Cardiopulmonary Assessment Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Cardiopulmonary Assessment is a foundational course that covers the principles and methodologies used to evaluate the health and function of the heart and lungs. Students will learn to conduct patient interviews, perform physical examinations, and interpret diagnostic tests such as electrocardiograms, chest radiographs, arterial blood gases, and pulmonary function tests. The course emphasizes the integration of clinical findings to assess cardiopulmonary status, recognize abnormalities, and support clinical decision-making for a variety of cardiopulmonary conditions. Through theoretical instruction and practical case studies, learners develop critical skills essential for patient assessment in healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Manifestations and Assessment of Respiratory Disease 7th Edition by Terry Des Jardins
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44 Chapters
673 Verified Questions
673 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/248 Page 2
Chapter 1: The Patient Interview
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is conducting a patient interview. The therapist chooses to use open-ended questions. Open-ended questions allow the therapist to do all of the following EXCEPT:
A) gather information when a patient introduces a new topic.
B) introduce a new subject area.
C) begin the interview process.
D) gather specific information.
Answer: D
Q2) When closing the interview, the respiratory therapist should do which of the following?
1) Recheck the patient's vital signs.
2) Thank the patient.
3) Ask if the patient has any questions.
4) Close the door behind himself or herself for patient privacy.
A) 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Physical Examination and Its Basis in Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 50-year-old patient has a heart rate by palpation of 120 bpm. How should this be interpreted?
A) Within the normal range for an adult
B) An error since a stethoscope was not used
C) Bradycardia
D) Tachycardia
Answer: D
Q2) The respiratory therapist is monitoring the blood pressure of a patient in the emergency department and notes that the blood pressure is 15 mm Hg less on inspiration than on expiration. Which of the following would most likely result in this finding?
A) The patient is hypovolemic.
B) The patient has a pulmonary embolism.
C) The patient is having a myocardial infarction.
D) The patient is having a severe exacerbation of asthma.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Pulmonary Function Study Assessments
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is performing a pulmonary function study on a patient who has periodic symptoms of asthma. The pulmonary function results are within normal limits. What further testing can the therapist recommend to aid in either confirming or negating the possible diagnosis?
A) Inhaled methacholine challenge testing
B) Body plethysmography
C) Inhaled digitalis
D) Warm, humid air challenge
Answer: A
Q2) All of the following are true of the peak expiratory flow rate test EXCEPT it:
A) is effort dependent.
B) is taken from the FVC test results.
C) is taken from the MVV test results.
D) assesses large upper airways.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Arterial Blood Gas Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following will be seen in the arterial blood gas values of a patient with acute ventilatory failure EXCEPT a(n):
A) acidic pH.
B) near-normal bicarbonate level.
C) alkaline pH.
D) high carbon dioxide level.
Q2) A patient has had chronic ventilatory failure for several years. What is the primary factor that determines her breathing pattern?
A) Muscle efficiency
B) Ventilatory efficiency
C) Heart function
D) Work efficiency
Q3) What causes stimulation of the peripheral chemoreceptors to increase the ventilatory rate?
A) Pain or anxiety
B) PaCO<sub>2</sub> of about 40 mm Hg
C) PaO<sub>2</sub> of about 60 mm Hg
D) Venous pH of 7.30 to 7.40
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Chapter 5: Oxygenation Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a sample of arterial blood is analyzed for the pressure of oxygen (PaO<sub>2</sub>), the value comes from the:
A) blood plasma.
B) leukocytes.
C) hemoglobin.
D) erythrocytes.
Q2) Oxygen consumption:
1) increases with exercise.
2) is the amount of oxygen used by the body.
3) is inversely related to carbon dioxide production.
4) is about 250 mL/min in the resting adult.
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 4
Q3) A condition that will cause anemic hypoxia is:
A) cyanide poisoning.
B) decreased cardiac output or heart failure.
C) polycythemia.
D) carbon monoxide poisoning.
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) can be identified by which of the following?
1) There is no P wave.
2) The QRS is wide.
3) The QRS looks normal.
4) The heart rate is altered.
A) 1
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) In which of the following is the atrial rate faster than the ventricular rate?
1) Atrial fibrillation
2) Sinus bradycardia
3) Atrial flutter
4) Sinus tachycardia
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
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Chapter 7: Radiologic Examination of the Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a long smoking history and has recently coughed up blood. The physician suspects that there may be lung cancer, but no lesions can be seen on a standard chest radiograph. A CT scan offers all of the following advantages EXCEPT:
A) bronchial tumors can be seen.
B) lung tumors as small as 0.4 cm can be seen.
C) a tumor's metabolism can be identified.
D) a mediastinal mass can be seen.
Q2) A PET/CT scan can provide which of the following?
1) Early detection of cancer metastasis
2) Accurate staging of cancer
3) Radiation treatment of the cancer
4) Activation of chemotherapy drugs within the tumor
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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9
Chapter 8: Other Important Tests and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 14-year-old patient has had a serious asthma attack. Her white blood cell count can be expected to show:
A) decreased neutrophils.
B) decreased erythrocytes.
C) increased eosinophils.
D) increased monocytes.
Q2) A patient has pneumonia and a right pleural effusion. If the pleural exudate fluid is infected, it will show:
1) a low protein level.
2) a high white blood cell count.
3) bacteria.
4) many red blood cells.
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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10
Chapter 9: The Therapist-Driven Protocol Program and the
Role of the Respiratory Therapist
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be associated with the distal airway and alveolar weakening clinical scenario?
1) Depressed diaphragm on chest radiograph
2) Use of accessory muscles of inspiration
3) Rhonchi and wheezing
4) Increased PEFR
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following pathophysiologic mechanisms would be expected in the excessive bronchial secretions clinical scenario?
1) Decreased ventilation/perfusion ratio
2) Increased airway resistance
3) Stimulation of the deflation reflex
4) Stimulation of the irritant reflex
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 4
11
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Chapter 10: Respiratory Failure and the Mechanical
Ventilation Protocol
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are causes of hypercapnic respiratory failure EXCEPT:
A) impending ventilatory failure.
B) apnea.
C) severe refractory hypoxemia.
D) acute ventilatory failure.
Q2) What effect would a pulmonary embolism have on the VD/VT and the /Ó ratio?
A) The VD/VT would increase and the /Ó would decrease.
B) The VD/VT would decrease and the /Ó would increase.
C) The VD/VT and the /Ó ratios would both increase.
D) The VD/VT and the /Ó ratios would both decrease.
Q3) All of the following are contraindications for noninvasive ventilation (NIV) EXCEPT:
A) facial and head trauma.
B) community-acquired pneumonia.
C) copious, viscous sputum.
D) severe upper GI bleeding.
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Chapter 11: Recording Skills: The Basis for
Organization, Assessment Skill
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which section of the SOAPIER format should the patient's response to a specific treatment modality be recorded?
A) Assessment
B) Implementation
C) Observation
D) Evaluation
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) regulations?
A) A bank can check for a preexisting condition.
B) The patient controls access to his or her medical records.
C) Psychotherapy and medical records are treated equally.
D) An employer can check for a preexisting condition.
Q3) Which agency should be notified if violations of HIPAA regulations have occurred?
A) HHS
B) FDA
C) CDC
D) Joint Commission
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD),
Chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema
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Sample Questions
Q1) The management of COPD may include:
1) annual influenza immunization.
2) bronchopulmonary hygiene procedures.
3) bronchodilators.
4) smoking cessation.
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) In the United States, the primary factor leading to the development of COPD is:
A) a1-antitrypsin deficiency.
B) recurrent respiratory infections.
C) socioeconomic status.
D) tobacco smoking.
Q3) What is the term for the inward movement of the lateral chest wall during inspiration?
A) Truman's sign
B) Burton's sign
C) Carr's sign
D) Hoover's sign
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Chapter 13: Asthma
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what age does asthma severity peak in males?
A) 1 and 3 years
B) 5 and 7 years
C) 18 and 20 years
D) 30 and 32 years
Q2) A sputum sample from a patient has been sent to the laboratory for analysis. Which of the following findings could help confirm the diagnosis of extrinsic asthma?
A) Increased IgE level
B) Increased erythrocyte count
C) Colonization of P. aeruginosa
D) Decreased IgE level
Q3) What is the term for an inspiratory fall in systolic blood pressure exceeding 10 mm Hg?
A) Pulsus paradoxus
B) Stage I hypotension
C) Swanson's phenomenon
D) Hoover's sign
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15
Chapter 14: Bronchiectasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with long-standing bronchiectasis also has pneumonia. Which of the following hematology test results would be expected?
1) Decreased red blood cell (RBC) count
2) Decreased white blood cell (WBC) count
3) Elevated WBC count
4) Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) A mother brought her 2-year-old son to the physician. He has been coughing up secretions and having wheezy breathing ever since choking on food 6 months ago. The physician diagnosed the boy with bronchiectasis. What could be the cause?
A) Cystic fibrosis
B) Measles
C) Asthma
D) Aspiration
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Chapter 15: Cystic Fibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common chest assessment findings in a patient with cystic fibrosis include:
1) tracheal deviation.
2) breath sounds reveal crackles and rhonchi.
3) dull percussion note.
4) hyperresonant percussion note.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2
D) 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following is NOT recommended in children with cystic fibrosis?
A) Systemic corticosteroids
B) High-dose ibuprofen
C) Inhaled antibiotics
D) Inhaled DNase (Dornase alpha) (Pulmozyme)
Q3) Men with cystic fibrosis have difficulty reproducing because the:
A) fallopian tubes are blocked.
B) vas deferens is missing or underdeveloped.
C) men are impotent.
D) women do not ovulate.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Pneumonia
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a bacterial pneumonia. What kills the invading bacteria?
A) Macrophages
B) Red blood cells
C) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
D) Serum fluid
Q2) Ventilator-acquired pneumonia (VAP) is defined as pneumonia that develops:
A) between 24 and 48 hours after endotracheal intubation.
B) more than 48 to 72 hours after endotracheal intubation.
C) less than 24 hours after mechanical ventilation is started.
D) more than 48 to 72 hours after mechanical ventilation is started.
Q3) A 28-year-old patient who has dogs, parakeets, and cats as pets has been admitted with pneumonia. It is suspected that she acquired the infection from one of her pets. What organism is likely to be found in her sputum?
A) Bacteroides melaninogenicus
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Chlamydia psittaci
D) Haemophilus influenzae
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Chapter 17: Lung Abscess
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are predisposing factors to aspiration of oropharyngeal secretions and/or gastric contents into the lower respiratory tract?
1) General anesthesia
2) Head trauma
3) Seizure disorder
4) Alcohol abuse
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) The respiratory therapist heard a pleural friction rub while performing a chest assessment on a patient with a lung abscess. What does this likely indicate?
A) The lungs are hyperinflated.
B) Hemoptysis has developed.
C) The abscess is located near the pleural surface.
D) A pneumothorax has developed.
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Chapter 18: Tuberculosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A negative tuberculin test would be demonstrated by an induration (wheal) of what size?
A) 4 mm or less
B) 6 mm or less
C) 8 mm or greater
D) 10 mm or greater
Q2) The preferred stain that is used to identify the TB organism is called:
A) Gram stain.
B) fluorescent acid-fast stain.
C) Ziehl-Neelsen.
D) gentian violet.
Q3) When a person has TB spread throughout the body, it is found in all of the following EXCEPT:
A) upper lobes.
B) kidneys.
C) brain.
D) lower lobes.
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Chapter 19: Fungal Diseases of the Lung
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Sample Questions
Q1) After cleaning out his chicken coop, a farmer has developed a fungal lung infection. What type of infection is it most likely to be?
A) Coccidioidomycosis
B) Blastomycosis
C) Histoplasmosis
D) Cryptococcal infection
Q2) Fungal lung infections are usually spread by:
A) inhaling spores.
B) blood.
C) contact with infected sputum.
D) inhaling infected droplets.
Q3) In the Midwestern part of the United States, what is the most common fungal infection of the lungs?
A) Cryptococcosis
B) Histoplasmosis
C) Blastomycosis
D) Coccidioidomycosis
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21
Chapter 20: Pulmonary Edema
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the normal hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary capillaries?
A) 0 to 5 mm Hg
B) 5 to 10 mm Hg
C) 10 to 15 mm Hg
D) 15 to 20 mm Hg
Q2) The respiratory therapist is asked to evaluate a patient with suspected congestive heart failure. Which of the following laboratory tests should the respiratory therapist recommend to evaluate the patient for possible congestive heart failure?
A) Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
B) Lactic dehydrogenase (LDH)
C) Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
D) Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
Q3) All of the following are positive risk factors for coronary heart disease (CHD) EXCEPT: A) elevated homocysteine level.
B) elevated vitamin E level.
C) hypertension.
D) diabetes mellitus.
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22
Chapter 21: Pulmonary Vascular Disease: Pulmonary
Embolism and Pulmonary Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are associated with the formation of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) EXCEPT:
A) blood vessel injury.
B) age greater than 40 years.
C) hypercoagulability.
D) venous stasis.
Q2) The sudden onset of which of the following signs and symptoms indicates a pulmonary embolism?
1) Wheezing
2) Coughing out blood-streaked sputum
3) Cyanosis
4) Sudden shortness of breath
A) 3, 4
B) 1, 2
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 22: Flail Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following initial blood gas results would a respiratory therapist expect to find in a patient with a mild flail chest?
A) Elevated pH and elevated SaO<sub>2</sub>
B) Decreased pH and decreased SaO<sub>2</sub>
C) Increased pH and decreased SaO<sub>2</sub>
D) Decreased pH and increased SaO<sub>2</sub>
Q2) How many days of ventilatory support are anticipated for a patient with a flail chest to allow sufficient time for bone healing?
A) 3 to 5 days
B) 5 to 10 days
C) 12 to 15 days
D) 18 to 21 days
Q3) What is the primary cause of hypoxemia in a patient with a severe flail chest?
A) Myocardial contusion
B) Hemorrhage
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Alveolar atelectasis
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24
Chapter 23: Pneumothorax
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary cause of hypotension in a patient with a large pneumothorax?
A) Pain
B) Decreased venous return to the heart
C) Tracheal compression
D) Atelectasis
Q2) A patient had a penetrating knife wound to her chest wall that resulted in a valvular pneumothorax. What is another term for this condition?
A) Spontaneous pneumothorax
B) Tension pneumothorax
C) Iatrogenic pneumothorax
D) Benign pneumothorax
Q3) After a patient experienced four pneumothoraces of her right lung over a 24-month period, the physician recommended a procedure to reduce the occurrence of future pneumothoraces. Which procedure would the physician have recommended?
A) Pleurodesis
B) Right pneumonectomy
C) Permanent right-sided thoracostomy tube
D) Right upper lobectomy
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25
Chapter 24: Pleural Effusion and Empyema
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common cause of a chylothorax?
A) Thoracic duct trauma
B) Abdominal tumor
C) GERD
D) Pyloric stenosis
Q2) Treatment of an empyema usually includes:
A) pleurodesis.
B) thoracostomy tube insertion.
C) lobectomy.
D) pneumonectomy.
Q3) A respiratory therapist is assisting a physician who is performing a thoracentesis. It is suspected that the patient has a chylothorax. How would the pleural effusion be described?
A) Milky white
B) Straw colored
C) Red
D) Green
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26
Chapter 25: Kyphoscoliosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Scoliosis is defined as a spinal curvature of _____ degrees.
A) >10
B) >20
C) >30
D) >40
Q2) For best results, how many hours per day should a SpineCor brace be worn?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 16
D) 20
Q3) In which of the following is bracing the primary form of treatment?
A) Adolescents with idiopathic scoliosis (AIS)
B) Patients with congenital scoliosis
C) Patients with neuromuscular scoliosis
D) Infants with idiopathic scoliosis
Q4) Which age group is most likely to develop idiopathic scoliosis?
A) Infants
B) Juveniles
C) Adolescents
D) Adults
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Interstitial Lung Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are interstitial lung diseases EXCEPT:
A) asbestosis.
B) sarcoidosis.
C) Staphylococcus.
D) silicosis.
Q2) A patient has just been diagnosed with Wegener's granulomatosis. Her long-term prognosis is:
A) excellent, with full recovery expected.
B) fair, with recovery expected after proper treatment.
C) guarded; recovery is possible after proper treatment.
D) poor; it is considered a fatal disease.
Q3) All of the following are associated with lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM) EXCEPT:
A) recurrent chylothoraces and recurrent pneumothoraces.
B) increased airway obstruction.
C) postmenopausal women are primarily affected.
D) airway smooth muscle is affected.
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Chapter 27: Cancer of the Lung
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Sample Questions
Q1) Staging of a lung cancer is based on which of these criteria?
1) L, for location of the tumor
2) M, for extent of metastasis
3) N, for lymph node involvement
4) T, for extent of the primary tumor
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following is (are) non-small cell lung cancer(s)?
1) Large cell carcinoma
2) Squamous carcinoma
3) Adenocarcinoma
4) Oat cell carcinoma
A) 1
B) 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 28: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a prolonged case of ARDS. What changes would be expected in the patient's alveolar cells?
A) Multiplication of the type I cells
B) Influx of macrophages
C) Hyperplasia and swelling of the type II cells
D) Development of emphysema
Q2) Which of the following pulmonary changes are associated with ARDS?
1) Abnormal surfactant
2) Interstitial edema
3) Decreased shunt
4) Narrowing of the alveolar-capillary membrane
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3
D) 1, 2, 3
Q3) The chest radiograph finding indicative of severe ARDS is:
A) "ground-glass" appearance of the lungs.
B) pleural effusion.
C) bilateral hyperinflation of the lungs.
D) tracheal deviation.
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Chapter 29: Guillain-Barré Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 75-kg, 50-year-old male patient has Guillain-Barré syndrome. His most recent assessment indicates his VC is 900 mL and NIF is -16 cm H<sub>2</sub>O. What plan should the respiratory therapist recommend?
A) Initiate EMG monitoring.
B) Initiate continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).
C) Initiate mechanical ventilation.
D) Reassess the patient each hour.
Q2) When a person has Guillain-Barré syndrome, how are peripheral nerves affected?
A) They hypertrophy.
B) They fail to reproduce.
C) The myelin sheath is removed.
D) Schwann cells attack the peripheral nerves.
Q3) Approximately what percentage of patients with GBS develop respiratory muscle paralysis?
A) <5%
B) 6% to 9%
C) 10% to 30%
D) 31% to 50%
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Chapter 30: Myasthenia Gravis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which demographic group(s) is/are most likely to develop myasthenia gravis?
1) African-American females >40 years of age
2) White males <40 years of age
3) Females 15 to 35 years of age
4) Males 40 to 70 years of age
A) 1
B) 4
C) 2, 3
D) 3, 4
Q2) The major pathologic or structural changes of the lungs associated with myasthenic crisis include:
1) alveolar consolidation.
2) airway obstruction.
3) mucus accumulation.
4) atelectasis.
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 31: Sleep Apnea
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following may be an advantage of in-home portable sleep testing EXCEPT:
A) convenience.
B) patient acceptance.
C) can be easily performed over multiple nights.
D) decreased cost.
E) published standards for scoring or interpretation.
Q2) All of the following are found during rapid eye movement sleep EXCEPT:
A) the diaphragm functions normally.
B) the person is easy to awaken.
C) dreaming occurs.
D) skeletal muscles are paralyzed.
Q3) First-line treatment for the management of hyperventilation-related central sleep apnea includes:
A) CPAP.
B) adaptive servo-ventilation (VPAP).
C) mechanical ventilation.
D) palatopharyngoplasty.
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Chapter 32: Clinical Manifestations Common with Newborn and
Early Childhood Respiratory Dis
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Q1) Apnea of prematurity can be defined as:
1) respiratory pause causing bradycardia.
2) cycles of short breathing pauses followed by faster breathing.
3) no breathing for >20 seconds.
4) sudden apnea and death (crib death).
A) 4
B) 2
C) 1, 3
D) 3, 4
Q2) A premature infant is found to be "bobbing" her head. This is important because it can be a sign of which of the following?
A) Hypoxemia
B) Renal failure
C) Intracranial hemorrhage
D) Respiratory distress
E) Septic shock
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Chapter 33: Meconium Aspiration Syndrome
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Q1) A neonate with MAS has hypoxemia. Which of the following can be a pulmonary effect of this?
A) Status asthmaticus
B) Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN)
C) Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)
D) Pulmonary fibrosis
Q2) Risk factors for the development of MAS include:
1) being postterm.
2) a mother who is hypertensive.
3) a mother who is toxemic.
4) being the first twin born.
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q3) A common finding in a neonate with MAS is a respiratory rate that is:
A) under 40/min.
B) between 40 and 60/min.
C) well over 60/min.
D) cyclical with faster and then slower breaths.
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Chapter 34: Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn
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Q1) What are the radiologic findings anticipated on a chest radiograph taken 2 hours after delivery in a newborn suspected of having TTN?
A) Normal lung fields
B) Hyperlucency
C) Flattened diaphragms
D) Bulging intercostal spaces
Q2) What respiratory rate would be expected during the physical exam of a patient with TTN?
A) 80 to 120 breaths/min
B) 30 to 40 breaths/min
C) 20 to 30 breaths/min
D) Less than 20 breaths/min
Q3) Initially, a mild case of TTN manifests itself clinically as a(n) _____ disorder.
A) restrictive pulmonary
B) obstructive pulmonary
C) equally restrictive and obstructive
D) initially obstructive and then a progressively restrictive
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) A mother is about to deliver a 25-weeks' gestation infant. What therapeutic intervention should the respiratory therapist be prepared to give to minimize the risk of RDS?
A) Mask CPAP
B) Airway suctioning
C) Exogenous surfactant
D) Mechanical ventilation
Q2) What special environmental concerns are there with a neonate with RDS in order to avoid compromising his or her oxygenation?
A) Keeping a normal body temperature
B) Placing a bilirubin light on the neonate
C) Keeping the infant cool
D) Humidifying the inhaled oxygen
Q3) All of the following amniotic fluid lab findings would indicate mature fetal lungs EXCEPT:
A) S:A ratio is >55.
B) PG is present.
C) L:S ratio is 2:1.
D) L:S ratio is 1:2.
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Chapter 36: Pulmonary Air Leak Syndromes
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Q1) Which of the following chest radiograph findings would confirm the presence of PIE?
1) Mediastinal shift to the unaffected side
2) Air below the diaphragms
3) Lung hyperinflation
4) Fine, bubbly appearance of the lungs
A) 2, 3
B) 1, 4
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) A physician is performing transillumination to determine whether a neonate has a pneumothorax. What finding would confirm the presence of a pneumothorax?
A) The trachea will be illuminated.
B) Light will shine through the hole in the lung.
C) There will be increased illumination on the unaffected side.
D) There will be increased illumination on the affected side.
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Chapter 37: Respiratory Syncytial Virus (Bronchiolitis or Pneumonitis)
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Q1) A chest radiograph was taken of a patient with RSV. What finding can be expected?
A) Elevated diaphragms
B) "Steeple point" sign
C) Lobar atelectasis
D) Pneumothorax
Q2) Infants with RSV do NOT benefit from which of the following?
A) Chest percussion and drainage (CPT & D)
B) High-flow nasal cannula therapy (HFNC)
C) Bulb suctioning of the nares
D) Nebulized hypertonic saline
Q3) The physical examination of a neonate with RSV will often reveal all of the following EXCEPT:
A) change in point of maximum impulse (PMI).
B) excessive secretions.
C) expiratory grunting.
D) cyanosis.
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Chapter 38: Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) What changes result when stress fractures of the capillary endothelium and basement membranes develop during mechanical ventilation?
A) Fluid leakage into alveolar spaces
B) Bronchospasm
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) TTN
Q2) What is the most significant treatment of the neonate for the prevention of BPD?
A) Corticosteroids
B) Diuretic therapy
C) Vitamin E therapy
D) Exogenous surfactant
Q3) An infant is beginning to develop BPD. What can be given to promote pulmonary vasodilation?
A) Furosemide (LasixÒ)
B) Inhaled nitric oxide (iNO)
C) Inhaled albuterol
D) FIO<sub>2</sub> >50%
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Chapter 39: Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
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Q1) What is the medical term for the condition associated with some cases of CDH in which the heart is pushed to the right side of the chest?
A) Morgagni's movement
B) Dextrocardia
C) Ambidextrocardia
D) Bochdalek's shift
Q2) Which of the following is described as abnormal elevation of an intact diaphragm into the chest cavity?
A) Diaphragmatic eventration
B) Morgagni's hernia
C) Bochdalek's hernia
D) Diaphragmatic altimetry
Q3) What effect would a substantial left-sided CDH have on pulmonary function test findings?
A) A restrictive pulmonary disorder
B) An obstructive pulmonary disorder
C) An equally restrictive and obstructive disorder
D) A restrictive disorder with increased DLCO
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Chapter 40: Congenital Heart Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following is used to confirm the diagnosis of ASD?
A) Electromyogram
B) Electrocardiogram
C) Echocardiogram
D) Electrophoresis
Q2) What is the most common congenital heart disorder?
A) ASD
B) VSD
C) TGA
D) TOF
Q3) All of the following are associated with tetralogy of Fallot EXCEPT:
A) pulmonary artery stenosis.
B) dextroposition of the aorta.
C) right ventricular hypertrophy.
D) atrial septal defect.
Q4) What is the most common form of TGA?
A) a-TGA
B) b-TGA
C) c-TGA
D) d-TGA
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Chapter 41: Croup Syndrome: Laryngotracheobronchitis and
Acute Epiglottitis
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Q1) A patient has epiglottitis. This condition will affect which of the following?
1) Pharynx
2) Aryepiglottic folds
3) False vocal cords
4) Trachea
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 2, 3, 4
Q2) A patient has been diagnosed with bacterial epiglottitis. Which of the following antibiotics should the respiratory therapist most likely recommend?
A) Amikacin (Amikin)
B) Tobramycin (Nebcin)
C) Cefalexin (Keflex)
D) Ampicillin/sulbactam (Unasyn)
Q3) What is the main clinical risk facing a patient with epiglottitis?
A) Secretions will block the trachea.
B) The epiglottis will bleed.
C) The laryngeal inlet may become covered by the epiglottis.
Page 43
D) The vocal cords will spasm and close the laryngeal inlet.
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Chapter 42: Near Drowning/Wet Drowning
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Q1) What water temperature has been shown to be a favorable prognostic factor in near drowning?
A) Higher than 104° F
B) Between 98.6° F and 104° F
C) Between 70° F and 98° F
D) Between 27° F and 70° F
Q2) In the United States, what percentage of pediatric drowning victims are male?
A) 20%
B) 40%
C) 60%
D) 80%
Q3) After an extended time underwater, a near-drowning victim will most likely have:
A) tachypnea.
B) a normal respiratory rate.
C) bradypnea.
D) apnea.
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Chapter 43: Smoke Inhalation, Thermal Injuries, and Carbon
Monoxide Intoxication
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Q1) All of the following will be typically found in the air of an enclosed house fire EXCEPT: A) steam.
B) carbon monoxide.
C) hydrogen cyanide.
D) hydrogen chloride.
Q2) Which of the following would be recommended for the treatment of cyanide poisoning?
A) Aztreonam
B) Albuterol sulfate
C) Amyl nitrate
D) Aclidinium bromide
Q3) A 10-year-old patient has inhaled hot gases, and an inspection of her mouth shows edema and blisters. What should the respiratory therapist recommend?
A) Perform a bronchoscopy to evaluate the trachea.
B) Perform endotracheal intubation.
C) Monitor her SpO<sub>2</sub> once per shift.
D) Administer an aerosol treatment with racemic epinephrine.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Atelectasis
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Q1) Examples of the types of surgical procedures that often result in atelectasis include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) open heart surgery.
B) craniotomy.
C) gallbladder removal.
D) splenectomy.
Q2) All of the following conditions can lead to atelectasis EXCEPT:
A) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
B) acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
C) pleural effusion.
D) pneumothorax.
Q3) A patient has a tumor blocking the left mainstem bronchus. What additional factor would favor the development of atelectasis?
A) Breathing a nitric oxide mix (iNO)
B) Breathing a helium/oxygen mix (heliox)
C) Breathing a high percentage of oxygen
D) Breathing a low percentage of oxygen
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