

D) chronic respiratory dysfunction.

Q2) About 75% to 80% of patients who are mechanically ventilated can be:

A) expected to have respiratory muscle dysfunction.

B) weaned to breath spontaneously without difficulty.

C) expected to have poorer prognoses.

D) weaned to breath spontaneously but with much difficulty.

Q3) To prevent chest wall and lung recoil pressures from contributing to the pressure generated by the inspiratory muscles,measurements are recorded for:

A) residual capacity (RC).

B) total lung capacity (TLC).

C) inspiratory reserve (IR).

D) functional residual capacity (FRC).

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Chapter 27: Complementary Therapies As

Cardiopulmonary Physical Therapy Interventions

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Q1) _______ is one of the most well-studied mind/body therapies

A) T'ai chi

B) Meditation

C) Chi

D) Yoga

Q2) Complementary therapies are often viewed as:

A) holistic therapies

B) mind/body therapies

C) energy-based therapies

D) all of the above

Q3) Chinese medicine focuses on:

A) enhancing the flow of chi along body pathways or meridians

B) movement awareness techniques

C) acupressure

D) acupuncture

Q4) Individuals with chronic anxiety and depression also exhibit more episodes of:

A) seizures

B) migraine headaches

C) cardiac arrest

D) myocardial ischemia

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Chapter 28: Patient Education

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Q1) When a clinician uses the learning needs assessment survey,it allows for:

A) mistakes to be easily caught.

B) facilitation of optimal learning in a given patient or group.

C) less of a chance for the patient to reinjure themselves.

D) a quicker rehabilitation time.

Q2) _______ can be useful in implementing the behavior approach.

A) Patient education objectives

B) Learning needs assessments

C) Health care contacts

D) Cardiopulmonary patient education

Q3) The social-cognitive theory states that:

A) the overall objective of patient education is to affect a durable cognitive improvement.

B) the most important aspect of planning a patient's education is to first assess the learner.

C) health care contracts can be used to implement the social-cognitive theory.

D) human behavior can be explained using incentives, outcome expectations, and efficacy expectations as key regulators.

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Chapter 29: Individuals With Acute Medical Conditions

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Q1) You are following a 5-year-old girl with cystic fibrosis.She presents with constant mucociliary clearance issues and productive coughing.You decide to implement a home program for postural drainage and percussion but realize that the caregiver has rheumatoid arthritis in her hands and will not be able to provide the necessary treatment.Which of the following options should be used to assist this patient with her secretion clearance at home?

A) Flutter device

B) High-frequency chest wall oscillation

C) Active cycle of breathing

D) All of the above

Q2) All of the following statements about cystic fibrosis are true EXCEPT:

A) cystic fibrosis is only genetic in origin.

B) lung involvement is the only clinical manifestation.

C) cystic fibrosis can result in hyperinflation of the chest.

D) chronic staphylococcal infections accompany cystic fibrosis.

Q3) Which of the following strategies will help a patient during an asthma attack?

A) Attempt to have the patient increase his or her ventilatory rate.

B) Attempt use of a CO rebreathing bag.

C) Increase the patient's activity.

D) Provide environmental stimulation.

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Chapter 30: Individuals With Acute Surgical Conditions

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Q1) Which of the following would promote postoperative complications after thoracic or cardiovascular surgery?

A) Deep breathing

B) Ambulation

C) Reduced arousal

D) Huffing

Q2) All of the following are factors determining surgical response and outcomes EXCEPT:

A) the type of surgery performed.

B) the types of anesthetics and analgesics used.

C) the type and level of respiratory support given.

D) the type of fluids used during surgery.

Q3) All of the following are typical upright exercises that can be used after cardiothoracic surgery EXCEPT:

A) lower extremity cycle pedals.

B) chair exercises with low intensity therabands.

C) chest press at 50% of 1 rep max.

D) all of the above are appropriate upright exercises.

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Chapter 31: Individuals With Chronic Primary

Cardiovascular and Pulmonary

Dysfunction

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26224

Sample Questions

Q1) Valve dysfunction is:

A) congenital or acquired.

B) a consequence of rheumatic fever.

C) caused by calcification of the valves.

D) all of the above.

Q2) The goal of physical therapy with a patient with valve dysfunction is to:

A) optimize oxygen transport.

B) decrease quality of life.

C) increase work of the heart.

D) provide long doses of exercise.

Q3) Which of the following should be monitored when working with a patient with valve disease?

A) Rate pressure product

B) Rate of perceived exertion

C) Blood pressure

D) All of the above

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Chapter 32: Individuals With Chronic Secondary

Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction

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Sample Questions

Q1) You are treating a patient with multiple sclerosis (MS).Your patient presents with poor airway management and increased secretions.Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate treatment intervention to consider?

A) Body positioning and postural drainage

B) Maximal aerobic exercise in a warm environment

C) Regimented intensity and duration of strengthening exercises

D) Incentive spirometry

Q2) Which of the following exercises at target heart rate would be MOST appropriate for aerobic conditioning with a patient with osteoporosis?

A) Weighted plyometrics

B) Biking

C) Swimming

D) Pilates

Q3) In the case of cerebral palsy (CP),which of the following would be the MOST appropriate education to provide parents?

A) The importance of assisting with changes in position

B) The necessity of ambulation at all cost

C) The possibly risks and signs of aspiration

D) a and c

Page 34

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Chapter 33: Comprehensive Management of Individuals in the Intensive Care Unit

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26226

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not a relative contraindication of manual airway clearance interventions?

A) Hemorrhage

B) Acute chest trauma

C) Gastric reflux

D) All of these are relative contraindications

Q2) What might be the cause for apparent impairment of neuromuscular status in a patient in the ICU?

A) Increased cardiac output

B) Increased blood pressure

C) Decreased intracranial pressure

D) Hypercapnia

Q3) Which monitoring system give the therapist information of fluid loading and the ability of the right side of the heart to cope with changes in circulating body fluids?

A) Central venous pressure

B) Swan-Ganz catheter

C) ECG

D) Cardiovascular stress alert

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Chapter 34: Intensive Care Management of Individuals

With Primary Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction

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Sample Questions

Q1) What intervention should the therapist concentrate on during a session of physical therapy with the cardiac patient including a short period of restricted mobility?

A) Aggressive coughing exercises

B) Positioning with the foot of the bed elevated

C) Rhythmic breathing exercises

D) Bed exercises while moving bilateral lower extremities at the same time.

Q2) While treating a patient with obstructive lung disease,what complicating factor(s)might you expect to find?

A) Rigid barrel-shaped chest wall

B) Decreased oxygen consumption

C) Decreased work of the heart

D) Effective cough mechanism

Q3) Which of the following is the primary goal of physical therapy to optimize oxygen transport in a patient with COPD?

A) Improve oxygen tension.

B) Reduce oxygen saturation.

C) Increase carbon dioxide levels.

D) Reduce PaO .

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Chapter 35: Intensive Care Management of Individuals

With Secondary Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction

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Sample Questions

Q1) While treating a patient with head injuries,what is a generally accepted increase in intracranial pressure during treatment provided it returns to normal immediately after the removal of the pressure potentiating stimulus?

A) Up to 55 mm Hg

B) Up to 50 mm Hg

C) Up to 40 mm Hg

D) Up to 30 mm Hg

Q2) Which of the following body positions will reduce respiratory distress to the greatest extent in a patient with neuromuscular dysfunction?

A) Supine in bed with the feet elevated

B) Sitting in bed with the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees

C) Upright and leaning forward

D) Sitting in a chair at the bedside

Q3) While treating an obese patient,which of the following would not be an appropriate intervention?

A) Placing the patient in a prone position

B) Placing the patient in a half prone position

C) Lower extremity exercises

D) Whole-body ROM exercises

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Chapter 36: Intensive Care Management of Medical and Surgical Complications

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a complication from surgery that may arise with a patient in intensive care?

A) Pulmonary dysfunction

B) Cardiac dysrhythmias

C) Metabolic dysfunction

D) Deep vein thrombosis

Q2) A patient with acute lung injury presents with atelectasis and loss of lung compliance because of the impairment of the production of surfactant and pulmonary fluid that covers the alveolar epithelium.Which type(s)of alveolar cell is/are damaged?

A) Type I

B) Type II

C) Types I and II

D) Type III

Q3) What are the clinical features of sepsis?

A) Fever and bradycardia

B) Bradycardia and tachypnea

C) Respiratory alkalemia and fever

D) Bradycardia and respiratory alkalemia

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Chapter 37: Infants and Children With Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Concerns

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)in a preterm infant?

A) Bradycardia

B) Bounding peripheral pulses

C) Poor feeding or poor weight gain

D) Ejection systolic murmur

Q2) Which intervention would be the most appropriate in treating a patient with muscular dystrophy who experiences nocturnal hypoventilation?

A) Vibration of right lower lobe segments

B) Postural drainage before sleep

C) Continuous positive airway pressure

D) Teaching deep breathing, coughing

Q3) Which of the following interventions for infants and children with a tracheostomy who have been intubated for long periods of time vibration of which lung segments?

A) Right lung, upper lobe segments

B) Right lung, lower lobe segments

C) Left lung, upper lobe segments

D) Left lung, lower lobe segments

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Chapter 38: The Aging Patient

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cardiac output is the product what two factors?

A) Heart rate and blood pressure

B) Stroke volume and O blood gas extraction

C) Gas exchange rate and blood pressure

D) Heart rate and stroke volume

Q2) Diastolic changes to the heart that occur with aging include which of the following?

A) Prolonged myocardial relaxation

B) Decreases in filling pressures of older men with increased age

C) Increases in peak left ventricular diastolic filling rate in older men

D) Decreases in ventricular stiffness.

Q3) Which of the following is not a suspected mechanism of VO max reduction?

A) Decrease in maximum heart rate

B) Decrease in cardiac output

C) Decrease in blood pressure

D) Decrease in stroke volume

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Chapter 39: Multisystem Clinical Implications of Impaired

Breathing Mechanics and Postural Control

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not a distinguishing characteristic of types I and II paradoxical breathing?

A) Strong diaphragmatic or upper respiratory muscles contractions

B) Intercostal muscle insufficiency

C) Poor pelvic floor elevation

D) Weakness of the abdominal or diaphragm

Q2) How can the pelvic floor influence one's ability to cough?

A) Increasing positive pressure in the abdomen to produce a more forceful cough

B) Decreasing positive pressure in the abdomen reducing a forceful cough

C) Allowing pressure release of pressure created by the abdomen and thorax

D) All of the above

Q3) Changes to the child's thorax from 3 to 6 months of age include which of the following?

A) A more rectangular shape because of strengthening of the lower abdominals

B) A more rectangular shape because of strengthening of the anterior chest wall and intercostals

C) Development of slight concave configuration to the thorax

D) Breathing maintained in one plane of motion

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Chapter 40: The Transplant Patient

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not a phase of typical transplant rehabilitation?

A) Pretransplant

B) Surgery and postoperative acute rehabilitation

C) Postoperative inpatient rehabilitation

D) Community- and home-based rehabilitation

Q2) What is the cause of the ineffective cough and decrease in ciliary function after a lung transplant?

A) Impaired air flow

B) Hypertension

C) Denervation of the lung tissue

D) Increased cardiac output

Q3) After a heart transplant surgery,what may cause the appearance of two P waves?

A) Two contractions of the ventricles

B) Repolarization of the atria

C) The atrial cuff left from the previous heart

D) The atrial depolarization after the ventricular depolarization

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Chapter 41: The Patient in the Community

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a goal or functional outcomes has been met,it is the responsibility of the physical therapist to do which of the following?

A) Discharge the patient from further care.

B) Reassess the patient's status and set new goals if the patient has the potential for more progress.

C) Encourage the patient to perform exercise on his or her own from this point.

D) Set goals to advance the level of function beyond the prior level of function.

Q2) Why is it important for home health physical therapists to be familiar with acute care conditions?

A) Some patients may be discharged from the hospital directly to their homes.

B) Because of third-party payer cutbacks, patients are now discharged from the acute setting in a more acute stage of their pathology.

C) Patients are more likely to have a relapse in their homes.

D) The therapist is solely responsible for the care of patients after they return home.

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Chapter 42: Body Mechanics: Positioning and Moving Patients

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which position is generally best for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

A) Supine

B) Side-lying

C) Hook-lying

D) Prone

Q2) Which occupations account for more than half of the annual prevalence of low back pain among health care personnel?

A) Physicians and laboratory technicians

B) Anesthesiologists and dentists

C) Nurses and therapists

D) Paramedics and ambulance drivers

Q3) When standing,where is the body's approximate center of gravity?

A) Near 35% of the body's total height from the ground

B) Near 55% of the body's total height from the ground

C) Near the heart

D) Near the diaphragm

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Page 44

Chapter 43: Respiratory Care Practice Review

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which term describes the speed at which a ventilator breath is delivered?

A) Frequency

B) Flow rate

C) Spontaneous breath

D) Trigger

Q2) Which alarm sounds most commonly when a ventilated patient is receiving physical therapy?

A) High-pressure alarm

B) Apnea alarm

C) FiO alarm

D) Volume alarm

Q3) Which device is often used to deliver low-flow oxygen?

A) Oximeter

B) Nasal cannula

C) Arterial line

D) Venturi mask

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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26237

Sample Questions

Q1) Which can help a nurse or therapist determine the amount of secretions present in an artificial airway?

A) Respiratory rate

B) Lung sounds

C) Oxygen saturation

D) All of the above

Q2) Which is needed to reinsert a dislodged outer cannula?

A) Tracheal hook

B) Trousseau dilator

C) Satisfactory tissue retraction

D) All of the above

Q3) How is the size of the suctioning catheter determined?

A) Doubling the size of the tracheostomy tube

B) Tripling the size of the tracheostomy tube

C) Doubling the size of the tracheostomy tube and adding 2

D) Adding 2 to the size of the tracheostomy tube

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Chapter 45: Respiratory and Cardiovascular Drug Actions

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26238

Sample Questions

Q1) Which -adrenergic blocking drug is most useful in men with enlarged prostates?

A) Phentolamine

B) Phenoxybenzamine

C) Prazosin

D) Phenylephrine

Q2) Which device has been developed to promote successful use of metered-dose inhalers?

A) Spacers

B) Powders

C) Liquefiers

D) Humidifiers

Q3) Which is true of receptors in the sympathetic system?

A) Found in arterioles, heart, and bronchioles; stimulation lowers blood pressure

B) Found in arterioles, heart, and bronchioles; stimulation increases blood pressure

C) Found only in arterioles; stimulation lowers blood pressure

D) Found only in arterioles; stimulation increases blood pressure

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