Cardiopulmonary Science
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Cardiopulmonary Science is an interdisciplinary course that explores the anatomical, physiological, and pathological aspects of the heart and lungs, focusing on their critical roles in maintaining homeostasis and supporting life. Students will examine key concepts such as gas exchange, circulatory and respiratory mechanics, cellular metabolism, and disease processes affecting cardiopulmonary function. The course integrates foundational knowledge with practical applications, including diagnostic techniques, patient assessment, and contemporary therapies in respiratory care and cardiovascular technology, preparing students for advanced study or clinical practice in healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Egans Fundamentals of Respiratory Care 11th Edition by Robert M. Kacmarek
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56 Chapters
3426 Verified Questions
3426 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: History of Respiratory Care
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which two names are linked to the development of the iron lung, which was extensively used to treat the polio epidemic in the 1950s?
A) Allison and Smyth
B) Drinker and Emerson
C) Drager and Bennett
D) Byrd and Tyler
Answer: B
Q2) Due to the aging of the majority of the population, which of the following will be the focus of the Respiratory Therapist of the future?
1) Verifying insurance information
2) Disease management and rehabilitation
3) Patient and family education
4) Tobacco education and smoking cessation
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)2, 3, and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Delivering Evidence-Based Respiratory Care
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) HIPAA was established in 1996 to set standards related to sharing confidential health history information about patients. What does the letter "P" stand for?
A) Privacy
B) Portability
C) Patient
D) Protection
Answer: B
Q2) What is a cohort study?
A) Comparing the clinical outcomes from two different groups
B) Single patient study
C) A literature-based review
D) Collection of patients with similar clinical situations
Answer: A
Q3) What is one advantage that has been shown of respiratory care protocols?
A) Increase in the number of procedures performed by respiratory care providers
B) Decrease in the overordering of respiratory care services
C) Decrease in the cost savings to respiratory care departments
D) Decrease in the cost of performing each respiratory care procedure
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Quality, Patient Safety, and Communication, and Recordkeeping
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49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following techniques can be used to improve one's listening skills?
1) Resist distractions.
2) Maintain composure and control emotions.
3) Keep an open mind (be objective).
4) Judge the sender's delivery, not the content.
A)2 and 3 only
B)2 and 4 only
C)1, 2, and 3 only
D)3 and 4 only
Answer: C
Q2) High amperage (6 A or more) applied externally to the skin can cause which of the following?
1) Sustained myocardial contraction
2) Respiratory paralysis
3) Skin burns
A)1 and 2 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)1, 2, and 3
D)1 and 3 only
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Principles of Infection Prevention and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organisms has/have been associated with health care-associated infections in patients using a poorly disinfected bronchoscope?
1) M. tuberculosis
2) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
3) Klebsiella
A)1 and 3 only
B)2 and 3only
C)2 only
D)1, 2, and 3
Q2) Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the use of disposable respiratory care equipment?
1) Recent research supports their use as a cost-effective measure.
2) Many quality issues exist.
3) Reusing the equipment is often done.
A)1 and 3 only
B)2 and 3only
C)2 only
D)1, 2, and 3
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6
Chapter 5: Ethical and Legal Implications of Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for a civil wrong committed against an individual or property, for which a court provides a remedy in the form of damages?
A) Tort
B) Misdemeanor
C) Felony
D) Litigation
Q2) A respiratory therapist who engages in a questionable business practice is committing what type of malpractice?
A) Civil
B) Statutory
C) Criminal
D) Ethical
Q3) Which of the following has played a minor role in increasing the cost of health care?
A) Beneficence
B) Compensatory justice
C) Distributive justice
D) Role fidelity
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Chapter 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the pattern of flow in which a fluid moves in discrete cylindrical streamlines?
A) Transitional
B) Turbulent
C) Laminar
D) Tracheal
Q2) The peak pressure on a ventilator reads 40 cm H<sub>2</sub>O. What is the equivalent pressure in mm Hg?
A) 37.0 mm Hg
B) 29.6 mm Hg
C) 68.3 mm Hg
D) 4.9 mm Hg
Q3) Archimedes' principle is applied clinically in which of the following devices?
A) Nebulizer
B) Capillary tube
C) Hydrometer
D) Humidifier
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Chapter 7: E-Medicine in Respiratory Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is/are step(s) to help prevent computer infiltration by malicious software?
1) Users should never share or use their password on public unsecured devices.
2) Users should install a virus scanning program and regularly update it.
3) Users should refrain from updating their computers with security patches.
4) Users should be careful when opening e-mail file attachments and refrain from downloading applications from unknown sources.
A)1 only
B)1 and 2 only
C)1, 2, and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) Which of the following is included in the purposes of Telemedicine?
A) e-mailing test results to patients.
B) Support health care at a geographically different location from the patient to increase access to specialty care.
C) Allow access to patient's family members remotely.
D) Acquire patient assessment information in order to skip a patient home care visit.
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Chapter 8: Fundamentals of Respiratory Care Research
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the three basic missions of academic medicine?
A) To research, to discover, and to publish
B) To research, to discover, and to cure disease
C) To heal, to teach, and to discover
D) To teach, to research, and to cure
Q2) In what section of a paper are you likely to find the definitions of the general concepts discussed?
A) Introduction
B) Discussion
C) Methods
D) Results
Q3) What is the name of the search engine sponsored by the National Library of Medicine for information on health care?
A) PubMed
B) HotMed
C) Up-to-date-Med
D) NationalMedline
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10
Chapter 9: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What can the release of histamine and other chemical mediators from the mast cells in the airways cause?
1) Bronchoconstriction
2) Bronchodilation
3) Vasoconstriction
4) Vasodilation
A)2 and 4 only
B)1 and 3 only
C)2 and 3 only
D)1 and 4 only
Q2) The nerves that innervate the diaphragm arise from which area?
A) Lumbar region of the spine
B) Sacral vertebrae 4 and 5
C) Spinal plexuses at T2 to T11
D) Spinal nerves C3 to C5
Q3) During which phase of fetal development do mature alveoli appear?
A) Alveolar
B) Canalicular
C) Pseudoglandular
D) Saccular
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Chapter 10: The Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Toward the end of systole, as repolarization starts (indicated by the T wave), the ventricles begin to relax. Which of the following will occur next?
A) Rapid rise in ventricular pressures.
B) Arterial pressures exceed ventricular pressures.
C) Closure of the atrioventricular valves.
D) Opening of semilunar valves.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) is equal to systemic resistance.
B) Pulmonary vasculature is a high-pressure, high-resistance circulation.
C) Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is less than PVR.
D) SVR is normally approximately 10 times higher than PVR.
Q3) Which of the following formulas is used to calculate the total amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute, or cardiac output?
A) Blood pressure \(\times\) SV
B) Rate \(\times\) SV
C) SV ÷ rate
D) SV \(\times\) vascular resistance
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can the body effectively compensate for an increased V<sub>Dphy</sub>?
A) Decreased drive to breath
B) Decreased respiratory rate
C) Increased respiratory rate
D) Increased tidal volume
Q2) Which of the following pressure gradients is responsible for the actual flow of gas into and out of the lungs during breathing?
A) Transcanadian pressure gradient (P<sub>pc</sub> - P<sub>ks</sub>)
B) Transpulmonary pressure gradient (P<sub>alv</sub> - P<sub>pl</sub>)
C) Transrespiratory pressure gradient (P<sub>alv</sub> - P<sub>ao</sub>)
D) Transthoracic pressure gradient (P<sub>pl</sub> - P<sub>bs</sub>)
Q3) In healthy individuals, what may lead to airway collapse?
A) Increased lung recoil
B) Significantly decreased surfactant
C) Maximal inspiration to TLC
D) Forced exhalation to RV
Q4) How is airway resistance (R<sub>aw</sub>) computed?
A) Change in pressure/change in volume
B) Change in pressure/flow
C) Change in volume/change in pressure
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Chapter 12: Gas Exchange and Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a whole-body O<sub>2</sub> consumption of 320 ml/min and a measured CaO<sub>2</sub> - CO<sub>2 </sub>of 8 ml/dl. What is the cardiac output?
A) 3.2 L/min
B) 4.0 L/min
C) 5.0 L/min
D) 7.0 L/min
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT true about the effect of / imbalances on O<sub>2</sub> and carbon dioxide exchange?
A) Blood leaving highunits has a high PO<sub>2</sub> and a low PCO<sub>2</sub>.
B) Blood leaving lowunits has a low PO<sub>2</sub> and a high PCO<sub>2</sub>.
C) Highunits can compensate for high PCO<sub>2 </sub>levels from lowunits.
D) Highunits can compensate for low PO<sub>2 </sub>levels from lowunits.
Q3) In which of the following conditions will erythrocyte concentration of 2,3-DPG be decreased?
A) Anemia
B) Banked blood
C) High pH
D) Hypoxemia
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14
Chapter 13: Solutions, Body Fluids, and Electrolytes
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Sample Questions
Q1) By what process is water replenished?
1) Absorption
2) Ingestion
3) Metabolism
A)1 and 2 only
B)1 and 3 only
C)2 and 3 only
D)1, 2, and 3
Q2) What are normal values for serum Mg<sup>2+</sup>?
A) 1.3 to 2.1 mEq/L
B) 3.5 to 4.8 mEq/L
C) 9.0 to 10.5 mEq/L
D) 98.0 to 105.0 mEq/L
Q3) What is the most prominent anion in the body?
A) Chloride
B) Bicarbonate
C) Phosphate
D) Sulfate
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15
Chapter 14: Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a volatile acid of physiologic significance?
A) Hydrochloric
B) Carbonic
C) Phosphoric
D) Lactic
Q2) When does a state of alkalemia exist?
1) The HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>/CO<sub>2</sub> ratio exceeds 20:1.
2) The blood pH exceeds 7.45.
3) The blood PCO<sub>2</sub> exceeds 54 mm Hg.
A)2 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3
C)3 only
D)1 and 2 only
Q3) The numerator of the Henderson-Hasselbalch (H-H) equation (HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>) relates to which of the following?
A) Blood concentration of nonbicarbonate buffers
B) Excretion of volatile acid by the lungs
C) Renal buffering and excretion of fixed acids
D) Respiratory component of acid-base balance
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Regulation of Breathing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adjustment of respiratory muscle contractions to accommodate varying loads is regulated by which of the following?
A) Medullary respiratory centers
B) Muscle spindle fiber feedback
C) Pontine apneustic center
D) Pontine pneumotaxic center
Q2) Which of the following is indirectly responsible for minute-to-minute control of breathing?
A) CO<sub>2</sub> levels
B) HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>levels
C) Lactate levels
D) Oxygen (O<sub>2</sub>) levels
Q3) What receptors are associated with causing coughing, sneezing, and tachypnea when stimulated?
A) Irritant receptors
B) J receptors
C) Muscle spindles
D) Peripheral proprioceptors
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17
Chapter 16: Bedside Assessment of the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions would tend to shift the point of maximal impulse (PMI) farther to the left?
1) Pulmonary emphysema
2) Collapse of the left lower lobe
3) Collapse of the right lower lobe
4) Right-sided tension pneumothorax
A)1, 2, and 3 only
B)2 and 4 only
C)2, 3, and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) What is the most common cause of jugular venous distention (JVD)?
A) Right-sided heart failure
B) Arterial hypoxemia
C) Tension pneumothorax
D) Acute systemic hypertension
Q3) Which of the following is least likely to cause tachycardia?
A) Fever
B) Severe pain
C) Hypotension
D) Hypothermia
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Chapter 17: Interpreting Clinical and Laboratory Data
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following values represents a normal serum lactate level?
A) 0.7 to 2.1 mEq/L
B) 1.2 to 2.3 mEq/L
C) 1.7 to 2.1 mEq/L
D) 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L
Q2) An RT receives a doctor's order to perform an ABG on a 71-year-old woman. Upon reviewing the patient's chart, the RT notices that the patient has a platelet count of 110 \(\times\) 10<sup>3</sup> mcl. What should the RT do?
1) Perform ABG as normal.
2) Refuse to perform the ABG.
3) After ABG is performed, compress the puncture site for a longer time.
4) Recommend that an ABG should be performed on the patient only when it is absolutely necessary.
A)2 and 4 only
B)1 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)2 only
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Chapter 18: Interpreting the Electrocardiogram
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the width of the normal QRS complex?
A) Not wider than 1 mm
B) Not wider than 3 mm
C) Not wider than 5 mm
D) Not wider than 7 mm
Q2) A patient who has been diagnosed with myocardial infarction is getting an ECG. The ECG trace shows a series of nonconducted P waves followed by a P wave that is conducted to the ventricles. The ratio of nonconducted to conducted P waves is fixed at 4:1. What plan for treatment should this patient receive?
1) Rapid defibrillation
2) Atropine
3) Cardioversion
4) Pacemaker
A)1, 2, and 3 only
B)2 and 4 only
C)3 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) What size needle would you recommend to obtain an ABG sample through percutaneous puncture of an infant?
A) 18 gauge
B) 20 gauge
C) 22 gauge
D) 25 gauge
Q2) Which of the following should be monitored during the sampling of arterial blood?
1) Blood pressure proximal to puncture site
2) Presence of pulsatile blood return
3) Presence of air bubbles or clots in sample
4) Appearance of puncture site
A)1, 2, and 3 only
B)2, 3, and 4 only
C)1, 2, 3, and 4
D)2 and 3 only
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Chapter 20: Pulmonary Function Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) How often should a spirometer in continual use undergo volumetric calibration?
A) Every 4 hr
B) Every shift
C) At least daily
D) Weekly
Q2) What is the ability of a measuring device to consistently provide the same measure of the same quantity?
A) Capacity
B) Accuracy
C) Linearity
D) Precision
Q3) What is the predicted normal forced vital capacity (FVC) for the average 20-year-old man?
A) 4.5 L
B) 5.6 L
C) 6.2 L
D) 7.0 L
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Chapter 21: Review of Thoracic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common cause of lobar atelectasis?
A) Bronchial obstruction
B) Loss of surfactant
C) Viral pneumonia
D) Pleurisy
Q2) CT angiography is most often used to evaluate the patient for which of the following conditions?
A) Pulmonary emboli
B) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
C) Congestive heart failure
D) Bilateral pneumonia
Q3) Which of the following statements is false regarding the use of ultrasound to image the chest?
A) It is useful to image the heart.
B) It is useful to image pleural abnormalities.
C) It is useful to image lung tissue.
D) It uses sound waves that echo back to the sensor.
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Chapter 22: Flexible Bronchoscopy and the Respiratory Therapist
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Sample Questions
Q1) During bronchoscopy of an intubated patient receiving mechanical ventilation, what should the RT be aware of?
A) Risks are minimal since the patient already has a secured airway.
B) The resistance imposed by the bronchoscope may cause tracheal pressures to increase noticeably.
C) Albuterol should be available to address and airway resistance changes.
D) Inspiratory and expiratory effort (measured by tracheal pressure) appears minimally affected in most patients.
Q2) What is the most difficult parameter to monitor during FB?
A) Depth of sedation
B) Airway pressure
C) Chest movement
D) Pulse oximetry
Q3) Hypoxemia during FB on a mechanically ventilated patient is typically due to:
A) inappropriately set alarms.
B) equipment failure.
C) loss of lung volume.
D) bronchospasm.
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Chapter 23: Nutrition Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary purpose of nutrition assessment?
A) To identify how much weight the patient needs to lose
B) To identify the patient's ideal body weight
C) To develop a nutrition care plan
D) To identify the proper caloric intake for the patient
Q2) Which of the following is not associated with magnesium deficiencies?
A) Reduced diaphragm strength
B) Neurologic abnormalities
C) Cardiac abnormalities
D) Liver enlargement
Q3) Which of the following diseases is/are associated with protein-energy malnutrition (PEM)?
1) Asthma
2) Emphysema
3) Cancer
A)1 only
B)1 and 2 only
C)2 and 3 only
D)3 only
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Pulmonary Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are common laboratory findings found in adults with suspected community-acquired pneumonia?
1) Acidemia
2) Proteinuria
3) Azotemia
4) Hyponatremia
A)1, 2, and 3 only
B)2 and 4 only
C)1 and 3 only
D)1, 3, and 4 only
Q2) Which of the following types of pneumonia suggests that the patient acquired it through inhalation of infectious particles?
A) Cytomegalovirus
B) Haemophilus influenzae
C) Histoplasmosis
D) Staphylococcus
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Chapter 25: Obstructive Lung Disease: Chronic Obstructive
Pulmonary Disease Copd, Asthma, and Related Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an acute exacerbation of COPD, what is the role of IV methylprednisolone?
A) It accelerates recovery as noted in FEV<sub>1</sub>.
B) It causes pulmonary edema due to retention of water.
C) It causes severe immunosuppression and worsens outcomes.
D) It has been shown to have no effect.
Q2) What is the critical alpha<sub>1</sub>-antitrypsin level below which lung elastin is attacked and broken down?
A) 57 mg/dl
B) 84 mg/dl
C) 100 mg/dl
D) 150 mg/dl
Q3) What medical problems are suggested by Mr. Jones' medical history?
A) Chronic bronchitis
B) Emphysema
C) Occupational asthma
D) Obstructive bronchiectasis
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Chapter 26: Interstitial Lung Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with which of the following diseases will have the longest life expectancy?
A) Alveolar proteinosis
B) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
C) Nonspecific interstitial pneumonitis
D) Sarcoidosis
Q2) In interstitial lung disease, which of the following mechanisms contributes to impaired gas exchange?
1) Depression of respiratory drive
2) Diffusion defect
3) Shunt
4) Ventilation/perfusion mismatch
A)1 and 4 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)2, 3, and 4 only
D)1, 2, and 4
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28
Chapter 27: Pleural Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary tool used to diagnose a pneumothorax?
A) Chest radiography
B) Computed tomography
C) PET scan
D) scanning
Q2) What size of chest tube would you use in the management of trauma-related pneumothoraces?
A) Large
B) Medium
C) Small
D) Size is immaterial
Q3) What diagnostic procedure or technique is most sensitive for the identification of pleural effusion?
A) Chest radiography
B) Computed tomography
C) Pleurodesis
D) Thoracoscopy
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Chapter 28: Pulmonary Vascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most important factor contributing to the onset of pulmonary hypertension in the patient with COPD?
A) Alveolar hypoxia
B) Compression of pulmonary vasculature
C) Left ventricular failure
D) Loss of vascular surface
Q2) Where in the lung is pulmonary embolism most frequently observed?
A) Right lower lobe
B) Lingula
C) Left lower lobe
D) Right middle lobe
Q3) Which of the diagnostic tests for pulmonary embolism is likely the safest and the most consistently accurate?
A) Impedance plethysmography
B) MRI
C) Pulmonary angiogram
D) Helical CTA
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Chapter 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) In most ARDS patients, PEEP levels below __________ are generally preferred.
A) 10 cm H<sub>2</sub>O
B) 15 cm H<sub>2</sub>O
C) 20 cm H<sub>2</sub>O
D) 25 cm H<sub>2</sub>O
Q2) Using which of the following medications carries the greatest risk of persistent memory and cognition problems in the survivors of ARDS?
A) Benzodiazepines
B) Beta-2 agonists
C) Exogenous surfactants
D) Corticosteroids
Q3) How does the Berlin Criteria define the "mild" category of ARDS?
A) P/F ratio = 300 to 400
B) P/F ratio = 201 to 300
C) P/F = 101 to 200
D) P/F ?4= 100
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Chapter 30: Trauma, Burns and Near Drowning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following decreases as body mass index increases?
1) Airway resistance
2) Functional residual capacity
3) Forced vital capacity
4) Forced expiratory volume in 1 second
A)2 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
Q2) Which of the following are early clinical features of carbon monoxide poisoning?
1) Anxiety
2) Bradycardia
3) Headache
4) Confusion
A)1 and 3 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)1, 3, and 4 only
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Chapter 31: Lung Cancer
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28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is typically not associated with local tumor growth in the central airways?
A) Large airway obstruction
B) Cough
C) Hemoptysis
D) Fine crackles
Q2) Other causes of lung cancer include:
1) asbestos.
2) arsenic.
3) chromium.
4) microwave radiation.
A)2, 3, and 4 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)1 and 4 only
D)1, 2, and 3 only
Q3) Squamous cell carcinoma is composed of which of the following?
A) Glandular structures from lung scars
B) Common pulmonary stem cells
C) Flattened stratified epithelial cells
D) Multicentric stratified cells
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Chapter 32: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest Wall
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what group of patients is myasthenia gravis most common?
A) Older males
B) Younger males
C) Younger females
D) Older females
Q2) Which of the following is a clinical condition that typically does not precipitate rapid respiratory failure in patients with significant neuromuscular weakness?
A) Pulmonary edema
B) Pneumonia
C) Mucous plugging
D) Lung cancer
Q3) Which of the following is not a pulmonary complication frequently associated with flail chest?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Hemothorax
C) Pulmonary contusion
D) Aspiration pneumonia
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Disorders of Sleep
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following factors has been shown to positively correlate with obstructive sleep apnea?
A) Age
B) Height
C) Obesity of the upper body
D) Blood pressure at rest
Q2) Which of the following parameters is not typically monitored with a polysomnogram?
A) SaO<sub>2</sub>
B) Electroencephalogram (EEG)
C) Breathing effort
D) Exhaled PCO<sub>2</sub>
Q3) Which of the following complaints is frequently seen in a patient with obstructive sleep apnea?
A) Dizziness
B) Chest pain
C) Shortness of breath with exertion
D) Excessive daytime sleepiness
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Chapter 34: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75408
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following clinical findings is not typically seen in patients with epiglottitis?
A) High fever
B) Stridor
C) Barking cough
D) Drooling
Q2) Which of the following maternal characteristics are associated with an increased frequency of SIDS?
1) Younger than 20 years
2) Low socioeconomic status
3) Cigarette smoking
4) History of asthma
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
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Chapter 35: Airway Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about the use of ribavirin?
1) It is used as an antiviral agent against respiratory syncytial virus.
2) It is delivered via a Respirgard unit.
3) Adverse effects include skin rash, conjunctivitis, and eyelid erythema.
4) It can occlude endotracheal tube and ventilator exhalation valves.
A)1 and 2 only
B)3 and 4 only
C)1, 3, and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) Pentamidine is indicated for the treatment of which of the following diseases?
A) Pneumocystis jiroveci
B) Tuberculosis
C) HIV infection
D) Pneumococcal pneumonia
Q3) What is the name of the enzyme responsible for the short duration of action of catecholamine bronchodilators?
A) Catechol O-methyltransferase (COMT)
B) Epinephrine dismutase
C) EDTA
D) Hyaluronidase
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Chapter 36: Airway Management
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117 Verified Questions
117 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While checking a crash cart for intubation equipment, you find the following: suction equipment, oxygen apparatus, two laryngoscopes and assorted blades, five tubes, Magill forceps, tape, lubricating gel, and local anesthetic. What is missing?
1) Obturator
2) Syringe(s)
3) Resuscitator bag and mask
4) Tube stylet
A)1, 2, and 3 only
B)2 and 4 only
C)2, 3, and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) You are about to suction a 10-year-old patient who has a 6-mm (internal diameter) endotracheal tube in place. What is the maximum size of catheter that you would use in this case?
A) 6 Fr
B) 8 Fr
C) 10 Fr
D) 14 Fr
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Chapter 37: Emergency Cardiovascular Life Support
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) After successful resuscitation, the heart rate of neonate being ventilated with 100% O<sub>2</sub> drops to 50/min. What should you do now?
A) Assess the infant's peripheral pulses.
B) Begin external chest compressions at 100 or more per minute.
C) Continue to observe the infant for signs of shock.
D) Begin external chest compressions at 50/min.
Q2) For which of the following arrhythmias is an electronic pacemaker indicated?
A) Third-degree heart block
B) Sinus tachycardia
C) First-degree heart block
D) Ventricular fibrillation
Q3) During properly performed external chest compression on children under 8 years old or on large toddlers, how much should the sternum be compressed?
A) 0.5 in
B) 1.0 in
C) 2.0 in
D) 3.0 in
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Chapter 38: Humidity and Bland Aerosol Therapy
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109 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following nebulizers uses a piezoelectric transducer to generate liquid particle aerosols?
A) Hydrodynamic nebulizer
B) Ultrasonic nebulizer
C) Jet nebulizer
D) Centrifugal nebulizer
Q2) How often should heat and moisture exchangers be inspected and replaced?
A) At least every shift
B) When contaminated by secretions
C) At least every day
D) When condensate is visible
Q3) Which of the following factors cause the isothermic saturation boundary (ISB) to shift farther down into the airways?
1) Decreased ambient temperature
2) Increased tidal volume (V<sub>T</sub>)
3) Endotracheal intubation
A)1 and 2 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)1 and 3 only
D)1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 39: Aerosol Drug Therapy
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are true about a solution that is being aerosolized by an ultrasonic nebulizer?
1) The solute concentration decreases.
2) The temperature of the solution increases.
3) The solute concentration increases.
4) The temperature of the solution decreases.
A)1 and 2 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)2 and 4 only
D)3 and 4 only
Q2) What is the best way to confirm that an asthmatic outpatient can properly self-manage a newly prescribed aerosol drug therapy?
A) Have the patient describe the proper procedural steps.
B) Have the patient provide a repeat or return demonstration.
C) Have the patient take a written or oral quiz on technique.
D) Have the patient maintain detailed treatment logs.
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Chapter 40: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can one determine whether a pressure-reducing valve uses multiple stages for pressure reduction?
A) By noting the number of gauges attached to the valve
B) By noting the DISS code
C) By noting the ASSS code
D) By noting the number of pressure relief vents
Q2) According to the U.S. Department of Commerce, a gas cylinder that is color coded blue should contain which of the following?
A) Air
B) He
C) N<sub>2</sub>O
D) O<sub>2</sub>
Q3) What cylinder factor is used to compute the duration of flow for a 244 cu/ft (H/K) O<sub>2</sub> or air cylinder?
A) 0.16
B) 0.28
C) 3.14
D) 2.41
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Chapter 41: Medical Gas Therapy
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93 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions can be treated with hyperbaric oxygen (HBO) therapy?
1) Carbon monoxide poisoning
2) Septic shock
3) Air embolism
4) Clostridial gangrene
A)1 and 2 only
B)1, 3, and 4 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) You are giving a 80% He:20% O<sub>2</sub> mixture to an asthmatic patient through a nonrebreathing mask with a compensated Thorpe tube O<sub>2</sub> flowmeter set at 8 L/min. What is the actual flow being delivered to the patient?
A) 10 L/min
B) 12 L/min
C) 14 L/min
D) 18 L/min
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Chapter 42: Lung Expansion Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the minimum airway pressure at which the esophagus opens, allowing gas to pass directly into the stomach?
A) 25 cm H<sub>2</sub>O
B) 20 cm H<sub>2</sub>O
C) 15 cm H<sub>2</sub>O
D) 10 cm H<sub>2</sub>O
Q2) Persistent breathing at small tidal volumes typically results in which of the following?
A) Reabsorption atelectasis
B) Spontaneous pneumothorax
C) Compression atelectasis
D) Respiratory alkalosis
Q3) Which of the following are potential indications for incentive spirometry?
1) A restrictive disorder such as quadriplegia
2) Abdominal surgery in a COPD patient
3) Presence of pulmonary atelectasis
A)1 and 2 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)1 and 3 only
D)1, 2, and 3
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Airway Clearance Therapy Act
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90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are goals of airway clearance therapy?
1) Help reverse the underlying disease process.
2) Help mobilize retained secretion.
3) Improve pulmonary gas exchange.
4) Reduce the work of breathing.
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
Q2) Which of the following conditions are associated with chronic production of large volumes of sputum?
1) Bronchiectasis
2) Pulmonary fibrosis
3) Cystic fibrosis
4) Chronic bronchitis
A)1, 3, and 4 only
B)2 and 4 only
C)2, 3, and 4 only
D)3 and 4 only
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Chapter 44: Respiratory Failure and the Need for
Ventilatory
Support
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ventilatory support may be indicated when the VC falls below what level?
A) 45 ml/kg
B) 65 ml/kg
C) 10 ml/kg
D) 30 ml/kg
Q2) What is the optimal treatment of intrapulmonary shunt?
A) Increase the FiO<sub>2</sub>.
B) Decrease the FiO<sub>2</sub>.
C) Surgery.
D) Alveolar recruitment.
Q3) Which of the following clinical signs suggest more severe hypoxemia?
A) Tachycardia
B) Cyanosis with polycythemia
C) Central nervous system dysfunction
D) Use of accessory muscles
Q4) What type of disease is associated with perfusion/diffusion impairment?
A) Liver disease
B) Renal disease
C) Neuromuscular disease
D) Vascular disease
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Chapter 45: Mechanical Ventilators
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using pressure as the trigger variable, where do you typically set the trigger level?
A) 0.5 to 1.5 cm H<sub>2</sub>O below the baseline expiratory pressure
B) 0.5 to 1.5 cm H<sub>2</sub>O above the baseline expiratory pressure
C) 2.0 to 3.5 cm H<sub>2</sub>O below the baseline expiratory pressure
D) 2.0 to 3.5 cm H<sub>2</sub>O above the baseline expiratory pressure
Q2) A ventilator's pressure waveform changes when a patient's lung mechanics change, but its volume waveform remains the same. The device does not directly control the delivered volume. What is this ventilator?
A) Volume controller
B) Pressure controller
C) Time controller
D) Flow controller
Q3) A patient is receiving continuous mandatory ventilation in the control mode at a rate of 15/min. The inspiratory time is 0.8 sec. What is the expiratory time?
A) 3.2 sec
B) 2.8 sec
C) 2.4 sec
D) 4.2 sec
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Physiology of Ventilatory Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) When bedside work of breathing measures are unavailable, you should adjust the level of pressure-supported ventilation (PSV) to which of the following breathing patterns? Spontaneous Rate V<sub>T</sub>
A) 20 breaths/min 6 ml/kg
B) 27 breaths/min 9 ml/kg
C) 22 breaths/min 4 ml/kg
D) 10 breaths/min 9 ml/kg
Q2) During pressure-targeted modes of ventilatory support, the volume delivered depends on which of the following?
1) Set pressure limit
2) Patient lung mechanics
3) Patient effort
A)1 and 2 only
B)1 and 3 only
C)2 and 3 only
D)1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 47: Patient Ventilator Interaction
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which mode does cycle asynchrony most commonly occur?
A) Volume ventilation.
B) Pressure ventilation.
C) CPAP.
D) No mode is more susceptible.
Q2) Which of the following is considered a patient-related cause of poor patient-ventilator interaction?
A) Abnormal respiratory drive
B) Asynchrony
C) Inadequate ventilatory support
D) Inadequate FiO<sub>2</sub>
Q3) Your patient has relatively normal lungs and is receiving mechanical ventilation following surgery. You observe double triggering. What is the most likely cause?
A) The termination criteria is set too low.
B) The flow rate is too slow.
C) Auto-PEEP.
D) The inspiratory time is too short.
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Chapter 48: Initiating and Adjusting Invasive Ventilatory Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would you assess immediately after a patient is placed on a ventilatory support device?
1) ABGs
2) Patient's airway
3) Patient's vital signs
A)1 and 2 only
B)1 and 3 only
C)2 and 3 only
D)1, 2, and 3
Q2) Your patient develops a fever while being mechanically ventilated in the control mode. As a result of the fever, the patient's CO<sub>2</sub> production increases while alveolar ventilation is unchanged. What is the probable change in ABGs?
A) Increase in PaCO<sub>2</sub>
B) Decrease in PaO<sub>2</sub>
C) Decrease in PaCO<sub>2</sub>
D) All of the above
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Chapter 49: Noninvasive Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following interfaces should be used in greater than 90% of the patients with hypoventilation?
A) Full-face mask
B) Nasal mask
C) Nasal pillows
D) Oral mask
Q2) Why did the use of intermittent positive-pressure breathing decline in the 1980s?
A) Due to a lack of scientific evidence to support its use for delivering aerosolized medication
B) Due to its cost of implementation
C) Due to its complexity
D) Replaced by newer technology
Q3) What complication associated with noninvasive ventilation (NIV) is most common?
A) Aspiration
B) Hypotension
C) Nasal congestion
D) Air leaks
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Chapter 50: Extracorporeal Life Support Ecls
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a major advantage of ECMO?
A) Mortality rate is much lower than conventional ventilation.
B) The need for hemodynamic monitoring is reduced.
C) It can be used on premature infants less than 28 weeks.
D) The potential of ventilator induced lung injury is reduced.
Q2) Which of the following are common indications for ECMO?
1) Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN)
2) Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
3) Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS)
4) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH)
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
Q3) During ECMO what is the primary test for anticoagulation measurement at the bedside?
A) ACT
B) PT
C) PTT
D) INR
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Chapter 51: Monitoring the Patient in the Intensive Care Unit
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are reasons monitoring is needed?
1) Continuous assessment
2) Analysis of vital signs
3) Measurement of values that caregivers cannot detect
A)1 only
B)1 and 2 only
C)1 and 3 only
D)1, 2, and 3
Q2) Which of the following physical findings is not consistent with starvation?
A) Temporal muscle wasting
B) Sunken supraclavicular fossae
C) Decreased adipose stores
D) Less than 50 ml/day
Q3) Which of the following is the R<sub>aw</sub> of intubated patients receiving ventilatory support?
A) 1 to 2 cm H<sub>2</sub>O/L/sec
B) 3 to 5 cm H<sub>2</sub>O/L/sec
C) 5 to 10 cm H<sub>2</sub>O/L/sec
D) 10 to 20 cm H<sub>2</sub>O/L/sec
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Discontinuing Ventilatory Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has an adequate ventilatory reserve if which of the following is true?
A) Ability to double the resting minute ventilation
B) Normal PaCO<sub>2</sub> and minute ventilation less than 10 L/min
C) MIP = -55 cm H<sub>2</sub>O
D) V<sub>D</sub>/V<sub>T</sub> less than 0.4
Q2) Above what pressure-time index (PTI) will most patients be unable to sustain spontaneous breathing?
A) 0.03
B) 0.05
C) 0.10
D) 0.15
Q3) While monitoring a patient during a T tube weaning trial, you notice the following: increased patient agitation; increased heart rate (from 90 to 118/min); increased respiratory rate (from 17 to 33/min with some paradoxical motion); and premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) increasing to an average of 5/min. Which of the following actions would be appropriate at this time?
A) Reconnect the patient to the ventilator with prior settings.
B) Encourage the patient to relax, and continue careful monitoring.
C) Request that the patient be given a stat (immediate) bolus of lidocaine.
D) Request that the patient be given a strong sedative or hypnotic.
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Chapter 53: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care
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34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75427
Sample Questions
Q1) What physiologic effect does inhaled nitric oxide have on the lung?
A) Pulmonary vasoconstriction
B) Pulmonary vasodilation
C) Smooth muscle dilation
D) Improved mucociliary clearance
Q2) Signs of infant respiratory distress that indicate a potential need for continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) include which of the following?
1) Cyanosis
2) Radiograph indicating hyaline membrane disease or respiratory distress syndrome
3) Grunting
4) Severe retractions
A)3 and 4 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)2 and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
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55
Chapter 54: Patient Education and Health Promotion
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75428
Sample Questions
Q1) When instructing children on asthma management, which factors should be considered in teaching children versus adults on such a topic?
1) Motivated by external factors
2) Directed by others
3) Limited experience
4) Learn slowly
A)1 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)1, 2, and 3 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) Which of the following may be necessary with children before learning can take place?
A) Television shows
B) Patience
C) Games
D) Reward system
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Chapter 55: Cardiopulmonary Rehabilitation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under which of the following conditions would you recommend ending a cardiopulmonary exercise evaluation?
1) Electrocardiogram indicating sinus tachycardia
2) 10% fall from baseline oxyhemoglobin (HbO<sub>2</sub>) saturation
3) Fall in systolic blood pressure of more than 20 mm Hg
4) Request from the patient to terminate the test
A)2, 3, and 4 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)1, 2, 3, and 4
D)1, 2, and 4 only
Q2) A patient in your pulmonary rehabilitation program has an orthopedic disability that precludes her from walking or using a stationary bicycle. Which of the following activities would you recommend to help recondition the lower extremities?
A) Use of a rowing machine
B) Calisthenic exercises
C) Aquatic exercises
D) Use of a treadmill
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Chapter 56: Respiratory Care in Alternative Settings
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Sample Questions
Q1) What electrically powered device can separate the O<sub>2</sub> in room air from N<sub>2</sub>, thereby providing an enriched flow of O<sub>2</sub> for therapeutic use?
A) O<sub>2</sub> concentrator
B) O<sub>2</sub>-conserving device
C) Joule-Thompson enricher
D) Molecular impactor
Q2) Establishing therapeutic objectives for home care is normally the responsibility of which member of the respiratory home care team?
A) Physical therapist
B) Respiratory care practitioner
C) Nurse
D) Attending physician
Q3) In the early stages after a patient requiring mechanical ventilation is discharged to the home, how often should patient follow-up by a respiratory care practitioner occur?
A) Every week
B) Biweekly
C) Every month
D) Every day
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58