Cardiopulmonary Pathophysiology
Exam Materials
Course
Introduction
Cardiopulmonary Pathophysiology examines the functional and structural changes that occur in the heart and lungs as a result of various diseases and conditions. The course explores the underlying mechanisms of common and clinically significant cardiopulmonary disorders such as heart failure, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), asthma, pulmonary hypertension, and ischemic heart disease. Emphasis is placed on understanding the physiological basis of symptoms, diagnostic findings, and disease progression in these conditions. Students will also explore the interplay between cardiac and pulmonary systems, integrating knowledge for application in clinical decision-making and patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Manifestations and Assessment of Respiratory Disease 7th Edition by Terry Des Jardins
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44 Chapters
673 Verified Questions
673 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Patient Interview
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist may choose to use the patient interview technique of silence in which of the following situations?
A) To prompt the patient to ask a question
B) After a direct question
C) After an open-ended question
D) To allow the patient to review his or her history
Answer: C
Q2) The respiratory therapist is conducting a patient interview. The main purpose of this interview is to:
A) review data with the patient.
B) gather subjective data from the patient.
C) gather objective data from the patient.
D) fill out the history form or checklist.
Answer: B
Q3) For there to be a successful interview, the respiratory therapist must:
A) provide leading questions to guide the patient.
B) be an active listener.
C) reassure the patient.
D) use medical terminology to show knowledge of the subject matter.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Physical Examination and Its Basis in Physiology
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tachypnea may be the result of:
1) hypoxemia.
2) hypothermia.
3) fever.
4) sedation.
A) 2, 4
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: B
Q2) A patient comes into the emergency department with a complaint of centrally located, constant chest pain. What is his most likely problem?
A) Pleurisy
B) Myocardial ischemia
C) Pneumothorax
D) Fractured rib
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Pulmonary Function Study Assessments
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Overall characteristics of pulmonary function testing results on a patient with obstructive lung disease include that the FEV<sub>1</sub>:
A) is reduced and FEV1% is normal.
B) and FEV<sub>1</sub>% are both increased.
C) and FEV<sub>1</sub>% are both reduced.
D) is increased and FEV1% is decreased.
Answer: C
Q2) Total lung capacity is composed of all of the following EXCEPT:
A) IRV.
B) IC.
C) ERV.
D) RV.
Answer: A
Q3) A special indirect measurement procedure must be done to find which of the following?
A) Inspiratory reserve volume
B) Residual volume
C) Expiratory reserve volume
D) Inspiratory capacity
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Arterial Blood Gas Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of acute alveolar hyperventilation is:
A) hypoxemia.
B) metabolic alkalosis.
C) tachycardia.
D) supplemental oxygen administration.
Q2) All of the following will be seen in the arterial blood gas values of a patient with acute ventilatory failure EXCEPT a(n):
A) acidic pH.
B) near-normal bicarbonate level.
C) alkaline pH.
D) high carbon dioxide level.
Q3) A respiratory therapist is questioning the accuracy of the ABG results obtained on a patient in the ICU. The results show a pH and PaO<sub>2</sub> that seem unreasonably high, while the PaCO<sub>2</sub> seems unreasonably low. Which of the following would most likely cause these erroneous results?
A) A venous sample was obtained.
B) There was excessive heparin in the blood gas syringe.
C) The sample was excessively delayed in analysis.
D) There was an air bubble in the sample.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Oxygenation Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) A condition that will cause anemic hypoxia is:
A) cyanide poisoning.
B) decreased cardiac output or heart failure.
C) polycythemia.
D) carbon monoxide poisoning.
Q2) A person's C(a-v)O<sub>2</sub> increases in all of the following situations EXCEPT:
A) seizures.
B) peripheral shunting.
C) hyperthermia.
D) exercise.
Q3) A patient is mildly hypoxemic. Which of the following signs would the respiratory therapist expect to find in this patient?
A) An increase in the patient's breathing rate and heart rate
B) A decrease in systemic blood pressure
C) Cardiac dysrhythmias on an EKG
D) Anemia
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following hemodynamic changes are commonly seen in a patient with cardiogenic pulmonary edema?
1) Increased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP)
2) Increased pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)
3) Decreased mean pulmonary artery pressure (PA)
4) Decreased cardiac output (CO)
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following is found when a patient has sinus arrhythmia?
1) Rate decreases during expiration.
2) Rate decreases during inspiration.
3) Rate varies by more than 10% from beat to beat.
4) Rate increases during inspiration.
A) 3
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 4
D) 1, 3, 4
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Chapter 7: Radiologic Examination of the Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chest radiograph shows blunting of the patient's costophrenic angles. What does this suggest?
A) The patient did not take a deep enough breath.
B) Lung cancer
C) Pleural fluid
D) Underpenetrated exposure on the film
Q2) A PET/CT scan can provide which of the following?
1) Early detection of cancer metastasis
2) Accurate staging of cancer
3) Radiation treatment of the cancer
4) Activation of chemotherapy drugs within the tumor
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) The heart shadow on a chest radiograph will show up larger than normal on a(n):
A) AP film.
B) PA film.
C) left lateral film.
D) computed tomography (CT) scan.
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Chapter 8: Other Important Tests and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diagnostic thoracentesis can be used to:
A) withdraw a secretion sample from the lung for a sputum smear.
B) withdraw a secretion sample from the lung for a Gram stain.
C) determine the etiology of a pleural effusion.
D) remove air from the pleural space.
Q2) In a normal differential white blood cell (WBC) count, which of the following would have the highest number?
A) Neutrophils
B) Basophils
C) Eosinophils
D) Lymphocytes
Q3) A 14-year-old patient has had a serious asthma attack. Her white blood cell count can be expected to show:
A) decreased neutrophils.
B) decreased erythrocytes.
C) increased eosinophils.
D) increased monocytes.
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10
Chapter 9: The Therapist-Driven Protocol Program and the
Role of the Respiratory Therapist
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An obese patient had upper abdominal surgery 2 days earlier. He has a weak nonproductive cough and a pulse oximeter (SpO<sub>2 </sub> ) reading of 84% on room air. Which therapist-driven protocol(s) should be implemented?
1) Bronchopulmonary hygiene therapy
2) Lung expansion
3) Oxygen therapy
4) Aerosolized medication therapy
A) 1
B) 3, 4
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) When a patient has acute MI, which of the following protocols should the respiratory therapist initiate?
A) Hyperinflation therapy protocol
B) Oxygen therapy protocol
C) Bronchopulmonary hygiene therapy protocol
D) Aerosolized medication therapy protocol
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11
Chapter 10: Respiratory Failure and the Mechanical
Ventilation Protocol
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6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What effect would a pulmonary embolism have on the VD/VT and the /Ó ratio?
A) The VD/VT would increase and the /Ó would decrease.
B) The VD/VT would decrease and the /Ó would increase.
C) The VD/VT and the /Ó ratios would both increase.
D) The VD/VT and the /Ó ratios would both decrease.
Q2) Which of the following are clinical indicators of Type I respiratory failure?
1) Decreased PaO<sub>2</sub>
2) Increased P(A-a)O<sub>2</sub>
3) Decreased PaO<sub>2</sub>/FIO<sub>2</sub>
4) Decreased ÓS/ÓT
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) All of the following are causes of hypercapnic respiratory failure EXCEPT:
A) impending ventilatory failure.
B) apnea.
C) severe refractory hypoxemia.
D) acute ventilatory failure.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Recording Skills: The Basis for Data Collection,
Organization, Assessment Skill
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which agency should be notified if violations of HIPAA regulations have occurred?
A) HHS
B) FDA
C) CDC
D) Joint Commission
Q2) Which of the following are basic methods to record assessment data?
1) Computer documentation
2) Block chart
3) Source-oriented record
4) Problem-oriented medical record
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) When reviewing a SOAPIER progress note, the R stands for:
A) revisions made in the original plan.
B) reimbursement by the insurance carrier.
C) respiratory care notes.
D) resuscitation status of the patient.
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Chapter 12: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
(COPD), Chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of the diffusing capacity test (DLCO) findings in a patient with COPD?
A) Normal in all cases
B) Decreased in emphysema
C) Decreased in chronic bronchitis
D) Increased in all cases
Q2) Which of the following terms is (are) commonly applied to a patient with emphysema?
1) Pink puffer
2) Blue bloater
3) Type A COPD
4) Type B COPD
A) 1
B) 2
C) 1, 3
D) 2, 4
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14
Chapter 13: Asthma
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name for the microscopic structures formed from the breakdown of eosinophils in allergic asthma?
A) Charlene-Lichty crystals
B) Charcot-Leyden crystals
C) Colleen-Lyndahl clusters
D) Charles-Lahr casts
Q2) After the inhalation of a bronchodilator, what percentage change in peak expiratory flow (PEFR) would be required to demonstrate reversible airflow limitation consistent with asthma?
A) -20%
B) -10%
C) +10%
D) >20%
Q3) If a beta?-agonist agent and an anticholinergic agent were administered concurrently to a patient during an acute asthma episode, what result would be expected?
A) Bronchial smooth muscle contraction will occur.
B) Airway edema will increase.
C) The medications oppose each other, resulting in no airway changes.
D) Bronchial smooth muscle relaxation will occur.
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Chapter 14: Bronchiectasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the main challenges in caring for a patient with bronchiectasis is:
A) contending with bronchospasm.
B) removing excessive bronchopulmonary secretions.
C) returning the FRC to within normal limits.
D) maximizing gas exchange across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
E) rehydrating dried secretions.
Q2) Which form of bronchiectasis causes the greatest amount of damage to the tracheobronchial tree?
A) Triphasic
B) Varicose
C) Cystic
D) Fusiform
Q3) Which of the following is the hallmark of bronchiectasis?
A) Chronic cough with production of large quantities of foul-smelling sputum
B) Bronchospasm
C) Decreased DLCO with normal to decreased expiratory flow rates on pulmonary function
D) Dyspnea on exertion
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Chapter 15: Cystic Fibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which ethnic group has the greatest number of people with cystic fibrosis?
A) African-Americans
B) Asians
C) Hispanics
D) Caucasians
Q2) Which of the following are commonly used in the management of cystic fibrosis?
1) Pancreatic enzymes and vitamins
2) Antibiotics
3) Postural drainage
4) Expectorants
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) Men with cystic fibrosis have difficulty reproducing because the:
A) fallopian tubes are blocked.
B) vas deferens is missing or underdeveloped.
C) men are impotent.
D) women do not ovulate.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Pneumonia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Physical assessment findings on a patient with pneumonia would include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) bradycardia.
B) whispered pectoriloquy.
C) dull percussion note.
D) increased vocal fremitus.
Q2) Overall, most cases of pneumonia are caused by:
A) viruses.
B) gram-negative bacteria.
C) protozoa.
D) fungi.
Q3) A patient has a bacterial pneumonia. What kills the invading bacteria?
A) Macrophages
B) Red blood cells
C) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
D) Serum fluid
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Chapter 17: Lung Abscess
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions can result in a lung abscess?
1) Penetrating chest wound
2) Septic embolism
3) Aspirated foreign body
4) Bronchogenic cyst
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) What is the term for the fibrinous membrane that surrounds a lung abscess?
A) Serous membrane
B) Sclerotic membrane
C) Alveolar membrane
D) Pyogenic membrane
Q3) During the early stages of a lung abscess, the pathologic process is identical to that of:
A) pulmonary edema.
B) bronchopulmonary dysplasia.
C) acute pneumonia.
D) pulmonary fibrosis.
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Chapter 18: Tuberculosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pulmonary function testing results on a patient with an advanced case of TB will display all of the following EXCEPT:
A) increased RV.
B) decreased IRV.
C) decreased VC.
D) decreased TLC.
Q2) The preferred stain that is used to identify the TB organism is called:
A) Gram stain.
B) fluorescent acid-fast stain.
C) Ziehl-Neelsen.
D) gentian violet.
Q3) What medication is used to treat a person who has converted to a positive TB skin test but does not have active disease?
A) Virazole
B) Isoniazid
C) Rifampin
D) Tetracycline
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Chapter 19: Fungal Diseases of the Lung
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fungal lung infections are usually spread by:
A) inhaling spores.
B) blood.
C) contact with infected sputum.
D) inhaling infected droplets.
Q2) Pulmonary function testing results on a patient with advanced fungal pneumonia will display all of the following EXCEPT:
A) increased ERV.
B) decreased IRV.
C) decreased IC.
D) decreased TLC.
Q3) After cleaning out his chicken coop, a farmer has developed a fungal lung infection. What type of infection is it most likely to be?
A) Coccidioidomycosis
B) Blastomycosis
C) Histoplasmosis
D) Cryptococcal infection
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21
Chapter 20: Pulmonary Edema
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the normal hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary capillaries?
A) 0 to 5 mm Hg
B) 5 to 10 mm Hg
C) 10 to 15 mm Hg
D) 15 to 20 mm Hg
Q2) All of the following are positive risk factors for coronary heart disease (CHD) EXCEPT:
A) elevated homocysteine level.
B) elevated vitamin E level.
C) hypertension.
D) diabetes mellitus.
Q3) Pulmonary edema manifests itself clinically as a(n) _____ disorder.
A) restrictive pulmonary
B) obstructive pulmonary
C) equally restrictive and obstructive
D) obstructive cardiac
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22
Chapter 21: Pulmonary Vascular Disease: Pulmonary
Embolism and Pulmonary Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to prevent pulmonary emboli, a filter may be placed into which of the following vessels to prevent clots from being carried into the pulmonary circulation?
A) Subclavian vein
B) Pulmonary artery
C) Thoracic duct
D) Inferior vena cava
E) Femoral artery
Q2) Predisposing factors of pulmonary emboli include: 1) varicose veins.
2) smoking.
3) obesity.
4) congestive heart failure.
A) 2, 4
B) 1, 3
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 22: Flail Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common finding at the site of the flail portion of a flail chest?
A) Pulmonary contusion
B) Pulmonary abscess
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Pulmonary fibrosis
Q2) Which breath sounds would be expected to be heard when auscultating the chest of a patient with a flail chest?
A) Diminished over the flail chest section only
B) Diminished over both lungs
C) Crackles over the flail chest section
D) Bilateral wheezing
Q3) Which of the following initial blood gas results would a respiratory therapist expect to find in a patient with a mild flail chest?
A) Elevated pH and elevated SaO<sub>2</sub>
B) Decreased pH and decreased SaO<sub>2</sub>
C) Increased pH and decreased SaO<sub>2</sub>
D) Decreased pH and increased SaO<sub>2</sub>
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Chapter 23: Pneumothorax
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following chest assessment findings would be expected in a patient with a tension pneumothorax?
A) Decreased thoracic volume on the affected side
B) Dull percussion note
C) Tracheal shift away from the affected side
D) Wheezes
Q2) An iatrogenic pneumothorax may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) positive-pressure mechanical ventilation.
B) pleural biopsy.
C) subclavian vein cannulation.
D) endotracheal intubation.
Q3) A patient has a pneumothorax with a sucking chest wound resulting in the movement of gas from one lung to another. This is called:
A) panting.
B) paradoxical movement.
C) bidirectional flow.
D) pendelluft.
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25
Chapter 24: Pleural Effusion and Empyema
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a pleural effusion from an unknown cause. A fluid sample has been taken for analysis. To help identify the cause of the effusion, all of the following tests should be performed EXCEPT:
A) specific gravity.
B) biochemical makeup.
C) cytologic examination.
D) bacterial culture.
Q2) The major pathologic and structural changes associated with a significant pleural effusion include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) diaphragm elevation.
B) atelectasis.
C) compression of the great vessels.
D) lung compression.
Q3) The anatomic alteration caused by a pleural effusion is:
A) pulmonary fibrosis.
B) separation of the visceral and parietal pleura.
C) adhesion of the visceral and parietal pleura.
D) pulmonary edema.
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Chapter 25: Kyphoscoliosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) For best results, how many hours per day should a SpineCor brace be worn?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 16
D) 20
Q2) Which of the following chest assessment findings are associated with kyphoscoliosis?
1) Crackles or wheezing
2) Hyperresonant percussion note
3) Whispered pectoriloquy
4) Tracheal shift
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) Scoliosis is defined as a spinal curvature of _____ degrees.
A) >10
B) >20
C) >30
D) >40
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Chapter 26: Interstitial Lung Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following chest radiograph findings would be associated in a patient with ILD?
1) Pleural effusion
2) Honeycombing
3) Cavity formation
4) Increased translucency
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q2) Which of the following organs are affected by systemic scleroderma?
1) Skin
2) Reproductive organs
3) Lungs
4) Brain
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 27: Cancer of the Lung
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Sample Questions
Q1) Malignant tumors:
1) invade surrounding tissues.
2) grow slowly.
3) cause necrosis.
4) may be metastatic.
A) 1
B) 4
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) During bronchoscopy, a tumor was found in the right mainstem bronchus. What is the recommended treatment?
A) Pneumonectomy
B) Brachytherapy
C) Cryotherapy
D) Photodynamic therapy
Q3) Which form of lung cancer has the poorest prognosis?
A) Large cell carcinoma
B) Adenocarcinoma
C) Small cell carcinoma
D) Squamous cell carcinoma
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Chapter 28: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pulmonary changes are associated with ARDS?
1) Abnormal surfactant
2) Interstitial edema
3) Decreased shunt
4) Narrowing of the alveolar-capillary membrane
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3
D) 1, 2, 3
Q2) ARDS can result from the inhalation of all of the following EXCEPT:
A) FIO<sub>2</sub> >0.60 for prolonged exposure.
B) nitrogen dioxide.
C) very dry air.
D) chlorine gas.
Q3) The chest radiograph finding indicative of severe ARDS is:
A) "ground-glass" appearance of the lungs.
B) pleural effusion.
C) bilateral hyperinflation of the lungs.
D) tracheal deviation.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Guillain-Barré Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 75-kg, 50-year-old male patient has Guillain-Barré syndrome. His most recent assessment indicates his VC is 900 mL and NIF is -16 cm H<sub>2</sub>O. What plan should the respiratory therapist recommend?
A) Initiate EMG monitoring.
B) Initiate continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).
C) Initiate mechanical ventilation.
D) Reassess the patient each hour.
Q2) The diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome is based on all of the following EXCEPT:
A) urinalysis shows elevated blood urea nitrogen.
B) abnormal electromyography results.
C) cerebrospinal fluid shows elevated protein level.
D) clinical history.
Q3) Which of the following are identified as the causative organisms of the respiratory or gastrointestinal infections that precede the onset of most cases of GBS?
A) Chlamydia psittaci and Campylobacter jejuni
B) Cytomegalovirus and mononucleosis
C) Campylobacter jejuni and cytomegalovirus
D) Mononucleosis and parainfluenza 2
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Chapter 30: Myasthenia Gravis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is (are) signs and symptoms associated with myasthenia gravis?
1) Double vision
2) Weakness of neck muscles
3) Drooping of eyelids
4) Difficulty speaking
A) 2
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following are among the treatment options for the patient with myasthenia gravis?
1) Pyridostigmine (MestinonÒ)
2) Plasmapheresis
3) Thymectomy
4) Mechanical ventilation
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 31: Sleep Apnea
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Sample Questions
Q1) First-line treatment for the management of hyperventilation-related central sleep apnea includes:
A) CPAP.
B) adaptive servo-ventilation (VPAP).
C) mechanical ventilation.
D) palatopharyngoplasty.
Q2) The respiratory therapist is evaluating a patient for risk of obstructive sleep apnea. All of the following are risk factors for obstructive sleep apnea EXCEPT:
A) excess weight.
B) neck size.
C) hypertension.
D) hypoglycemia.
E) chronic nasal congestion.
Q3) All of the following are found during rapid eye movement sleep EXCEPT:
A) the diaphragm functions normally.
B) the person is easy to awaken.
C) dreaming occurs.
D) skeletal muscles are paralyzed.
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Chapter 32: Clinical Manifestations Common with Newborn and
Early Childhood Respiratory Dis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A premature infant is found to be "bobbing" her head. This is important because it can be a sign of which of the following?
A) Hypoxemia
B) Renal failure
C) Intracranial hemorrhage
D) Respiratory distress
E) Septic shock
Q2) Apneic episodes in a premature neonate can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) epiglottitis.
B) immature central nervous system.
C) immature airway receptors.
D) immature chemoreceptors.
Q3) A neonatal patient is found to have grunting on expiration. What physiologic effect does this produce?
A) Increased vital capacity
B) Increased PAO<sub>2</sub>
C) Decreased PaCO<sub>2</sub>
D) Closes the ductus arteriosus
34
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Chapter 33: Meconium Aspiration Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the consequence of meconium aspiration if there is a "ball-valve" effect in the small airways?
A) Air trapping on exhalation
B) Apnea of prematurity
C) Air trapping on inhalation
D) Bronchiectasis
Q2) A common finding in a neonate with MAS is a respiratory rate that is:
A) under 40/min.
B) between 40 and 60/min.
C) well over 60/min.
D) cyclical with faster and then slower breaths.
Q3) A neonate with MAS has hypoxemia. Which of the following can be a pulmonary effect of this?
A) Status asthmaticus
B) Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN)
C) Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)
D) Pulmonary fibrosis
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35
Chapter 34: Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn
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Q1) Which of the following breathing patterns are associated with TTN?
1) Normal rate
2) Rapid rate
3) Higher than normal tidal volume
4) Shallow tidal volume
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 4
D) 2, 4
Q2) All of the following are usually performed in the general management of a patient with TTN EXCEPT:
A) oxygen therapy administration.
B) administration of diuretics.
C) proper stabilization.
D) ruling out other serious conditions.
Q3) Which of the following oxygenation indices would be elevated in TTN?
A) Arterial-venous oxygen content difference
B) Oxygen consumption
C) Mixed venous oxygen saturation
D) Pulmonary shunt fraction
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) What vascular anatomic alteration could occur as a consequence of hypoxia in a patient with RDS?
A) Closure of the ductus arteriosus
B) Transient pulmonary hypertension
C) Increased flow through the ductus venosus
D) Airway mucosal edema
Q2) Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) primarily affects infants who are:
A) preterm with insufficient surfactant.
B) full-term.
C) postterm with too much surfactant.
D) preterm with too much surfactant.
Q3) The neonate with RDS would have a phosphatidylglycerol (PG) level that is: A) present.
B) absent.
C) above normal.
D) below normal.
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Chapter 36: Pulmonary Air Leak Syndromes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prior to the introduction of exogenous surfactant, with which condition were preterm neonates most likely to develop pulmonary air leak syndrome?
A) Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS)
B) Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
C) Transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN)
D) Apnea of prematurity
Q2) Which of the following chest radiograph findings would confirm the presence of PIE?
1) Mediastinal shift to the unaffected side
2) Air below the diaphragms
3) Lung hyperinflation
4) Fine, bubbly appearance of the lungs
A) 2, 3
B) 1, 4
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 3, 4
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Chapter 37: Respiratory Syncytial Virus (Bronchiolitis or Pneumonitis)
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Q1) Anatomic alterations related to an RSV infection can lead to all of the following EXCEPT:
A) pneumomediastinum.
B) partial airway obstruction.
C) decreased airway lumen.
D) complete airway obstruction.
Q2) Which of the following are major pathologic or structural changes associated with RSV?
1) Dilation and distortion of the airways
2) Inflammation of the peripheral airways
3) Alveolar hyperinflation
4) Pulmonary edema
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 38: Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the major anatomic pathology associated with new BPD?
A) Alveolar hypoplasia
B) Alveolar hyperplasia
C) Alveolar atelectasis
D) Alveolar-capillary wall thickening
Q2) A patient with classic Stage 1 BPD will have which of the following chest radiograph findings?
A) Ground-glass granular pattern
B) Emphysematous bullae
C) Honeycomb appearance
D) Mediastinal shift
Q3) What is the most common chronic lung disease of premature infants?
A) BPD
B) Asthma
C) Cystic fibrosis
D) TTN
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Chapter 39: Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant with a CDH also has pulmonary hypertension. Which of the following can be administered to relieve this problem?
A) Inhaled nitric oxide (iNO)
B) Inhaled parasympatholytic agent
C) 80% helium-20% oxygen
D) Corticosteroids
Q2) In the delivery room, which of the following are recommended to manage a newborn with a CDH?
1) Administer oxygen.
2) Begin bag and mask manual ventilation.
3) Intubate and ventilate the neonate.
4) Place the newborn in the Trendelenburg position.
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
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Chapter 40: Congenital Heart Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common cyanotic congenital cardiac defect in neonates?
A) ASD
B) VSD
C) TGA
D) TOF
Q2) According to the NHLBI, what is the most common type of birth defect?
A) Cerebral palsy
B) Congenital heart defects
C) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
D) Cleft palate
Q3) Which cardiac anomaly is associated with coeur-en-sabot on a chest radiograph?
A) TOF
B) ASD
C) VSD
D) PDA
Q4) What is the most common type of VSD?
A) Inlet ventricular septal defect
B) Perimembranous ventricular septal defect
C) Muscular ventricular septal defect
D) Conoventricular ventricular septal defect
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Chapter 41: Croup Syndrome: Laryngotracheobronchitis and
Acute Epiglottitis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The treatment of epiglottitis includes:
1) antibiotics specific to the virus causing the illness.
2) antibiotics specific to the bacteria causing the illness.
3) supplemental oxygen by face mask.
4) endotracheal intubation.
A) 1
B) 4
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 3
Q2) A patient has been diagnosed with bacterial epiglottitis. Which of the following antibiotics should the respiratory therapist most likely recommend?
A) Amikacin (Amikin)
B) Tobramycin (Nebcin)
C) Cefalexin (Keflex)
D) Ampicillin/sulbactam (Unasyn)
Q3) What is the main clinical risk facing a patient with epiglottitis?
A) Secretions will block the trachea.
B) The epiglottis will bleed.
C) The laryngeal inlet may become covered by the epiglottis.
Page 43
D) The vocal cords will spasm and close the laryngeal inlet.
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Chapter 42: Near Drowning/Wet Drowning
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the upper time limit that a cold-water near-drowning victim can be submerged and survive?
A) 10 minutes
B) 20 minutes
C) 40 minutes
D) 60 minutes
Q2) Warming techniques for a cold-water near-drowning victim include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) cooling the extremities and warming the body core.
B) warming the inspired oxygen.
C) heated intravenous solutions.
D) heated lavage of the pericardial space.
Q3) In the United States, what percentage of pediatric drowning victims are male?
A) 20%
B) 40%
C) 60%
D) 80%
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Chapter 43: Smoke Inhalation, Thermal Injuries, and Carbon
Monoxide Intoxication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical signs of an upper airway thermal injury include:
1) facial burns.
2) atelectasis.
3) mucosal edema.
4) epithelial sloughing.
A) 3
B) 1, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Clinical signs associated with acute upper airway obstruction due to thermal injury include:
1) pleural friction rub.
2) inspiratory stridor.
3) pulmonary edema.
4) painful swallowing.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 44: Atelectasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Examples of the types of surgical procedures that often result in atelectasis include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) open heart surgery.
B) craniotomy.
C) gallbladder removal.
D) splenectomy.
Q2) After open heart surgery, a patient has developed bronchitis with increased secretions and atelectasis. What respiratory therapy procedure(s) should initially be recommended?
1) Chest physical therapy
2) Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
3) Incentive spirometry
4) Inhaled sympathomimetic medication
A) 3
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 3
D) 1, 2, 4
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