Cardiopulmonary Pharmacology
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Cardiopulmonary Pharmacology explores the pharmacological principles and therapeutic applications of drugs used to treat diseases affecting the heart and lungs. This course covers the mechanisms of action, pharmacokinetics, indications, contraindications, adverse effects, and drug interactions of medications commonly used in managing cardiovascular and pulmonary disorders, such as hypertension, heart failure, arrhythmias, asthma, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based clinical decision making, case-based discussions, and understanding the role of pharmacotherapy in the context of comprehensive patient care for cardiopulmonary conditions.
Recommended Textbook
Integrated Cardiopulmonary Pharmacology 3rd Edition by Bruce J. Colbert
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15 Chapters
833 Verified Questions
833 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: General Pharmacologic Principles
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order for digoxin to be effective,an appropriate amount of the drug must be present in the blood.This blood level is known as the ________________.
Answer: therapeutic range
Q2) Patients who are ordered nothing by mouth but are prescribed a medication to be given enterally may be administered the drug _____________.
Answer: rectally
Q3) To maintain a steady state of drug concentration in the plasma,a drug should be administered by which of the following methods?
A)Intramuscular injection
B)Continuous IV infusion
C)Intravenous bolus
D)Transdermally
Answer: B
Q4) Drugs that are released slowly once administered are referred to as formulations.
Answer: depot
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Chapter 2: The Metric System and Drug Dosage
Calculations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the percentage strength of 20 mg of cromolyn sodium in 2 ml of normal saline?
A)1%
B)2%
C)10%
D)20%
Answer: A
Q2) When a solute is being dissolved in a powder,the solution is termed a volume/volume solution.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The metric system of measurement is based on the __________________. Answer: powers of 10
Q4) Converting a measure from milliliters to liters is accomplished by moving the decimal point three places to the right.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Pharmacology of the Autonomic Nervous System
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Agents that inhibit the enzyme acetylcholinesterase cause which of the following effects on the PNS?
A)Bradycardia and hypotension
B)Overstimulation of the sympathetic branch of the PNS
C)None
D)Bronchodilation
Answer: A
Q2) In a situation of stress,any of the following receptors may be stimulated except:
A)Adrenergic.
B)Muscarinic.
C)Nicotinic.
D)Beta.
Answer: B
Q3) Efferent neurons convey impulses from the brain along motor pathways to smooth muscle and glands.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Medicated Aerosol Treatments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Newer propellants used in MDIs are ________________.
Q2) One factor that determines an aerosol particle's size is the ________________.
Q3) You are called to the ICU to give a stat bronchodilator treatment to a comatose patient.Which of the following devices would be most appropriate for this patient?
A)An MDI with a holding chamber
B)A DPI
C)An SVN with a mask
D)A BAN with a mouthpiece
Q4) If an aerosol particle cannot navigate around a branching of the airway and is deposited onto the oncoming airway wall,it has been affected by:
A)Deposition.
B)Inertial impaction.
C)Stability.
D)Penetration.
Q5) Medicated aerosol refers to a suspension of a liquid or solid drug in a carrier gas.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What are the advantages of SVNs?
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Chapter 5: Bronchodilators
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to having weak bronchodilatory effects,theophylline is also used to increase a patient's ventilatory drive.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Xopenex is a sympathomimetic beta agonist that is classified as a:
A)Resorcinol
B)Catecholamine
C)Methylxanthine
D)Saligenin
Q3) Methylxanthines are believed to work by inhibiting ________________,which is the enzyme that deactivates cyclic AMP.
Q4) Explain the rationale for combining sympathomimetic drugs with parasympatholytic drugs for the treatment of bronchospasm.
Q5) Ipratropium bromide results in bronchodilation by inhibiting increases in cellular cyclic GMP.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The therapeutic range for theophylline is ____________.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Mucokinetics and Surfactants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the two types of therapeutic approaches to surfactant administration for a premature infant with respiratory distress.
Q2) Mucomyst can be given by ________________ or by ________________ to the tracheobronchial tree.
Q3) You are called to the emergency room to administer a bland aerosol treatment to a patient for sputum induction.Which of the following agents would you select for its effect in producing irritation and cough?
A)Sterile water.
B)Normal saline.
C)Hypertonic saline.
D)Hypotonic saline.
Q4) When administering breathing treatments to patients who are on sodium-restricted diets,the diluent of choice is ________________.
Q5) The role of goblet cells and clara cells is to produce about 100 ml of mucus each day.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ________________ aerosols dilute mucus by altering its water content.
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Chapter 7: Anti-Inflammatory and Antiasthmatic Agents
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54 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common side effect of inhaled steroids is:
A)Hypocalcemia.
B)Candidiasis.
C)Hypertension.
D)Hypoglycemia.
Q2) Which of the following is given as an oral medication?
A)Singulair
B)Azmacort
C)Flovent
D)Serevent
Q3) Asthma that results from infection,cold air,exercise,or stress is referred to as ________________.
Q4) The immune response is not involved in ________________ asthma.
Q5) The antihistamine effect of Allegra is accomplished by which of the following mechanisms?
A)Blocking the action of histamine at histamine 1 receptors
B)Stabilizing the mast cell membrane and preventing release of histamine
C)Inhibiting the effect of histamine by blocking lipoxygenase pathways
D)Inhibiting cytokine release from nasal epithelial cells
Q6) Explain what occurs in the late-phase response of the inflammatory process.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Anti-Infective Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is seen in a hospital clinic for chronic cough and fever.The physician suspects community-acquired pneumonia due to Haemophilus influenzae.The patient is prescribed an antibiotic and sent home.Which of the following antibacterial agents would be most appropriate for this patient?
A)Rifampin
B)Cephalexin
C)Penicillin
D)Septra
Q2) A patient who is prescribed cephalexin will not have to take the medication as often as he or she would have to take amoxicillin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Resistance to anti-infectives can develop from all of the following except:
A)When patients do not finish an anti-infective treatment.
B)When using narrow-spectrum antibiotics.
C)When using broad-spectrum antibiotics.
D)When organisms develop enzymes that bind to a drug and prevent it from attaching to the bacteria.
Q4) Can respiratory infections occur as a result of a systemic infectious process?
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Chapter 9: Cardiac Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a ventricular arrhythmia?
A)Supraventricular tachycardia
B)Atrial flutter
C)Torsade de pointes
D)Atrial fibrillation
Q2) A common supraventricular arrhythmia is:
A)Torsade de pointes.
B)Atrial fibrillation.
C)Premature ventricular contractions.
D)Ventricular fibrillation.
Q3) Which of the following medications results in increased contractility of the heart?
A)Bretylium
B)Dopamine
C)Digoxin
D)Dobutamine
Q4) The _______________ arteries are responsible for supplying oxygenated blood to the heart muscle.
Q5) Should a beta-blocking agent be prescribed to treat a patient with heart failure who has a history of asthma?
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Chapter 10: Blood Pressure and Antithrombotic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of using heparin in IV lines or central venous and arterial catheters,and what might occur without heparinized solutions at these sites?
Q2) Which of the following vessels contain more vascular smooth muscle and are considered the main resistance vessels?
A)Veins
B)Venules
C)Arterioles
D)Capillaries
Q3) Which of the following is a side effect associated with giving ACE inhibitors to patients with decreased renal function?
A)Peripheral edema
B)Hyperkalemia
C)Dizziness
D)Reflex tachycardia
Q4) Heparin can be administered by all of the following routes except:
A)IV infusion.
B)IV bolus.
C)Orally.
D)Subcutaneously.
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Chapter 11: Neuromuscular, sedative, anesthetic, and Analgesic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inhaled anesthetics work by passing through the alveoli without crossing the blood-brain barrier.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why is Versed used during major and minor surgical procedures?
Q3) All of the following statements concerning Precedex are true except:
A)Precedex can be used for sedation of mechanically ventilated patients.
B)Precedex has a lower incidence of delirium.
C)Precedex stimulates central alpha<sub>2</sub> receptors.
D)Precedex has a high incidence of causing hypertension.
Q4) Patients suffering with chronic pain related to a decrease in circulating levels of serotonin and norepinephrine benefit from which of the following?
A)Topamax
B)Phenergan
C)Zoloft
D)Elavil
Q5) A side effect of skeletal muscle relaxants is drowsiness.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Therapeutic Medical Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Examples of conditions that cause right-to-left shunts include all except which of the following?
A)Acute respiratory distress syndrome
B)Pulmonary embolism
C)Pulmonary edema
D)Pulmonary fibrosis
Q2) Inhaled nitric oxide is a selective _______________ vasodilator.
Q3) "Respiration" is the term used to describe the process of breathing in and out or carrying the oxygen-rich atmosphere from outside of the body to the alveoli.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Oxygen-induced hypercapnia can be avoided in COPD patients by maintaining their PaO<sub>2</sub> in which of the following ranges?
A)40 to 50 mmHg
B)50 to 60 mmHg
C)60 to 70 mmHg
D)70 to 80 mmHg
Q5) Which oxygen device is most used in the home to deliver oxygen and why?
Q6) Give two examples of situations in which simple masks may be used.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Pharmacologic Management of Obstructive
Pulmonary Disease: Asthma, chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema
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Sample Questions
Q1) While reviewing a patient's history and physical examination for diagnostic markers that indicate the presence of asthma,your findings should include all except which of the following?
A)Variable peak expiratory flow rates
B)Triggers to irritants or allergens
C)Increased A-P chest diameter
D)Improvement with corticosteroid use
Q2) According to the NAEPP guidelines,what must a respiratory therapist remember when using the treatment algorithm in the management of asthma?
Q3) In addition to treatment with nicotine replacement,patients who wish to quit smoking should be encouraged to ________________.
Q4) Which of the following is true of inhaled corticosteroids?
A)They are most effective for quick relief of asthma.
B)They are effective bronchodilators.
C)They require mouth rinsing after inhalation.
D)They are absorbed more than systemic corticosteroids.
Q6) The primary cause of COPD is ________________. Page 15
Q5) Emphysemic patients exhale through ______________ to maintain airway pressure and prevent airway collapse.
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Page 16
Chapter 14: Pharmacologic Treatment of Respiratory
Infectious Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pneumonias that are acquired due to inhalation of contaminated aerosols are most often contaminated with all except which of the following?
A)Legionella spiritensis
B)Aspergillus spiritensis
C)Respiratory syncytial virus
D)Influenza virus
Q2) Routine administration of antibiotics should be avoided in all except which of the following?
A)Acute bronchitis
B)Acute otitis media
C)Bronchiolitis
D)Community-acquired pneumonia
Q3) The first-line therapy used to treat otitis media in children over the age of 3 is
Q4) The first-line treatment for acute sinusitis is the administration of cephalosporin.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Intravenous pentamidine is used in the treatment of_________________ .
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Chapter 15: Medications for Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) _______________ is administered for heart failure that is refractory to diuretics,vasodilators,and conventional inotropic agents.
Q2) Premature ventricular contractions and wide complex PSVT can be treated with ________________.
Q3) Which of the following is an indication for the administration of atropine?
A)Symptomatic bradycardia
B)Intranodal AV block
C)Third-degree block with wide QRS complex
D)Hypothermic bradycardia
Q4) Patients with severe left ventricular dysfunction receiving verapamil may experience an increase in blood pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) All except which of the following are indications for beta blockers?
A)Suspected myocardial infarction
B)AV heart block
C)Supraventricular tachyarrhythmia
D)Unstable angina
Q6) Why is ventricular fibrillation life threatening,and how is it treated?
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