Cardiopulmonary Technology Pre-Test
Questions
Course Introduction
Cardiopulmonary Technology is an interdisciplinary course focused on the principles, diagnostics, and therapeutic techniques involved in supporting and evaluating the respiratory and cardiovascular systems. Students will explore the anatomy and physiology of the heart and lungs, learn diagnostic procedures such as electrocardiography (ECG), pulmonary function testing, and arterial blood gas analysis, and gain hands-on experience with equipment used in monitoring and treating cardiopulmonary disorders. The course emphasizes clinical applications, patient safety, and the integration of emerging technologies to prepare students for roles in healthcare environments specializing in cardiac and respiratory care.
Recommended Textbook Mosbys Respiratory Care Equipment 9th Edition by J. M. Cairo
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1245 Verified Questions
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2
Chapter 1: Basic Physics for the Respiratory Therapist
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Sample Questions
Q1) The boiling point of liquid oxygen is which of the following?
A) -119° C
B) 182° F
C) -183° C
D) 49.7° C
Answer: C
Q2) Atoms and molecules arranged in an orderly fashion are called:
A) Solids
B) Mixtures
C) Crystalline
D) Amorphous
Answer: C
Q3) The partial pressure of nitrogen at 1 atm is _____ mm Hg.
A) 661.2
B) 592.8
C) 159.6
D) 0.228
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Principles of Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a common pathogen that could cause a disruption of normal flora in a patient receiving antibiotic therapy?
A) Clostridium difficile
B) Pneumocystis carinii
C) Enterobacteriaceae spp.
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Answer: A
Q2) Commercial-grade hydrogen peroxide is an effective disinfectant at room temperature after how many minutes?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 30
D) 60
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following viruses will cause bronchiolitis?
A) Influenza
B) Rhinovirus
C) Herpes zoster
D) Respiratory syncytial
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Manufacture, Storage, and Transport of Medical Gases
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101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statement(s)is (are)true about cylinder valves?
1)Diaphragm valves can withstand pressure greater than 1500 psig.
2)Direct-acting valves are used for pressure less than 1500 psig.
3)Diaphragm valves should be used with flammable gases.
4)Leakage cannot occur with direct-acting valves.
A) 3
B) 1
C) 2 and 3
D) 1 and 4
Answer: A
Q2) The E cylinder on a crash cart contains 900 psig.How long would the cylinder last if used at 10 L/min?
A) 1 hour
B) 25 minutes
C) 3 hours 36 minutes
D) 4 hours 42 minutes
Answer: B
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Chapter
Flowmeters, and
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Sample Questions
Q1) An oxygen _____ compresses air and oxygen from a high-pressure source into a chamber where the pressure of the two gases is equalized,usually at 50 psi.
A) blender
B) tent
C) hood
D) delivery devices
Q2) The problem most often encountered with a Thorpe tube flowmeter is:
A) patient outlet becomes occluded.
B) gas leaks caused by faulty valve seats.
C) a cracked tube.
D) prolonged heat exposure.
Q3) What liter flow is approximately 32% on a nasal cannula?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
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Chapter 5: Airway Management Devices and Advanced
Cardiac Life Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inability to maintain an adequate mask seal during manual ventilation will cause:
A) gastric distention.
B) pressures to exceed 40 cm H O.
C) lower tidal volumes to be delivered.
D) tidal volumes to exceed 800 mL.
Q2) A non-disposable laryngeal mask airway should be checked for:
A) ability of the cuff to hold water.
B) number of times it was sterilized.
C) discoloration and integrity of the cuff.
D) resilience of the self-inflating foam cuff.
Q3) If breath sounds are not heard over the left lung after intubation,the most likely cause is which of the following?
A) An endotracheal tube that is not inserted far enough
B) Cuff not inflated enough
C) Left mainstem intubation
D) Right mainstem intubation
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Chapter 6: Humidity and Aerosol Therapy
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88 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The relative humidity is 40% and the capacity is 32 mg H O/L.The absolute humidity of this gas is _____ mm Hg.
A) 1.3
B) 12.8
C) 60
D) 128
Q2) Appropriate use of an ultrasonic nebulizer will aid which of the following?
A) Ribavirin delivery
B) Sputum induction
C) Croup tent use
D) Pentamidine aerosolization
Q3) Use of a heat and moisture exchanger is beneficial to a patient with a(n):
A) tracheostomy who is receiving low-flow oxygen.
B) tracheostomy who is receiving room air.
C) open stoma.
D) All of the above.
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Chapter 7: Lung Expansion Therapy Devices
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Sample Questions
Q1) The variable that ends inspiration during intermittent positive-pressure breathing therapy with a Bird Mark 7 is:
A) time.
B) flow.
C) volume.
D) pressure.
Q2) The inspiratory phase on a Puritan Bennett PR-2 will end when which of the following occurs?
A) The clutch plate, diaphragm, and ceramic switch are forced left.
B) Gravity is sufficient to completely close the Bennett valve.
C) The Bennett valve rotates counterclockwise.
D) The set Sensitivity level is reached.
Q3) Which of the following intermittent positive-pressure breathing machines can deliver 100% oxygen?
A) Bird Mark 10
B) Bird Mark 14
C) Puritan Bennett AP-5
D) Puritan Bennett PR-2
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Chapter 8: Assessment of Pulmonary Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Total lung capacity is a result of:
A) vital capacity plus residual volume.
B) inspiratory capacity plus residual volume.
C) inspiratory capacity plus expiratory residual volume.
D) inspiratory reserve volume plus functional residual capacity.
Q2) What is the normal relationship between the partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO )and partial pressure of end-tidal CO (PETCO )?
A) PaCO and PETCO are equal.
B) PaCO is 10 mm Hg more than PETCO .
C) PaCO is 4 to 6 mm Hg less than PETCO .
D) PaCO is 4 to 6 mm Hg more than PETCO .
Q3) Which of the following is a volume-collecting device?
A) Turbine flowmeter
B) Thermal anemometer
C) Dry rolling seal spirometer
D) Pressure pneumotachograph
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Chapter 9: Assessment of Cardiovascular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) When does the atrial kick begin?
A) Just before atrial systole
B) During atrial repolarization
C) During the impulse delay in the atrioventricular node
D) Simultaneously with ventricular excitation
Q2) Which of the following might cause sinus tachycardia?
A) Vomiting
B) Hypothermia
C) Thyrotoxicosis
D) Mediastinal tumors
Q3) During diastasis,which of the following occurs within the ventricles?
A) Pressure increases.
B) Blood enters slowly.
C) Pressure falls dramatically.
D) Blood pushes against the semilunar valves.
Q4) The QRS complex represents which of the following?
A) Atrial depolarization
B) Ventricular depolarization
C) Ventricular repolarization
D) Threshold potential
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Chapter 10: Blood Gas Monitoring
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements are true concerning in vivo arterial blood gas analyzers?
A) They incorporate a polarographic electrode.
B) The operating principle is light transmission.
C) Temperature correction is unnecessary.
D) They are more accurate than in vitro blood gas analyzers.
Q2) Respiratory alkalosis may be caused by which of the following?
A) Vomiting
B) Salicylate overdose
C) Hyperventilation
D) Pneumothorax
Q3) Which of the following is the correct interpretation of the following arterial blood gas results taken from a patient receiving no supplemental oxygen: pH = 7.37; PaCO = 55 mm Hg; PaO = 53 mm Hg; SaO = 88%; and HCO - = 31 mEq/L?
A) Compensated metabolic alkalosis with mild hypoxemia
B) Compensated respiratory acidosis with moderate hypoxemia
C) Partially compensated respiratory acidosis with mild hypoxemia
D) Partially compensated respiratory acidosis with severe hypoxemia
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Chapter 11: Sleep Diagnostics
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37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which oxygen desaturation level is generally considered abnormal in children?
A) <98%
B) <95%
C) <92%
D) <90%
Q2) During polysomnography,the patient has 15 periods of apnea and 10 episodes of hypopnea during 6 hours of sleep.What is their apnea hypopnea index?
A) 2.5
B) 3.5
C) 4.2
D) 5.6
Q3) Slow,rolling,pendulous movement of the eyes is present during which of the following sleep stages?
A) Stage 1 sleep
B) Stage 2 sleep
C) Stages 3 and 4 sleep
D) Rem sleep
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13
Chapter 12: Introduction to Ventilators
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Sample Questions
Q1) The transairway pressure represents the pressure associated with which of the following?
A) Elastic recoil
B) Airflow resistance
C) Tubing compressibility
D) End-expiratory pressure
Q2) The Downs continuous positive airway pressure system uses which of the following to establish positive airway pressure?
A) Weighted ball
B) Magnetic valve
C) Spring-loaded valve
D) Opposing gas flow
Q3) On a mechanical ventilator,pressure triggering is usually set within which of the following ranges?
A) -0.5 to -1.5 cm H O
B) -2.0 to 0.5 cm H O
C) 0.5 to 2.0 cm H O
D) 1.0 to 3.0 cm H O
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14
Chapter 13: Mechanical Ventilators: General-Use Devices
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Sample Questions
Q1) When proportional assist ventilation is used on the Covidien PB 840,what percentage of support is available?
A) 0 to 50%
B) 5% to 60%
C) 10% to 70%
D) 10% to 80%
Q2) What respiratory rate is available on the GE Carestation?
A) 1 to 100 breaths/min
B) 1 to 120 breaths/min
C) 1 to 150 breaths/min
D) 1 to 200 breaths/min
Q3) What positive end-expiratory pressure levels are available on the Dräger V500?
A) 0 to 30 cm H O
B) 0 to 40 cm H O
C) 0 to 50 cm H O
D) 0 to 60 cm H O
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Chapter 14: Infant and Pediatric Devices
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements concerning the CareFusion 3100A and 3100B is true?
A) There is a mean pressure limit control on both models.
B) Piston centering is automatically performed by electronic sensors.
C) The high mean airway pressure alarm is the same on both models.
D) The inspiratory time control limits have been expanded on the 3100B.
Q2) Which alarms remain audible in the standby mode on the CareFusion AirLife Nasal CPAP System Driver?
1)Low flow
2)Disconnect
3)High pressure
4)Low oxygen pressure
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 4
D) 3 and 4
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16
Chapter 15: Transport, Home Care, and Noninvasive
Ventilatory Devices
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following modes of ventilation on the Respironics V-60 delivers a pressure that relates to the patient's inspiratory effort?
A) Proportional pressure ventilation
B) Average volume-assured pressure support
C) Pressure-controlled ventilation
D) Continuous positive airway pressure
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning the Newport HT50 ventilator is true?
A) It requires both an oxygen and an air source to operate properly.
B) It can be used to ventilate patients who weigh more than 5 kg.
C) The internal battery can sustain ventilator operation for 10 hours.
D) The "battery empty" message is activated when there are less than 15 minutes left.
Q3) What is the trigger variable for the Respironics BiPAP Focus?
A) Time
B) Flow
C) Volume
D) Pressure
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