Cardiopulmonary Assessment
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Cardiopulmonary Assessment explores the principles, techniques, and clinical applications involved in evaluating the function and health of the heart and lungs. The course covers a range of diagnostic tools, including patient history, physical examination, auscultation, blood gas analysis, pulmonary function testing, ECG interpretation, and imaging modalities. Emphasis is placed on recognizing normal and abnormal findings, understanding the pathophysiology of cardiopulmonary disorders, and integrating assessment data to guide clinical decision-making and patient management in various healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Manifestations and Assessment of Respiratory Disease 7th Edition by Terry Des Jardins
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44 Chapters
673 Verified Questions
673 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Patient Interview
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is conducting a patient interview. The main purpose of this interview is to:
A) review data with the patient.
B) gather subjective data from the patient.
C) gather objective data from the patient.
D) fill out the history form or checklist.
Answer: B
Q2) When closing the interview, the respiratory therapist should do which of the following?
1) Recheck the patient's vital signs.
2) Thank the patient.
3) Ask if the patient has any questions.
4) Close the door behind himself or herself for patient privacy.
A) 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Physical Examination and Its Basis in Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient comes into the emergency department with a complaint of centrally located, constant chest pain. What is his most likely problem?
A) Pleurisy
B) Myocardial ischemia
C) Pneumothorax
D) Fractured rib
Answer: B
Q2) When would induced hypothermia be indicated?
A) During brain surgery
B) During bowel surgery
C) To break a fever
D) To treat carbon monoxide poisoning
Answer: A
Q3) A dull percussion note would be heard in all of the following situations EXCEPT:
A) atelectasis.
B) pleural thickening.
C) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
D) consolidation.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Pulmonary Function Study Assessments
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has restrictive lung disease. In response to this, which of the following are typically found?
1) Decreased lung compliance
2) Increased ventilatory rate
3) Increased tidal volume
4) Decreased ventilatory rate
A) 3, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2
D) 1, 3, 4
Answer: C
Q2) All of the following are true of the peak expiratory flow rate test EXCEPT it:
A) is effort dependent.
B) is taken from the FVC test results.
C) is taken from the MVV test results.
D) assesses large upper airways.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Arterial Blood Gas Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of acute alveolar hyperventilation is:
A) hypoxemia.
B) metabolic alkalosis.
C) tachycardia.
D) supplemental oxygen administration.
Q2) Which of the following would be a normal person's arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO<sub>2</sub>)?
A) 25 to 35 mm Hg
B) 35 to 45 mm Hg
C) 45 to 60 mm Hg
D) 60 to 80 mm Hg
Q3) Mechanical ventilation is indicated for which of the following ABG results?
A) pH 7.56; PaCO<sub>2</sub> 27; HCO<sub>3</sub> 23; PaO<sub>2</sub> 63
B) pH 7.23; PaCO<sub>2</sub> 63; HCO<sub>3</sub> 26; PaO<sub>2</sub> 52
C) pH 7.36; PaCO<sub>2</sub> 79; HCO<sub>3</sub> 43; PaO<sub>2</sub> 61
D) pH 7.52; PaCO<sub>2</sub> 51; HCO<sub>3</sub> 40; PaO<sub>2</sub> 46
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Chapter 5: Oxygenation Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a chronic respiratory disorder and vasoconstriction of her pulmonary vascular system. What is the chief control over this vasoconstriction?
A) Low PAO<sub>2</sub>
B) Low PaO<sub>2</sub>
C) High PaCO<sub>2</sub>
D) High pH
Q2) A condition that will cause anemic hypoxia is:
A) cyanide poisoning.
B) decreased cardiac output or heart failure.
C) polycythemia.
D) carbon monoxide poisoning.
Q3) The respiratory therapist is reviewing a patient's electronic medical record to try to verify if the patient has tissue hypoxia. Which of the following laboratory values is MOST likely to correlate with tissue hypoxia?
A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Thrombocytopenia
C) Hypokalemia
D) Bilirubinemia
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) A central venous pressure (CVP) catheter is used to:
A) measure left atrial pressure.
B) measure left ventricular work.
C) monitor right ventricular function.
D) monitor left ventricular function.
Q2) The T wave represents:
A) depolarization of the ventricles.
B) repolarization of the ventricles.
C) depolarization of the atria.
D) repolarization of the atria.
Q3) A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) can be identified by which of the following?
1) There is no P wave.
2) The QRS is wide.
3) The QRS looks normal.
4) The heart rate is altered.
A) 1
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 3, 4
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Chapter 7: Radiologic Examination of the Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be normal findings of the heart and its surrounding area?
1) The left hilum is about 2 cm higher than the right hilum.
2) Most of the heart shadow is to the right of the sternum.
3) Calcified lymph nodes indicate an adult patient.
4) The cardiothoracic ratio is less than 1:2.
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) A PET/CT scan can provide which of the following?
1) Early detection of cancer metastasis
2) Accurate staging of cancer
3) Radiation treatment of the cancer
4) Activation of chemotherapy drugs within the tumor
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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9
Chapter 8: Other Important Tests and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) In response to a viral infection, which of the following can be expected to be seen in the white blood cell count?
A) Increased lymphocytes
B) Decreased monocytes
C) Increased basophils
D) Decreased platelets
Q2) In a normal differential white blood cell (WBC) count, which of the following would have the highest number?
A) Neutrophils
B) Basophils
C) Eosinophils
D) Lymphocytes
Q3) Therapeutic bronchoscopy is used for all of the following EXCEPT:
A) to remove a foreign body.
B) in selective lavage.
C) in bronchiectasis evaluation.
D) to manage life-threatening hemoptysis.
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Chapter 9: The Therapist-Driven Protocol Program and the
Role of the Respiratory Therapist
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be associated with the distal airway and alveolar weakening clinical scenario?
1) Depressed diaphragm on chest radiograph
2) Use of accessory muscles of inspiration
3) Rhonchi and wheezing
4) Increased PEFR
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) When performing a therapist-driven protocol (TDP), the severity assessment determines:
A) the frequency of performing a treatment modality.
B) the baseline dyspnea index.
C) the number of hospital days covered by the insurance carrier.
D) how urgently the physician wants the patient treated.
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Chapter 10: Respiratory Failure and the Mechanical
Ventilation Protocol
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are clinical indicators of Type I respiratory failure?
1) Decreased PaO<sub>2</sub>
2) Increased P(A-a)O<sub>2</sub>
3) Decreased PaO<sub>2</sub>/FIO<sub>2</sub>
4) Decreased ÓS/ÓT
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) All of the following are contraindications for noninvasive ventilation (NIV) EXCEPT:
A) facial and head trauma.
B) community-acquired pneumonia.
C) copious, viscous sputum.
D) severe upper GI bleeding.
Q3) All of the following are causes of hypercapnic respiratory failure EXCEPT: A) impending ventilatory failure.
B) apnea.
C) severe refractory hypoxemia.
D) acute ventilatory failure.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Recording Skills: The Basis for Data Collection,
Organization, Assessment Skill
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which agency should be notified if violations of HIPAA regulations have occurred?
A) HHS
B) FDA
C) CDC
D) Joint Commission
Q2) All of the following statements are true regarding a patient's chart EXCEPT:
A) the patient's chart is a legal record and can be used in court.
B) accreditation agencies may access a patient's chart to assess appropriateness of care.
C) the patient's insurance company may review the patient's chart before providing reimbursement.
D) the patient's spouse may access the patient's chart without authorization by the patient.
Q3) When reviewing a SOAPIER progress note, the R stands for:
A) revisions made in the original plan.
B) reimbursement by the insurance carrier.
C) respiratory care notes.
D) resuscitation status of the patient.
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Chapter 12: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD),
Chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following clinical manifestations are associated with late-stage chronic bronchitis?
1) Rhonchi
2) Cor pulmonale
3) Digital clubbing
4) Stocky, overweight build
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) What is the term for the inward movement of the lateral chest wall during inspiration?
A) Truman's sign
B) Burton's sign
C) Carr's sign
D) Hoover's sign
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Chapter 13: Asthma
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following ABG values would be consistent with ventilatory failure with hypoxemia in a patient with severe status asthmaticus?
1) Increased PaCO<sub>2</sub>
2) Decreased SaO<sub>2</sub>
3) Increased pH
4) Decreased pH
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following is the acronym for the bronchospasm and airway inflammation resulting from the aspergillus fungus?
A) ABPA
B) AGA
C) ACOS
D) AEC
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Bronchiectasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Management of the patient with bronchiectasis may include:
1) expectorants.
2) early childhood immunizations.
3) lung resection.
4) lung transplant.
A) 1, 3
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) The preferred radiographic method to evaluate a patient's bronchiectasis is:
A) posterior-anterior radiograph (x-ray).
B) anterior-posterior radiograph (x-ray).
C) computed tomography (CT).
D) bronchogram.
Q3) In developed countries, the most common cause of acquired bronchiectasis is:
A) emphysema.
B) lung abscess.
C) cystic fibrosis.
D) pulmonary fibrosis.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Cystic Fibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are commonly used in the management of cystic fibrosis?
1) Pancreatic enzymes and vitamins
2) Antibiotics
3) Postural drainage
4) Expectorants
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) All of the following chest assessment findings may be seen in a patient with cystic fibrosis EXCEPT:
A) decreased tactile and vocal fremitus.
B) dull percussion note.
C) diminished breath sounds.
D) decreased heart sounds.
Q3) Men with cystic fibrosis have difficulty reproducing because the:
A) fallopian tubes are blocked.
B) vas deferens is missing or underdeveloped.
C) men are impotent.
D) women do not ovulate.
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Chapter 16: Pneumonia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ventilator-acquired pneumonia (VAP) is defined as pneumonia that develops:
A) between 24 and 48 hours after endotracheal intubation.
B) more than 48 to 72 hours after endotracheal intubation.
C) less than 24 hours after mechanical ventilation is started.
D) more than 48 to 72 hours after mechanical ventilation is started.
Q2) Which of the following pulmonary infections is most commonly seen in patients with AIDS?
A) Anaerobic
B) Pneumocystis jiroveci
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae (Diplococcus pneumoniae)
D) Legionella pneumophila
Q3) All of the following are considered to be normal causative agents for community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) EXCEPT:
A) staphylococcal pneumonia.
B) Haemophilus influenza.
C) Legionella pneumophila.
D) Candida albicans.
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18
Chapter 17: Lung Abscess
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist heard a pleural friction rub while performing a chest assessment on a patient with a lung abscess. What does this likely indicate?
A) The lungs are hyperinflated.
B) Hemoptysis has developed.
C) The abscess is located near the pleural surface.
D) A pneumothorax has developed.
Q2) Following a cerebrovascular accident, a patient lying in the supine position aspirated gastric contents. In what area(s) of the lungs would a lung abscess be most likely to develop?
1) Posterior segments of the upper lobes
2) Apical segments of the upper lobes
3) Superior segments of the lower lobes
4) Anterior segments of both lower lobes
A) 1
B) 1, 3
C) 1, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
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19
Chapter 18: Tuberculosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The preferred stain that is used to identify the TB organism is called:
A) Gram stain.
B) fluorescent acid-fast stain.
C) Ziehl-Neelsen.
D) gentian violet.
Q2) Risk factors predisposing a person to TB include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) having HIV/AIDS.
B) being immunosuppressed.
C) African American or Hispanic heritage.
D) malnutrition.
Q3) When a person has TB spread throughout the body, it is found in all of the following EXCEPT:
A) upper lobes.
B) kidneys.
C) brain.
D) lower lobes.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Fungal Diseases of the Lung
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient lives in Chicago and has HIV and a weakened immune system. What fungal infection is the patient at risk of developing?
A) Mycoplasma infection
B) Blastomycosis
C) Streptococcal infection
D) Disseminated histoplasmosis
Q2) After cleaning out his chicken coop, a farmer has developed a fungal lung infection. What type of infection is it most likely to be?
A) Coccidioidomycosis
B) Blastomycosis
C) Histoplasmosis
D) Cryptococcal infection
Q3) All of the following are identified as opportunistic yeast pathogens EXCEPT:
A) Candida albicans.
B) Cryptococcus neoformans.
C) Aspergillus.
D) Mycoplasma.
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Chapter 20: Pulmonary Edema
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lymphatic insufficiency could be caused by:
1) lung transplantation.
2) lymphangitic carcinomatosis.
3) removal of pleural fluid.
4) decreased oncotic pressure.
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) A patient with cardiogenic pulmonary edema would be expected to have all of the following chest radiograph findings EXCEPT:
A) depressed diaphragms.
B) pleural effusion.
C) cardiomegaly.
D) bilateral "butterfly" pattern fluffy infiltrates.
Q3) All of the following are causes of cardiogenic pulmonary edema EXCEPT:
A) myocardial infarction.
B) mitral valve disease.
C) allergic reaction to drugs.
D) congenital heart defects.
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Chapter 21: Pulmonary Vascular Disease: Pulmonary
Embolism and Pulmonary Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pulmonary embolus produces which of the following /Ó abnormalities?
A) True shunting
B) Shunt effect
C) Dead space effect
D) True dead space
Q2) In order to prevent pulmonary emboli, a filter may be placed into which of the following vessels to prevent clots from being carried into the pulmonary circulation?
A) Subclavian vein
B) Pulmonary artery
C) Thoracic duct
D) Inferior vena cava
E) Femoral artery
Q3) All of the following medications may be used to prevent pulmonary emboli EXCEPT:
A) enoxaparin.
B) dalteparin.
C) tinzaparin.
D) reteplase.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Flail Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) While assessing a patient who was involved in a serious car crash and hit his steering wheel, the respiratory therapist observes that a section of his left anterior chest wall sinks inward during inspiration. What is the most likely cause?
A) Pulmonary fibrosis
B) Flail chest
C) Pneumothorax
D) Cardiac tamponade
Q2) Which breath sounds would be expected to be heard when auscultating the chest of a patient with a flail chest?
A) Diminished over the flail chest section only
B) Diminished over both lungs
C) Crackles over the flail chest section
D) Bilateral wheezing
Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding paradoxical chest movement?
A) With inspiration, the flail section moves outward.
B) The trachea deviates away from the flail side of the chest.
C) During inspiration, the flail section moves inward.
D) During exhalation, the flail area moves inward.
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Chapter 23: Pneumothorax
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 17-year-old male has been brought to the hospital because he felt short of breath after being tackled in a football game. A chest radiograph shows a broken rib and a 20% pneumothorax in the right lung. Which of the following conditions would be present?
A) Closed pneumothorax
B) Pleural effusion
C) Iatrogenic pneumothorax
D) Sucking chest wound
Q2) Which type of pneumothorax would result from the rupture of bulla on the surface of a lung?
A) Spontaneous pneumothorax
B) Iatrogenic pneumothorax
C) Open pneumothorax
D) Visceral pneumothorax
Q3) A patient has a pneumothorax with a sucking chest wound resulting in the movement of gas from one lung to another. This is called:
A) panting.
B) paradoxical movement.
C) bidirectional flow.
D) pendelluft.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Pleural Effusion and Empyema
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the absence of surgery or trauma, what does the presence of blood in the pleural fluid most likely signify?
A) Malignant disease
B) Fungal disease
C) Chylothorax
D) Tuberculosis
Q2) The anatomic alteration caused by a pleural effusion is:
A) pulmonary fibrosis.
B) separation of the visceral and parietal pleura.
C) adhesion of the visceral and parietal pleura.
D) pulmonary edema.
Q3) Which of the following are associated with a transudative pleural effusion?
1) Thin and watery fluid
2) Fluid has a lot of cellular debris
3) Fluid has high protein count
4) Few blood cells
A) 2, 3
B) 1, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
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Chapter 25: Kyphoscoliosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with severe kyphoscoliosis and chronic ventilatory failure with hypoxemia will have all of the following laboratory findings, EXCEPT:
A) increased PaCO<sub>2</sub>.
B) increased hematocrit.
C) normal pH.
D) increased pH.
Q2) A patient has a 45-degree curvature of her spine. The physician is most likely to recommend which of the following treatments?
A) Surgical intervention
B) Observation checkup in about 3 months
C) Milwaukee brace
D) Boston brace
Q3) What is the name for the degree of lateral spinal curvature calculated from a radiograph?
A) Carr angle
B) Sheumann angle
C) Cobb angle
D) Sands angle
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Chapter 26: Interstitial Lung Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What category of medications is commonly prescribed to manage interstitial lung disease?
A) Antibiotics
B) Mucolytics
C) Corticosteroids
D) Diuretics
Q2) The diffusing capacity of a patient with coal worker's pneumoconiosis or silicosis would be expected to be:
A) normal.
B) increased.
C) decreased.
D) variable based on the age of the patient.
Q3) Which ILD is a smoking-related condition characterized by star-shaped nodules in the midlung?
A) PLCH
B) LIP
C) BOOP
D) CWP
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Chapter 27: Cancer of the Lung
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Sample Questions
Q1) Benign tumors:
1) are metastatic.
2) grow slowly.
3) are usually encapsulated.
4) grow in a disordered manner.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) A patient with lung cancer has learned the cancer has metastasized to three other locations. What is the recommended treatment option?
A) Radiation therapy to all known tumors
B) Surgical removal of all known tumors
C) Chemotherapy
D) Needle aspiration of the tumors
Q3) The most common cause of lung cancer is:
A) cigarette smoking.
B) air pollution.
C) exposure to asbestos.
D) exposure to radon gas.
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Chapter 28: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are current ventilatory strategies in the treatment of ARDS?
1) Large tidal volume
2) Small tidal volume
3) Rapid respiratory rates
4) Slow respiratory rates
A) 2
B) 3
C) 1, 4
D) 2, 3
Q2) According to the Berlin definition of ARDS, what does a PaO<sub>2</sub>/FIO<sub>2 </sub>ratio of 150 mm Hg indicate for a patient on mechanical ventilation with a PEEP of 10 cm H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>
A) Normal lungs
B) Mild ARDS
C) Moderate ARDS
D) Severe ARDS
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Chapter 29: Guillain-Barré Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 75-kg, 50-year-old male patient has Guillain-Barré syndrome. His most recent assessment indicates his VC is 900 mL and NIF is -16 cm H<sub>2</sub>O. What plan should the respiratory therapist recommend?
A) Initiate EMG monitoring.
B) Initiate continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).
C) Initiate mechanical ventilation.
D) Reassess the patient each hour.
Q2) Approximately what percentage of patients with GBS develop respiratory muscle paralysis?
A) <5%
B) 6% to 9%
C) 10% to 30%
D) 31% to 50%
Q3) The diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome is based on all of the following EXCEPT:
A) urinalysis shows elevated blood urea nitrogen.
B) abnormal electromyography results.
C) cerebrospinal fluid shows elevated protein level.
D) clinical history.
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Chapter 30: Myasthenia Gravis
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Q1) Which of the following disrupt(s) the nerve impulse transmission in myasthenia gravis?
A) MuSK
B) Edrophonium
C) IgG antibodies
D) RNS
Q2) Which demographic group(s) is/are most likely to develop myasthenia gravis?
1) African-American females >40 years of age
2) White males <40 years of age
3) Females 15 to 35 years of age
4) Males 40 to 70 years of age
A) 1
B) 4
C) 2, 3
D) 3, 4
Q3) In which clinical classification of myasthenia gravis is intubation indicated?
A) Class I
B) Class 1IIb
C) Class V
D) Class II
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Chapter 31: Sleep Apnea
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are found during rapid eye movement sleep EXCEPT:
A) the diaphragm functions normally.
B) the person is easy to awaken.
C) dreaming occurs.
D) skeletal muscles are paralyzed.
Q2) First-line treatment for the management of hyperventilation-related central sleep apnea includes:
A) CPAP.
B) adaptive servo-ventilation (VPAP).
C) mechanical ventilation.
D) palatopharyngoplasty.
Q3) The rationale behind the use of supplemental oxygen in the treatment of sleep apnea is to:
A) preoxygenate the airway prior to the apneic episodes.
B) stimulate the central chemoreceptors and prevent apneic episodes.
C) increase the respiratory drive in the medulla.
D) blow off carbon dioxide in the alveolus.
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33
Chapter 32: Clinical Manifestations Common with Newborn and
Early Childhood Respiratory Dis
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Q1) A premature infant is found to be "bobbing" her head. This is important because it can be a sign of which of the following?
A) Hypoxemia
B) Renal failure
C) Intracranial hemorrhage
D) Respiratory distress
E) Septic shock
Q2) A neonatal patient is found to have grunting on expiration. What physiologic effect does this produce?
A) Increased vital capacity
B) Increased PAO<sub>2</sub>
C) Decreased PaCO<sub>2</sub>
D) Closes the ductus arteriosus
Q3) A neonate in respiratory distress will often dilate his or her nostrils to:
A) facilitate inspiration.
B) nurse more easily.
C) sneeze out amniotic fluid.
D) raise the intrapleural pressure.
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Chapter 33: Meconium Aspiration Syndrome
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Q1) Indications that a newborn has aspirated meconium include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) high Apgar score.
B) meconium in amniotic fluid.
C) newborn is not actively breathing.
D) meconium staining on skin.
Q2) Infants who are older than 42 weeks' gestation are at greater risk for MAS because they have:
1) a full bowel.
2) strong peristalsis.
3) amniotic fluid in their stomach.
4) sphincter tone.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 4
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Chapter 34: Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn
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Q1) In reviewing the chart of a neonate who has developed TTN, what is a likely finding related to the Apgar score?
A) The 1- and 5-minute scores are good.
B) The 1-minute score is good and 5-minute score is bad.
C) The 1-minute score is bad and 5-minute score is good.
D) Both scores are bad.
Q2) At what gestational age is TTN most common?
A) 26 to 28 weeks' gestational age
B) 28 to 30 weeks' gestational age
C) 34 to 36 weeks' gestational age
D) 38 to 40 weeks' gestational age
Q3) Which of the following breathing patterns are associated with TTN?
1) Normal rate
2) Rapid rate
3) Higher than normal tidal volume
4) Shallow tidal volume
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 4
D) 2, 4
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) The neonate with RDS would have a phosphatidylglycerol (PG) level that is:
A) present.
B) absent.
C) above normal.
D) below normal.
Q2) The standard of care to evaluate the oxygenation status of a premature infant with RDS is by:
A) capillary blood gas (CBG).
B) arterial blood gas (ABG).
C) capnography.
D) pulse oximetry.
E) transcutaneous monitoring.
Q3) The hyaline membrane seen in the alveoli of a neonate with RDS is similar to the anatomic alteration found in what other pulmonary disease?
A) Bacterial pneumonia
B) Pulmonary fibrosis
C) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
D) Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS)
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Chapter 36: Pulmonary Air Leak Syndromes
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does pulmonary interstitial emphysema (PIE) affect lung function?
1) Increased airway resistance
2) Decreased lung compliance
3) Increased lung compliance
4) Decreased airway resistance
A) 1
B) 1, 2
C) 3, 4
D) 2, 4
Q2) Which of the following chest radiograph findings would confirm the presence of PIE?
1) Mediastinal shift to the unaffected side
2) Air below the diaphragms
3) Lung hyperinflation
4) Fine, bubbly appearance of the lungs
A) 2, 3
B) 1, 4
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 3, 4
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Chapter 37: Respiratory Syncytial Virus (Bronchiolitis or Pneumonitis)
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Q1) Anatomic alterations related to an RSV infection can lead to all of the following EXCEPT:
A) pneumomediastinum.
B) partial airway obstruction.
C) decreased airway lumen.
D) complete airway obstruction.
Q2) A respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infection will cause which of the following anatomic alterations of the lungs?
1) Chemical pneumonitis of the small airways
2) Peribronchiolar mononuclear infiltration
3) Small airway epithelial necrosis
4) Edema of the epiglottis and upper airway
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 38: Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia
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Q1) Which of the following "new" BPD criteria would indicate a severe case of the condition?
1) Requires >30% oxygen upon discharge
2) Requires nasal CPAP at discharge
3) Requires room air upon discharge
4) Required supplemental oxygen for first 28 days of life
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 3, 4
Q2) An infant is beginning to develop BPD. What can be given to promote pulmonary vasodilation?
A) Furosemide (LasixÒ)
B) Inhaled nitric oxide (iNO)
C) Inhaled albuterol
D) FIO<sub>2</sub> >50%
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Chapter 39: Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn infant shows respiratory distress upon delivery. He is observed to have a scaphoid abdomen. Auscultation reveals diminished breath sounds with heart sounds on the right side of the chest. What is the infant's most likely diagnosis?
A) Tension pneumothorax
B) CDH
C) Pneumoperitoneum
D) Abdominal aortic aneurysm
Q2) What effect would a substantial left-sided CDH have on pulmonary function test findings?
A) A restrictive pulmonary disorder
B) An obstructive pulmonary disorder
C) An equally restrictive and obstructive disorder
D) A restrictive disorder with increased DLCO
Q3) What additional procedures or treatments might be required for a patient with a CDH and significant pulmonary hypoplasia?
A) Plasmapheresis
B) ECMO
C) Cardiac pacemaker
D) Bronchoscopy
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Chapter 40: Congenital Heart Diseases
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Q1) What is the most common type of VSD?
A) Inlet ventricular septal defect
B) Perimembranous ventricular septal defect
C) Muscular ventricular septal defect
D) Conoventricular ventricular septal defect
Q2) What is the most common cyanotic congenital cardiac defect in neonates?
A) ASD
B) VSD
C) TGA
D) TOF
Q3) What is the most common form of TGA?
A) a-TGA
B) b-TGA
C) c-TGA
D) d-TGA
Q4) Which cardiac anomaly is associated with coeur-en-sabot on a chest radiograph?
A) TOF
B) ASD
C) VSD
D) PDA
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Croup Syndrome: Laryngotracheobronchitis and
Acute Epiglottitis
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Q1) Childhood vaccination is done to prevent which of the following possible causes of epiglottitis?
A) Haemophilus influenza type B
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Diphtheria
D) Parainfluenza viruses
Q2) The diagnosis of LTB is made by all of the following EXCEPT the child:
A) has inspiratory stridor and barking cough.
B) has a normal temperature or low fever.
C) has a significant fever.
D) can drink without difficulty.
Q3) The diagnosis of epiglottitis is aided by:
1) laying the patient down and observing the throat with a tongue blade.
2) visualization of the throat during tracheal intubation.
3) observing if the patient can swallow.
4) observing how the patient holds his or her tongue.
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Near Drowning/Wet Drowning
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Q1) Warming techniques for a cold-water near-drowning victim include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) cooling the extremities and warming the body core.
B) warming the inspired oxygen.
C) heated intravenous solutions.
D) heated lavage of the pericardial space.
Q2) Which of the following breath sounds would be expected during auscultation of a wet-drowning victim?
1) Bronchovesicular
2) Vesicular
3) Crackles
4) Friction rub
A) 1
B) 3
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
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Chapter 43: Smoke Inhalation, Thermal Injuries, and Carbon
Monoxide Intoxication
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Q1) In an industrial accident, an adult incurred burns over his head and neck, both arms, and his anterior trunk. What percent of his BSA was burned?
A) 27%
B) 36%
C) 45%
D) 54%
Q2) What level of carbon monoxide toxicity is associated with coma, convulsions, and Cheyne-Stokes respiration?
A) 10% to 20% COHb
B) 20% to 30% COHb
C) 30% to 50% COHb
D) 50% to 60% COHb
Q3) Which of the following conditions occurs in 20% to 30% of hospitalized fire victims with facial burns?
A) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
B) Upper airway obstruction
C) Pneumonia
D) Pulmonary embolism
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Chapter 44: Atelectasis
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Q1) Which of the following is the least commonly found type of postoperative atelectasis?
A) Primary lobule
B) Lung segment
C) Lung lobe
D) Entire lung
Q2) All of the following would be found in a patient with atelectasis EXCEPT:
A) normal shunt fraction.
B) whispered pectoriloquy.
C) chest radiograph shows increased density in areas of atelectasis.
D) diminished breath sounds.
Q3) After surgery, a patient must lie supine in bed. Because of this, atelectasis is thought to have developed. What chest radiograph finding would confirm this?
A) Depression of the hemidiaphragms
B) Pulmonary interstitial emphysema (PIE)
C) Increased density in both upper lobe areas
D) Increased density in both posterior lower lobe areas
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