Cardiopulmonary Clinical Practice
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Cardiopulmonary Clinical Practice provides students with hands-on experience in the assessment, diagnosis, and therapeutic management of patients with cardiovascular and pulmonary conditions. Through clinical rotations, simulations, and case studies, students apply the theoretical foundations of respiratory and cardiac care to real-world scenarios. Emphasis is placed on patient evaluation, use of diagnostic equipment, development of treatment plans, interdisciplinary collaboration, and adherence to professional and ethical standards. The course aims to prepare students to deliver effective, evidence-based care in a variety of clinical settings, supporting the recovery and health maintenance of patients with cardiopulmonary diseases.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Clinical Lab Competencies for Respiratory Care An Integrated Approach 5th Edition by Gary
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852 Verified Questions
852 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Basics of Asepsis
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Sample Questions
Q1) When performing tracheostomy care,which piece of personal protective equipment should be used to protect the health care provider from being splashed in the eyes with contaminated secretions?
A)Mask
B)Goggles
C)HEPA mask
D)Cover gown
Answer: B
Q2) What is defined as a microorganism capable of causing disease in humans?
A)Pathogenic microorganism
B)Hospital-acquired infection
C)Virulent microorganism
D)Cross-contamination
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Basic Patient Assessment: Vital Signs and Breath
Sounds
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Q1) What is the pressure called that is measured at the time the ventricles are at rest?
A)Tachycardia pressure
B)Diastolic pressure
C)Systolic pressure
D)Bradycardia pressure
Answer: B
Q2) What pressure is being measured during a blood pressure reading during the ventricular contraction?
A)Bounding pressure
B)Systolic pressure
C)Plateau pressure
D)Diastolic pressure
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Advanced Patient Assessment: Inspection,
Palpation, and Percussion
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is (are)the bony prominence(s)on the posterior chest?
I.Vertebrae
II.Sternum
III.Scapulae
IV.Clavicles
A)I and III
B)II and IV
C)I only
D)II,III,IV
Answer: A
Q2) What is defined as the presence of air beneath the skin in the subcutaneous tissues?
A)Tension pneumothorax
B)Subcutaneous emphysema
C)Pleural effusion
D)Fibrosis
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Radiologic Assessment
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Q1) On a chest x-ray interpretation from a patient's chart,the radiologist notes that the right costophrenic angle is blunted.What does this indicate?
A)A right pleural effusion
B)Atelectasis of the right lung
C)Consolidation in the right lower lobe
D)Subcutaneous emphysema in the right lung
Q2) A 2 year-old patient is admitted to the emergency department with a suspicion of epiglottitis.Which of the following would you recommend to confirm the diagnosis?
A)Lateral neck
B)Lateral chest
C)Apical lordotic
D)Left or right anterior oblique
Q3) Which of the following views is also called a portable chest x-ray?
A)Posterior-anterior (PA)view
B)Lateral view
C)Lateral decubitus view
D)Anterior-posterior (AP)view
Q4) What can be evaluated on a chest radiograph besides the heart and lungs?
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Pulmonary Function Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A rate in excess of 35-breaths per minute may be _________________.
A)normal.
B)an indication of pending respiratory failure.
C)sufficient muscle strength.
D)less gas exchange at the alveolar level.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an indication for spirometry?
A)Detect the presence or absence of lung dysfunction suggested by history or physical signs and symptoms
B)Quantify the severity of known lung disease
C)Assess the potential effects or response to environmental or occupational exposure
D)Hemoptysis of unknown origin
Q3) Which device would be used to measure a patient's peak flow before and after a bronchodilator?
A)Boehringer Inspiratory Force Manometer
B)Haloscale respirometer
C)Wright respirometer
D)Mini-Wright Peak Flowmeter
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Chapter 6: Electrocardiography
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Q1) When a stimulus only causes a small portion of the atria to contract in an unorganized pattern,then ____________ occurs.
A)atrial fibrillation
B)ventricular fibrillation
C)a normal sinus rhythm
D)a sinus tachycardia
Q2) Which of the following is NOT normally a cause of ECG artifact?
A)Patient motion artifact
B)Wandering baseline
C)60 Hz artifact
D)Cell phone interference
Q3) What lead is placed at the 5th intercostal space,anterior axillary line?
A)V3
B)V4
C)V5
D)V6
Q4) A female patient comes to the emergency department complaining of chest pain.She is from a very conservative culture and objects to a male performing her EKG.How should the male practitioner approach this problem since no female is available to do the EKG?
8
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Chapter 7: Phlebotomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A tourniquet can be used to enhance vein distension to ease the location of a good vein for a venous draw.What would happen if the tourniquet were left on too long?
Q2) There is an obligation for the respiratory therapist to protect himself from inadvertent exposure to blood specimens.How is this accomplished?
A)Knowledge
B)Preparation
C)Procedure
D)All of these
Q3) What is the key to maintaining a safe work environment?
A)Patient
B)Supervisor
C)Exposure control policy
D)Physician
Q4) Which of the following techniques will reduce the probability of infection with a blood draw?
A)Proper cover over the site
B)Good aseptic technique before venipuncture
C)Reviewing the chart for infections
D)Both a and b
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Chapter 8: Arterial Blood Gas Sampling
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the practitioner teach the patient concerning an arterial line?
Q2) When performing the modified Allen's test,color should return in the hand within _____ seconds.
A)5 seconds
B)10 seconds
C)15 seconds
D)20 seconds
Q3) Which artery is located on the medial side of the antecubital fossa near the insertion of the biceps muscle at the radial tuberosity?
A)Radial artery
B)Brachial artery
C)Femoral artery
D)Dorsalis pedis
Q4) Why is the radial artery a commonly used site for arterial blood sampling?
A)Its location to the inside of the patient's arm
B)It is commonly used for taking a patient's pulse.
C)There is collateral circulation through the ulnar artery.
D)It is the largest artery used for arterial blood drawing.
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10
Chapter 9: Hemodynamic Monitoring
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Sample Questions
Q1) During diastole when the ventricles are filling,the tricuspid valve is open,allowing the pressure in the right ventricle to be reflected back to the vena cava.Which law does this represent?
A)Starling's law
B)Pousieille's law
C)Dalton's law
D)Pascal's law
Q2) When interpreting a fall in the CVP,how should the fluid volume be correlated to confirm the relevance of the value?
A)The CVP should be correlated with the systolic blood pressure.
B)The CVP should be correlated with the diastolic blood pressure.
C)The CVP should be correlated with the fluid intake and output.
D)The CVP should be correlated with the PCWP.
Q3) Common causes of increased pulmonary artery pressures include
A)left atrial failure.
B)left ventricular failure.
C)hypovolemia.
D)reduced venous return.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Noninvasive Monitoring
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Sample Questions
Q1) When assessment of acid-base status and/or PaO is not required,what is used to assess a patient's oxygenation?
A)End-tidal CO
B)SPO
C)Vital capacity
D)Tidal volume
Q2) What electrode does the transcutaneous O monitor incorporate into its design?
A)Clark electrode
B)Severinghaus electrode
C)Sanz electrode
D)Reference electrode
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an indication for pulse oximetry?
A)The need to monitor the adequacy of arterial oxyhemoglobin saturation.
B)The need to quantitate the response of arterial oxyhemoglobin saturation to therapeutic intervention or to a diagnostic procedure
C)The need to comply with mandated regulations or recommendations by authoritative groups
D)To test for the presence of an ongoing need for measurement of total hemoglobin and abnormal hemoglobins
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Documentation and Goals Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT found in the laboratory reports?
A)Computerized tomography reports
B)Arterial blood gas reports
C)Hematology reports
D)Endocrinology reports
Q2) Why are the medical record is used by third-party payers?
A)For patient information for future care
B)To assist physician's diagnose patients
C)For purposes of reimbursement
D)To provide patient's a copy of their chart
Q3) How are entries entered into the medical record?
A)In chronological order
B)In random order
C)In order of department
D)Alphabetical order
Q4) How are medications recorded in the patient's chart?
A)In random order
B)In alphabetical order
C)Hourly
D)In chronological order
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Oxygen Supply Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cylinder valve is found on gas cylinders containing less than 1500 psi of pressure?
A)Direct-acting cylinder valve
B)Stem valve
C)Diaphragm cylinder valve
D)Outlet valve
Q2) Medical gas supply systems include all of the following EXCEPT ______________
A)medical gas cylinders.
B)liquid systems.
C)oxygen concentrators.
D)oxygen regulators.
Q3) What is the color code for an air cylinder?
A)Yellow
B)White
C)Gray
D)Red
Q4) You attach a pressure reducing valve to a 'M' sized gas cylinder.When you open the cylinder valve you hear gas leaking from of near the valve-cylinder connection.What should you do?
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Chapter 13: Oxygen Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) The practitioner notes that a patient has been on a partial rebreathing mask for 4 days.The chest x-ray indicates bilateral atelectasis in both bases.What would be the most likely reason for this finding?
A)Oxygen tolerance
B)Absorption atelectasis
C)Oxygen induced hypoventilation
D)Retinopathy of prematurity
Q2) A newborn is admitted into the nursery and is started on an FIO of 35% through an isolette.The patient's arterial blood gas is drawn and his PaO measured to be 88 mmHg.What would be the associated risk for this patient?
A)Oxygen toxicity
B)Absorption atelectasis
C)Oxygen induced hypoventilation
D)Retinopathy of prematurity
Q3) A patient has an oxygen saturation of 95% on room air.The patient's vital signs reveal a heart rate of 120/minute with occasional PVCs,a respiratory rate of 38/minute,and mild cyanosis of the patient's mucous membranes.What should be done?
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Introduction to Respiratory Care Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An aerosol drug is ordered on a patient in MDI form.The propellant causes a reflex bronchospasm in the patient.What can be done?
Q2) Which of the following sympathomimetic drugs are intended for maintenance therapy only?
I.Levalbuterol
II.Salmeterol
III.Formoterol
IV.Pirbuterol
A)II,III,and IV
B)I and IV
C)II and III
D)I,II,III,and IV
Q3) Acetylcholine stimulates ____________________
A)the Vagus nerve.
B)the adrenergic receptors.
C)the sympathetic nervous system.
D)the cholinergic receptors.
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16
Chapter 15: Humidity and Aerosol Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) With the administration of water,hypotonic,or isotonic saline,an improved outcome is indicated by the presence of which of the following?
A)Heart rate increasing with more PVCs
B)Decreased work of breathing
C)Increasing PaCO with decreasing pH
D)Increased audible stridor
Q2) Connection of a large-volume nebulizer to the correct type flowmeter is ensured because the connection incorporates a:
A)PISS fitting at the top of the unit.
B)ASSS fitting at the top of the unit.
C)DISS fitting at the top of the unit.
D)15 mmID fitting at the top of the unit
Q3) If a gas is fully saturated with water vapor (100% saturated),what can be stated about the gas?
A)It is at body humidity.
B)It is at maximum humidity.
C)The relative humidity is 50%.
D)The temperature of the gas is 37°C.
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17
Chapter 16: Bronchial Hygiene Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following therapies would be best used to reduce air trapping in asthma and COPD?
A)Postural drainage therapy
B)Positive airway pressure therapy
C)Directed cough
D)Unilateral chest expansion
Q2) A patient with cystic fibrosis is going to be sent home.The physician wants the practitioner to recommend bronchial hygiene at home.The patient has an active lifestyle and both parents have arthritis and cannot perform percussion and postural drainage (PPD)on the patient.What should be recommended for the patient?
Q3) A patient positioned on their back is placed in which position?
A)Trendelenburg.
B)Lateral.
C)Supine.
D)Prone.
Q4) A patient who is receiving postural drainage and percussion desaturates during therapy,complains of dizziness,and states he cannot tolerate the treatment any longer.What should the practitioner do?
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Chapter 17: Hyperinflation Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which control would increase the tidal volume delivered to the patient on a pressure ventilator (e.g.Bird Mark 7)?
A)Tidal volume
B)Flow rate
C)Pressure
D)Sensitivity
Q2) Which control on a pressure ventilator should be used if the patient is having trouble triggering the ventilator into inspiration?
A)Flow rate
B)Sensitivity
C)Expiratory timer
D)Air mix
Q3) Which of the following is an absolute contraindication of IPPB therapy?
A)Tension pneumothorax
B)Radiographic evidence of blebs
C)Pneumothorax with a functioning chest tube
D)a and c
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Chapter 18: Bronchoscopy Assisting
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Q1) Patient monitoring should be done before,during,and after bronchoscopic procedures.Which of the following is important to monitor?
A)Patient's level of consciousness
B)Patient vital signs,including heart rhythm
C)Patient's subjective response to the procedure
D)a,b,and c
Q2) Which type of sample obtained by bronchoscopic analysis should be fixated in a formalin solution?
A)Sample for cytological analysis
B)Sample for histological analysis
C)Sample for microbiological analysis
D)Sample for fungal analysis
Q3) Which type of brush/needle/mechanical device is/are used to obtain a sample that cannot become contaminated during retrieval through the suction channel?
A)Unsheathed cytology brush
B)Sheathed cytology brush
C)Forceps
D)Wang needle
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Chapter 19: Equipment Processing and Surveillance
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Sample Questions
Q1) When ethylene oxide combines with water it forms ______________
A)hydrogen peroxide.
B)ethylene glycol.
C)ethyl alcohol.
D)carbonic anhydrase.
Q2) Tracheostomized patients in the medical intensive care unit have been developing infections from an unidentified source.What method would the respiratory therapist use to culture the aerosol tubing?
A)Rodac plate sampling
B)Gram staining
C)Rinse sampling
D)Aliquot culturing
Q3) The practitioner has just performed a bedside pulmonary function test on a patient who tests positive for tuberculosis.This is detected only 1 hour before the next test is to be performed.What should be done?
Q4) A serious H1N1 influenza outbreak takes place in a skilled care facility.Outline the isolation methods and treatments that should be implemented to help prevent the spread of the virus.
Q5) What types of vaccines should a health care worker undergo routinely?
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Chapter 20: Emergency Airway Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient requires an airway to prevent the tongue from occluding the airway.The patient lapses in and out of conscious periodically.Which airway would be best to use for the patient?
A)Oropharyngeal airway
B)Combitube airway
C)Nasopharyngeal airway
D)Laryngeal mask airway
Q2) If vomiting and aspiration is a concern with a patient who needs an airway in place,which of the following airways would best protect the patient's airway?
A)Nosopharyngeal airway
B)Oropharyngeal airway
C)Laryngeal mask airway
D)a and b
Q3) What is the name of the cartilage that protects the trachea from foreign material entering the trachea during swallowing?
A)Vallecula
B)Vocal cords
C)Epiglottis
D)Arytenoid Cartilage
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Artificial Airway Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should be done to prevent a high-risk patient from aspiration of gastric contents?
A)Proper maintenance of cuff pressures
B)Use of humidification of secretions with a heated humidifier
C)Elevation of the patient's head 30-45 degrees
D)The use of subglottic secretion drainage
Q2) Before suctioning a patient,you notice that no suction pressure is being generated at the end of the suction catheter when you attempt to suction sterile water through the catheter.What could be causing the problem?
Q3) What is defined as the removal of a tracheostomy tube?
A)Decannulation
B)Leak technique
C)Invagination
D)Wash-out volume
Q4) What should be done to the patient's tracheostomy tube when a Passy-Muir is placed on the tube?
A)The cuff must be inflated to a pressure between 20-25 cmH20
B)The tracheostomy must be suctioned until it is clear
C)The tracheostomy cuff must be deflated
D)The tracheostomy tube should be replaced by a button
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Chest Tubes
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Sample Questions
Q1) When preparing a chest tube drainage system for use on a patient,what should the respiratory care practitioner do to the water seal chamber of the drainage system?
A)Fill the chamber with water to the 20 cm H O line
B)Fill the chamber with water to the 2 cm H O line
C)Attach the tubing that goes to the chest tube to the water seal chamber
D)Adjust the suction pressure at the wall outlet to full vacuum
Q2) If the respiratory care practitioner observes continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber,what is the problem causing this phenomenon?
A)Air leak within the thorax
B)Air leak on the chest tube
C)Air leak at the tubing connections
D)Any of these
Q3) What is "tidaling"?
A)Gentle continuous bubbling observed in the suction control chamber
B)Vigorous bubbling observed in the suction control chamber
C)Fluid collection in the collection chamber
D)The normal rise and fall of the fluid level with the patient's breathing pattern
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Chapter 23: Insertion and Maintenance of Intravenous Lines
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Q1) What is the preferred IV site on an adult patient?
A)The smallest artery that can be accessed
B)In the radial artery of the non-dominant hand
C)The temporal vein
D)A vein on the non-dominant hand or arm of the patient
Q2) With some medical conditions,a tourniquet cannot be applied to the patient's arm.Which of the following are conditions where tourniquet application should not be applied?
A)A shunt for renal dialysis
B)A previous mastectomy
C)A vein on the non-dominant arm
D)a and b
Q3) A patient is admitted to the MICU with a closed head injury with cerebral edema.What type of IV solution will cause water to be drawn from inside the cell and into the vascular space and is desirable in cases of cerebral edema?
A)Hypotonic solution
B)Hypertonic solution
C)Isotonic solution
D)Lactated Ringer's solution
Q4) What is the purpose of transparent dressings on a IV?
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Noninvasive Positive-Pressure Ventilation
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Q1) Which of the following is another name for the peak inspiratory pressure achieved during BiPAP ventilation?
A)Expiratory positive airway pressure (EPAP)
B)Inspiratory positive airway pressure (IPAP)
C)Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
D)Baseline pressure
Q2) A COPD patient is being ventilated on a noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (NPPV)in the spontaneous/timed mode of ventilation.The ventilator is not triggering each time the patient attempts to initiate a breath.What can be done?
Q3) Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation has been applied the most to patients with what diagnosis?
A)Acute hypoxemic respiratory failure
B)Severe acute asthma
C)Acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D)Acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema
Q4) A patient on a full face mask on noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (NPPV)is swallowing air and having trouble exhaling due to a leak around the naso-gastric (NG)tube.What can be done?
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Continuous Mechanical Ventilation
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Q1) When considering types of ventilation,which of the following is NOT an advantage of invasive positive-pressure ventilation?
A)Better regulation of minute ventilation especially in volume modes
B)Improved delivery of oxygen therapy
C)Better accuracy in monitoring parameters
D)Enhanced ability to communicate
Q2) Use of high pressure,large volume and increased oxygen tension can result in
A)VAP (ventilator associated pneumonia).
B)VILI (ventilator induced lung injury).
C)RSBI (rapid shallow breathing index).
D)MOV (maximum occluding volume).
Q3) For the initial ventilator setting,the inspiratory flowrate is ___________________
A)set at 70 lpm.
B)tidal volume time respiratory rate.
C)adjusted to allow adequate expiratory emptying of the lungs.
D)to give a 1:2 I:E ratio.
Q4) How does a practitioner measure airway resistance on a ventilator?
Q5) How is tubing compliance determined?
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Chapter 26: Advanced Modes of Mechanical Ventilation
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Q1) Application of dual control with breathing modes of ventilation is used
A)to simplify the ventilation strategy.
B)to reduce the number of health care providers needed to deliver care.
C)to reduce the work of breathing while maintaining minute volume and tidal volume.
D)prior to implementing high frequency ventilation
Q2) Mandatory minute volume is described by which of the following?
A)It is a totally assist mode used to wean a patient from the ventilator.
B)If patient does not breathe target minute volume ventilator will make up difference.
C)It is a control mode that requires the patient to breathe a target minute volume.
D)It uses set mandatory breaths with spontaneous tidal volume breaths.
Q3) Which of the following is true of THIGH with APRV?
A)It is the same as IPAP in BiPAP.
B)It keeps the alveoli recruited and inflated.
C)Time on Thigh is short than TLOW.
D)It is the same as plateau pressure in volume ventilation.
Q4) What is proportional assist ventilation?
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Chapter 27: Wave Form Analysis
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Q1) The respiratory care practitioner determines that a patient has increased airway resistance.How was this identified?
A)On the flow-volume loop by evaluating the shape of the curve
B)On the flow-volume loop by identifying the maximum delivered volume
C)On the pressure-volume loop by the amount of beaking
D)On the pressure-volume loop by the amount of bowing
Q2) Two scalar wave forms are combined to ___________________
A)identify presence of PEEP.
B)eliminate autoPEEP.
C)create a loop graphic.
D)demonstrate ventilation mode.
Q3) You are concerned that the ventilator patient you are assessing may have autoPEEP.How would you use ventilator graphics to identify whether or not this problem exists?
Q4) Which graphic displays can indicate adequacy of inspiratory flow during a ventilator inspiration and how are they used?
Q5) As the respiratory care practitioner assigned to a ventilator patient,how would you use ventilator graphics to identify patient effort?
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Chapter 28: Weaning and Discontinuance of Mechanical Ventilation
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Q1) Which of the following is the best predictor of successfully weaning a patient from a ventilator?
A)f/Vt ratio of less than 105
B)PaO /FIO ratio greater than 150-200
C)VD/VT ratio less than 0.55-0.60
D)MIP less than -20 to -30 cm H O
Q2) What four general questions should the respiratory care practitioner assess prior to weaning from mechanical ventilation?
Q3) Prior to weaning or discontinuing ventilatory support the first step a respiratory therapist should take is to ______________
A)identify the hospital critical care census.
B)assess the amount and level of sedation.
C)determine if the patient has ventilator associated pneumonia.
D)determine if the cause of ventilator failure has been resolved.
Q4) What should the respiratory therapist do if the patient does not pass the SBT?
Q5) How do cardiovascular problems result in ventilator dependence?
Q6) How do neurological problems result in ventilator dependence?
Q7) How do respiratory conditions result in ventilator dependence?
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Chapter 29: Neonatal Mechanical Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient of any age cannot adequately provide enough oxygen for the body and sufficiently eliminate carbon dioxide,the term used is ______________
A)ventilatory insufficiency.
B)apnea.
C)respiratory failure.
D)CO retainer.
Q2) Transillumination is which of the following?
A)Used to reduce bilirubin
B)A technique to detect a pneumothorax in newborns
C)The light reflecting from the ventilator
D)Used to identify pulmonary secretions
Q3) The respiratory care practitioner has a patient that has a good respiratory effort but he wants to control the inspiratory pressure while maintaining the patient's tidal volume and minute volume.The RCP should consider which of the following modes?
A)Pressure support
B)Pressure assist control
C)Volume support
D)Time cycled,pressure limited ventilation
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