Cardiopulmonary Physiology
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Cardiopulmonary Physiology explores the integrated structure and function of the heart, lungs, and associated vascular and respiratory systems. The course emphasizes the mechanisms underpinning gas exchange, blood flow, and oxygen delivery, with a focus on cellular and molecular processes as well as whole-organism dynamics. Students will examine regulatory pathways, the impact of exercise and disease on cardiopulmonary function, and the interplay between respiratory and circulatory systems in maintaining homeostasis. Understanding these principles equips students for further study in health sciences, clinical medicine, and biomedical research.
Recommended Textbook
Integrated Cardiopulmonary Pharmacology 3rd Edition by Bruce J. Colbert
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Chapter 1: General Pharmacologic Principles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that do not go directly into the systemic circulation after being absorbed and are metabolized through the liver describes a:
A)Steady state.
B)First-pass effect.
C)Therapeutic range.
D)Half-life.
Answer: B
Q2) Patients who are ordered nothing by mouth but are prescribed a medication to be given enterally may be administered the drug _____________.
Answer: rectally
Q3) The most common and convenient route of drug administration is: A)Oral.
B)Inhalation.
C)Sublingual.
D)Transdermal.
Answer: A
Q4) Biotransformation occurs when drugs are converted to a ____________ form for elimination.
Answer: water-soluble
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Chapter 2: The Metric System and Drug Dosage
Calculations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A liquid or solid that is dissolved in a solution is known as a ________________.
Answer: solute
Q2) A rescue dosage of surfactant calls for 3 ml/kg body weight.If a premature infant weighs 1,500 g,how many milliliters are needed?
A)5.0 ml
B)9.0 ml
C)0.45 ml
D)4.5 ml
Answer: D
Q3) What strength of drug would be administered if 6 g of active ingredient is reconstituted with sterile water to a total volume of 300 ml?
A)2% strength
B)0.5% strength
C)20% strength
D)50% strength
Answer: A
Q4) Weight is measured as ____________ or ________________ in the metric system.
Answer: grams or kilograms
4
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Chapter 3: Pharmacology of the Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The CNS is comprised of the ____________ and the ____________.
Answer: brain/spinal cord
Q2) The neurotransmitter in the postsynaptic junction of the parasympathetic nervous system is norepinephrine.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Drugs that antagonize the sympathetic response would be classified as all of the following except:
A)Antiadrenergics.
B)Sympatholytics.
C)Beta blockers.
D)Muscarinics.
Answer: D
Q4) The action of norepinephrine is terminated by a process called ________________.
Answer: reuptake
Q5) The action of the parasympathetic neurotransmitter acetylcholine is terminated by ________________.
Answer: acetylcholinesterase (AChE)
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Chapter 4: Medicated Aerosol Treatments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aerosol penetration is defined as:
A)The removal of the particles from suspension.
B)The depth to which the aerosol particles reach within the lungs.
C)The velocity at which the aerosol particles travel.
D)The ability of an aerosol particle to stay in suspension.
Q2) Adding diluent to a nebulizer along with the medication ________________ the amount of drug that is nebulized.
Q3) Smaller doses of drug administered via the inhalation route are effective because there is no first-pass effect in the GI tract.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Aerosol deposition is defined as:
A)Particles falling out of suspension.
B)The depth to which the aerosol particles reach within the lungs.
C)The velocity at which the aerosol particles travel.
D)The ability of an aerosol particle to stay in suspension.
Q5) Aerosol particles are measured in ________________.
Q6) The category of drugs that desensitize the allergic response and prevents asthma is
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Bronchodilators
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following bronchodilators is intended for long-term maintenance of asthma that does not have a rapid onset?
A)Albuterol
B)Racemic epinephrine
C)Salmeterol
D)Terbutaline
Q2) The advantages of drug administration via the inhalation route include: I.Immediate onset of action at the desired site.
II)Smaller required doses.
III)Increased systemic drug absorption.
A)I and II
B)II and III
C)I and III
D)I only
Q3) How do resorcinols differ from catecholamines?
Q4) Stimulation of beta<sub>2</sub> receptors causes smooth muscle ________________ in the lungs,resulting in ________________.
Q5) Albuterol and levalbuterol are classified as ____________-acting beta-agonists.
Q6) The therapeutic range for theophylline is ____________.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Mucokinetics and Surfactants
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are called to the emergency room to administer a bland aerosol treatment to a patient for sputum induction.Which of the following agents would you select for its effect in producing irritation and cough?
A)Sterile water.
B)Normal saline.
C)Hypertonic saline.
D)Hypotonic saline.
Q2) The most cost-effective and readily available means of maintaining mucokinetics is with which of the following agents?
A)Mucomyst
B)Normal saline
C)Water
D)Sodium bicarbonate
Q3) Patients that would benefit most from aerosolized hypertonic saline solution are those with which of the following?
A)Cystic fibrosis
B)COPD
C)Asthma
D)Heart failure
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Anti-Inflammatory and Antiasthmatic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are asked to recommend treatment for a 16 year old who is seen in a hospital clinic for seasonal allergies and rhinitis.She explains to you that she suffers from scratchy throat,runny nose,cough,and sneezing but denies SOB and wheezing.What combination of drugs would best treat her allergy symptoms?
I)Advair Diskus
II)Flonase
III)Allegra
A)I and II
B)I and III
C)II and III
D)I,II,and III
Q2) The most common side effect of inhaled steroids is:
A)Hypocalcemia.
B)Candidiasis.
C)Hypertension.
D)Hypoglycemia.
Q3) The breakdown of the phospholipid membrane during an inflammatory response produces ________________ acid.
Q4) Explain what occurs in the late-phase response of the inflammatory process.
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Chapter 8: Anti-Infective Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Resistance to anti-infectives can develop from all of the following except:
A)When patients do not finish an anti-infective treatment.
B)When using narrow-spectrum antibiotics.
C)When using broad-spectrum antibiotics.
D)When organisms develop enzymes that bind to a drug and prevent it from attaching to the bacteria.
Q2) How is anti-infective therapy monitored?
Q3) A patient you are caring for in the ICU has been diagnosed with pneumonia caused by Staphylococcus aureus.She was given a course of methicillin but has not shown any clinical or microbiological improvement.The most appropriate drug to treat her condition is:
A)Tobramycin.
B)Vancomycin.
C)Erythromycin.
D)Zithromax.
Q4) Gram-negative infections are generally harder to treat than gram-positive infections.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How do microorganisms develop resistance to anti-infective agents?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Cardiac Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Treatment of acute coronary syndrome with non-ST-segment elevation would involve which of the following medications?
A)Lovastatin
B)Niacin
C)Plavix
D)Zetia
Q2) Beta blockers are prescribed for treatment of heart failure because of their ________________ inotropic effects.
Q3) Digoxin inhibits the sodium/potassium exchange pump in the heart,resulting in increased intracellular ________________ and ________________.
Q4) Which of the following lipid-lowering agents blocks cholesterol biosynthesis?
A)Colestipol
B)Ezetimibe
C)Gemfibrozil
D)Simvastatin
Q5) The most common dysrhythmia in older adults is _______________.
Q6) Administration of a ________________ causes an increase in heart rate.
Q7) ACE inhibitors decrease afterload by inducing ________________.
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Q8) Atrial depolarization is represented on an ECG tracing as a ________________.
Chapter 10: Blood Pressure and Antithrombotic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions causes a decrease in blood pressure?
A)Increased cardiac output
B)Normal heart rate
C)Increased stroke volume
D)Decreased total peripheral resistance
Q2) Patients in _______________ blood pressure should be considered for two-drug combination therapy.
Q3) Which of the following drugs used to treat hypertension is also used to treat nicotine withdrawal?
A)Clonidine
B)Doxazosin
C)Metoprolol
D)Prazosin
Q4) Explain the difference between anticoagulants,antiplatelets,and thrombolytics.
Q5) To make dosage adjustments for heparin,which of the following should be monitored?
A)PTT lab tests
B)Urine output
C)Vitamin K levels
D)INR
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Chapter 11: Neuromuscular, sedative, anesthetic, and Analgesic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe "neuropathic pain" and give an example of the type of patients who may be affected by this type of pain.
Q2) Which of the following anesthetic agents is related to an increased incidence of postoperative nausea and vomiting?
A)Nitrous oxide
B)Lidocaine
C)Propofol
D)Midazolam
Q3) Drugs used in combination to decrease the level of consciousness and produce a retrograde amnesia are referred to as ________________.
Q4) Which of the following is the drug of choice for rapid-sequence intubation and provision of paralysis because of its quick onset and short duration?
A)Pancuronium
B)Succinylcholine
C)Propofol
D)Versed
Q5) Drugs that reduce CNS arousal are classified as ________________.
Page 13
Q6) ________________ can be categorized as sedatives,hypnotics,and anxiolytics.
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Chapter 12: Therapeutic Medical Gases
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Q1) Inhaled nitric oxide is a selective _______________ vasodilator.
Q2) An example of a condition that results in histotoxic hypoxia is:
A)Carbon monoxide poisoning.
B)Hypoventilation.
C)Cyanide poisoning.
D)Hypovolemia.
Q3) The FIO<sub>2 </sub>delivered in _______________ oxygen systems is affected by the patient's rate and depth of breathing.
Q4) ________________ oxygen systems provide enough flow to meet all of the patient's ventilatory demands.
Q5) ________________ refers to low levels of oxygen to the tissue.
Q6) The process of hemoglobin releasing oxygen at the tissue level is referred to as:
A)Ventilation.
B)Respiration.
C)External respiration.
D)Internal respiration.
Q7) Any process that impairs the balance between ventilation reaching the alveolus and perfusion to the surrounding capillary is referred to as ________________.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Pharmacologic Management of Obstructive
Pulmonary Disease: Asthma, chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema
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Q1) An increase in the anterior-posterior diameter of the chest is typically seen only in patients with emphysema.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following drugs used for nicotine addiction does not provide nicotine replacement?
A)Commit lozenge
B)Nicotrol
C)Nicorette
D)Zyban
Q3) A patient with COPD who was admitted to the hospital 2 days ago in acute exacerbation is ordered a pulmonary function test.Upon performing the test,you record his results as an FEV<sub>1</sub>/FVC of 60% and an FEV<sub>1</sub> of 39% of predicted value.This patient is in which of the following stages of COPD?
A)Stage I
B)Stage II
C)Stage III
D)Stage IV
Page 15
Q4) The primary cause of COPD is ________________.
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Chapter 14: Pharmacologic Treatment of Respiratory
Infectious Disease
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Q1) Antibiotics that should be avoided in children are ________________ and ________________.
Q2) The first-line empiric antibiotic choice for treatment of community-acquired pneumonia is penicillin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Empiric treatment refers to the administration of antibiotic therapy after the organism causing infection has been identified.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Antimicrobial regimens for sinusitis should continue _______________days after signs and symptoms improve.
Q5) The preferred pharmacologic treatment for epiglottitis caused by H.influenzae type B is ________________.
Q6) Overuse of antibiotics that leads to an increase in organisms that do not respond to therapy is referred to as ________________.
Q7) Patients who are allergic to penicillin should not be prescribed ________________ antibiotics.
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Chapter 15: Medications for Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tachycardia that originates in the atria or AV node is called a/an
Q2) Patients should be placed in the Trendelenburg position prior to administration of adenosine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a patient experiences a myocardial infarction,irreversible death of myocardial cells has occurred.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A heart rate greater than 130 is usually due to which of the following conditions?
A)Stress
B)Fever
C)Pathologic arrhythmia
D)Hypoxemia
Q5) Pulseless electrical activity is treated pharmacologically with _______________ or _______________.
Q6) What advantage does diltiazem have compared to verapamil?
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