Cardiopulmonary Anatomy and Physiology
Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Cardiopulmonary Anatomy and Physiology offers a comprehensive exploration of the structural and functional relationships within the cardiovascular and respiratory systems. This course examines the anatomy of the heart, blood vessels, lungs, and associated organs, as well as the physiological mechanisms that govern circulation, gas exchange, and cellular respiration. Students will learn how these systems maintain homeostasis, respond to physiological stress, and interact with each other to support overall health. Emphasis is placed on understanding normal processes, diagnostic assessment, and foundational concepts critical for advanced study in healthcare, respiratory therapy, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Manifestations Assessment of Respiratory Disease 6th Edition by Terry Des Jardins
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Chapter 1: The Patient Interview
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Sample Questions
Q1) The direct question interview format is used to:
1) speed up the interview.
2) let the patient fully explain his/her situation.
3) help the respiratory therapist show empathy.
4) gather specific information.
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: A
Q2) For there to be a successful interview, the respiratory therapist must: 1) provide leading questions to guide the patient.
2) be an active listener.
3) reassure the patient.
4) have genuine concern.
A)2, 4
B)1, 3
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Physical Examination and Its Basis in Physiology
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Q1) While assessing an unconscious patient, you observe that her breathing becomes progressively faster and deeper and then progressively becomes slower and more shallow. After that, there is a period of apnea before the cycle begins again. This breathing pattern would be identified as:
A) Cheyne-Stokes.
B)tachypnea.
C)Kussmaul.
D)hyperventilation.
Answer: A
Q2) Your 50-year-old patient would be said to have hypotension when her:
A) blood pressure is 130/90 mm Hg.
B)blood pressure is 85/55 mm Hg.
C)heart rate is 55 bpm.
D)pulse pressure is 40 mm Hg.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Pulmonary Function Study Assessments
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Q1) Total lung capacity is composed of all of the following EXCEPT:
A) IRV.
B)IC.
C)ERV.
D)RV.
Answer: A
Q2) The pulmonary diffusion capacity of carbon monoxide test is used to:
A) assess the patient's blood carbon monoxide level.
B)remove carbon monoxide from the patient's blood.
C)measure the residual volume.
D)assess the alveolar-capillary membrane.
Answer: D
Q3) A special indirect measurement procedure must be done to find the following:
A) Inspiratory reserve volume
B)Residual volume
C)Expiratory reserve volume
D)Inspiratory capacity
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Arterial Blood Gas Assessments
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Q1) Common causes of metabolic alkalosis include:
1) diuretic therapy.
2) vomiting.
3) excessive sodium bicarbonate administration.
4) gastric suctioning.
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following would be a normal person's venous oxygen pressure (PaO<sub>2</sub>)?
A) 35 to 45 mm Hg
B)45 to 80 mm Hg
C)80 to 100 mm Hg
D)100 to 120 mm Hg
Q3) Common causes of metabolic acidosis include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) diabetic ketoacidosis.
B)shallow breathing from a sedative overdose.
C)lactic acidosis.
D)renal (kidney) failure.
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Chapter 5: Oxygenation Assessments
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Q1) Polycythemia:
1) is a condition of too many red blood cells.
2) is a condition of too few red blood cells.
3) is caused by lack of iron in the diet.
4) is the body's response to chronic hypoxemia.
A)1, 2
B)2, 3
C)1, 4
D)2, 4
Q2) An increased cardiac output causes the:
1) C(a-v)O<sub>2</sub> to decrease.
2) SvO<sub>2</sub> to increase.
3) Total O<sub>2</sub> delivery to decrease.
4) O<sub>2</sub>ER to increase.
A)1
B)2, 3
C)3, 4
D)1, 2
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System Assessments
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Q1) Which of the following hemodynamic changes are commonly seen in a patient with pulmonary edema?
1) Increased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP)
2) Increased pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)
3) Decreased mean pulmonary artery pressure (PA)
4) Decreased cardiac output (CO)
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following will be found in a patient with asystole?
1) Increased ventricular activity
2) Absence of electrical activity
3) No blood pressure
4) Highly variable heart rate
A)2
B)1, 4
C)2, 3
D)1, 3, 4
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Chapter 7: Radiologic Examination of the Chest
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Q1) Which of the following is true of a chest radiograph?
A) Lateral films are shot through one side of an upright patient.
B)AP films are typically taken in the x-ray department.
C)PA films artificially increase the size of the heart shadow.
D)Lateral decubitus films are shot with the patient lying supine.
Q2) A PET/CT scan can provide all of the following:
1) Early detection of cancer metastasis
2) Accurate staging of cancer
3) Radiation treatment of the cancer
4) Activation of chemotherapy drugs within the tumor
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) The chest radiograph shows blunting of the patient's costophrenic angles. What does this suggest?
A) The patient did not take a deep enough breath.
B)Lung cancer
C)Pleural fluid
D)Underpenetrated exposure on the film
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Chapter 8: Other Important Tests and Procedures
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Q1) In response to a viral infection, the following can be expected to be seen in the white blood cell count:
A) Increased lymphocytes
B)Decreased monocytes
C)Increased basophils
D)Decreased platelets
Q2) In a normal differential white blood cell (WBC) count, which of the following would have the highest number?
A) Neutrophils
B)Basophils
C)Eosinophils
D)Lymphocytes
Q3) Therapeutic bronchoscopy is used for all of the following EXCEPT:
A) to remove a foreign body.
B)in selective lavage.
C)in bronchiectasis evaluation.
D)to manage life-threatening hemoptysis.
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Chapter 9: The Therapist-Driven Protocol Program and the
Role of the Respiratory Care Practitioner
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 45-year-old woman has acute respiratory failure. She is cyanotic with unstable vital signs. What therapist-driven protocol(s) should be implemented?
1) Oxygen therapy
2) Aerosolized medication therapy
3) Hyperinflation therapy
4) Mechanical ventilation
A)3
B)1, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Postural drainage, percussion, and vibration are part of what TDP?
A) Hyperinflation therapy
B)Bronchopulmonary hygiene therapy
C)Mechanical ventilation
D)Oxygen therapy
Q3) A TDP can be started after:
A) the nurse finishes his/her assessment.
B)the treatment is selected.
C)a physician's order for the TDP is received.
D)the patient's insurance carrier is contacted.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Recording Skills:
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Q1) According to the chapter text, which of the following are basic methods to record assessment data?
1) Computer documentation
2) Charting by exception
3) Source-oriented record
4) Problem-oriented medical record
A)1, 2
B)2, 3
C)1, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) When reviewing a SOAPIER progress note, the A stands for:
A) application of the data.
B)assessment of the data by the patient.
C)affect of the patient.
D)assessment of the data by the health-care worker.
Q3) When reviewing a SOAPIER progress note, the R stands for:
A) revisions made in the original plan.
B)refusal of care by the patient.
C)rejection by the physician.
D)resuscitate the patient.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease Copd:
Chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema
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Q1) A genetically linked cause of panlobular emphysema is:
A) bronchiectasis.
B)(\(\alpha\)<sub>1</sub>)-antitrypsin deficiency.
C)cystic fibrosis.
D)bronchial asthma.
Q2) The management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) includes: 1) annual influenza immunization.
2) bronchopulmonary hygiene procedures.
3) lung volume-reduction surgery.
4) smoking cessation.
A)1, 2
B)2, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) At which stage of COPD does the patient usually first seek medical attention because of worsening symptoms?
A) Stage I
B)Stage II
C)Stage III
D)Stage IV
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Chapter 12: Asthma
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Q1) Pulsus paradoxus would be manifested as:
A) a greater than 40 mm Hg difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressures.
B)inspiratory systolic blood pressure >10 mm Hg less than during expiration.
C)inspiratory diastolic blood pressure >10 mm Hg less than during expiration.
D)systolic and diastolic blood pressure reading being reversed.
Q2) Which of the following are associated with so-called intrinsic asthma?
1) Emotional stress
2) Cockroach allergen
3) GERD
4) Obesity
A)2, 4
B)1, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) Mechanical ventilation may be required during which of the following situations?
A) Status asthmaticus
B)Intrinsic asthma
C)Early asthmatic response
D)Nonatopic asthma
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Chapter 13: Bronchiectasis
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Q1) Which of the following pulmonary function testing values would be found in a patient with severe, obstructive bronchiectasis?
A) Decreased RV/TLC ratio
B)Increased PEFR
C)Increased FEF<sub>25%-75%</sub>
D)Decreased FEF<sub>25%-75%</sub>
Q2) For a patient with bronchiectasis to reduce the risk of his/her condition worsening, which of the following should be done?
1) Avoid air pollution.
2) Get an influenza vaccination.
3) Take an antibiotic every day.
4) Avoid smoking.
A)3, 4
B)1, 2, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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15
Chapter 14: Cystic Fibrosis
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Q1) Your patient has a lung infection with Pseudomonas aeruginosa. What antibiotic should be used against it?
A) Tobramycin (TOBI)
B)Dornase alpha (Pulmozyme)
C)Levalbuterol (Xopenex)
D)Pentamidine (NebuPent)
Q2) Which ethnic group has the greatest number of people with cystic fibrosis?
A) African Americans
B)Asians
C)Hispanics
D)whites
Q3) What complicating pulmonary problem is likely to happen to a patient with cystic fibrosis?
A) Pulmonary edema
B)Pleural effusion
C)Spontaneous pneumothorax
D)Cardiac tamponade
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Chapter 15: Pneumonia
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Q1) Which of the following can cause pneumonia?
1) Bacteria
2) Viruses
3) Prions
4) Fungi
A)1,2
B)2, 3
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) The most commonly prescribed class of antibiotic used against Gram-positive bacterial organisms is:
A) penicillin (Amoxicillin).
B)isoniazid (INH).
C)cephalosporins (Cefotaxime).
D)ketoconazole (Nizoral).
Q3) Overall, most cases of pneumonia are caused by:
A) viruses.
B)Gram-negative bacteria.
C)protozoa.
D)fungi.
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Chapter 16: Lung Abscess
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Q1) During the early stages of a lung abscess, the pathological process is the same as that of:
A) pulmonary edema.
B)bronchopulmonary dysplasia.
C)pneumonia.
D)pulmonary fibrosis.
Q2) Your patient has aspirated. This can result in all of the following EXCEPT:
A) fungal pneumonia.
B)anaerobic bacterial pneumonia.
C)chemical pneumonitis.
D)Both B and C
Q3) A patient with an abscess has coughed out a large volume of brown-colored, putrid sputum. What is the most likely class of microorganism that would cause this?
A) Fungi
B)Viruses
C)Aerobic bacteria
D)Anaerobic bacteria
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Chapter 17: Tuberculosis
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Q1) Which of the following clinical manifestations that are associated with TB?
1) Dull percussion note
2) Bronchospasm
3) Hyperresonant percussion note
4) Crackles
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 2
D)2, 3, 4
Q2) A patient who has an uncontrolled tuberculosis infection will show all of the following signs EXCEPT:
A) weight loss.
B)high fever.
C)bloody sputum.
D)night sweats.
Q3) Mycobacterium tuberculosis is most readily transmitted through:
A) drinking milk from or the milking of infected cows.
B)shaking hands and then rubbing your eye.
C)coughing.
D)accidental direct inoculation.
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Chapter 18: Fungal Diseases of the Lung
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Q1) During the advanced stages of a fungal lung infection, which of the following is commonly seen on the chest radiograph?
A) Hyperinflation
B)Spherical nodules
C)Right shift of the heart
D)Cavities
Q2) Your patient lives in Chicago and has HIV and a weakened immune system. What fungal infection is the patient at risk of developing?
A) Mycoplasma infection
B)Blastomycosis
C)Streptococcal infection
D)Disseminated histoplasmosis
Q3) Your patient with an advanced pulmonary fungal infection has cor pulmonale. How will this manifest itself?
A) Distended neck veins
B)Poor skin turgor
C)Wheezy breath sounds
D)Asymmetrical chest movement when breathing
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Chapter 19: Pulmonary Edema
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Q1) Which of the following is/are considered noncardiogenic cause(s) of increased capillary permeability?
1) Therapeutic lung radiation
2) Cigarette smoke
3) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
4) Inhaled phosgene
A)1
B)2, 3
C)1, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) The major pathologic or structural changes seen in the lungs with pulmonary edema include:
1) atelectasis.
2) bronchospasm.
3) high surface tension of alveolar fluids.
4) alveolar flooding.
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 3, 4
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Pulmonary Embolism
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Q1) The duplex venous ultrasonography test is used to:
A) diagnose a blood clot below the knee.
B)identify a saddle embolism.
C)diagnose a blood clot behind the knee or thigh.
D)identify a pulmonary infarction.
Q2) Predisposing factors of pulmonary emboli include: 1) varicose veins.
2) smoking.
3) obesity.
4) congestive heart failure.
A)2, 4
B)1, 3
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) The death of lung tissue that may result from an obstruction of the pulmonary artery is called a:
A) pulmonary embolism.
B)pleural effusion.
C)pulmonary infarction.
D)pulmonary empyema.
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Chapter 21: Flail Chest
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Q1) If mechanical ventilation is required, how long will it be needed to allow sufficient time for bone healing?
A) up to 5 days
B)5 to 10 days
C)10 to15 days
D)greater than 15 days for full bone healing
Q2) In severe cases of flail chest, all of the following will usually be needed:
1) Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
2) Pain management
3) Mechanical ventilation
4) Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
A)1, 2
B)2, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) Causes of a flail chest include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) blast injury.
B)motor vehicle accident.
C)split sternum for open heart surgery.
D)fall from high altitude.
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Chapter 22: Pneumothorax
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Q1) Your patient has a pneumothorax with a sucking chest wound resulting in the movement of air from one lung to another. This is called:
A) panting.
B)shunting.
C)bidirectional flow.
D)pendelluft.
Q2) Treatment of a 30% pneumothorax may include:
1) endotracheal intubation.
2) giving the patient supplemental oxygen.
3) placing a chest tube into the pleural space.
4) placing a chest tube into the pericardial space.
A)1, 3
B)2, 3
C)2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) An iatrogenic pneumothorax may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) positive-pressure mechanical ventilation.
B)pleural biopsy.
C)subclavian vein cannulation.
D)endotracheal intubation.
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Chapter 23: Effusion and Empyema
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Q1) Your patient has a pleural effusion from an unknown cause. A fluid sample has been taken for analysis. To help identify the cause of the effusion, all of the following tests should be performed EXCEPT:
A) specific gravity.
B)biochemical makeup.
C)cytologic examination.
D)check for bacteria.
Q2) The anatomic alteration caused by a pleural effusion is:
A) pulmonary fibrosis.
B)separation of the visceral and parietal pleura.
C)adhesion of the visceral and parietal pleura.
D)pulmonary edema.
Q3) Your patient has a large pleural effusion. It will act as a/an:
A) restrictive lung disorder.
B)obstructive lung disorder.
C)obstructive > restrictive lung disorder.
D)restrictive > obstructive lung disorder.
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Chapter 24: Kyphoscoliosis
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Q1) In a case of severe kyphoscoliosis, which of the following chest radiograph findings would be expected?
1) Enlarged heart
2) Atelectasis
3) Increased lung opacity
4) Thoracic deformity
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Your patient has scoliosis. On her chest radiograph, this would be seen as:
A) elevated diaphragms.
B)an S or C shape to the spine.
C)pectus carinatum.
D)pectus excavatum.
Q3) Posterior curvature of the spine best describes:
A) kyphoscoliosis.
B)spina bifida.
C)scoliosis.
D)kyphosis.
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Chapter 25: Interstitial Lung Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following classes of drugs has the largest group of agents that can cause interstitial lung disease?
A) Anticancer
B)Cardiovascular
C)Antibiotics
D)Antiinflammatory
Q2) All of the following are anatomic alterations of the lungs that may be found with the chronic stage of interstitial lung disease (ILD) EXCEPT:
A) honeycombing.
B)edema.
C)interstitial thickening.
D)granulomas.
Q3) What medication group is commonly administered to patients with interstitial lung disease?
A) Antibiotics
B)Mucolytics
C)Corticosteroids
D)Diuretics
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Chapter 26: Cancer of the Lung
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Q1) A patient has gone to see her physician after recently developing hoarseness and difficulty swallowing. What does this indicate?
A) Mediastinal cancer
B)Gastroesophageal reflux
C)Stomach cancer
D)Salivary gland cancer
Q2) Benign tumors:
1) are metastatic.
2) grow slowly.
3) are usually encapsulated.
4) grow in a disordered manner.
A)1
B)4
C)2, 3
D)1, 3, 4
Q3) The most common cause of lung cancer is:
A) smoking tobacco.
B)smoking marijuana.
C)inhaling asbestos.
D)inhaling radon gas.
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Chapter 27: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) The physiologic abnormalities found in the lungs of the ARDS patient include:
1) abnormal surfactant.
2) interstitial edema.
3) decreased shunt.
4) narrowing of the alveolar-capillary membrane.
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)1, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Commonly heard breath sounds in a patient with ARDS include: 1) vesicular.
2) bronchovesicular.
3) crackles.
4) bronchial.
A)4
B)1, 2
C)3, 4
D)2, 3, 4
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29
Chapter 28: Guillain-Barré Syndrome
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Q1) Guillain-Barré syndrome is most likely to be found in which demographic group?
A) African-American female 20-30 years of age
B)Hispanic male <45 years of age
C)Asian female 20-40 years of age
D)White male = 45 years of age
Q2) The major pathologic or structural changes of the lungs associated with ventilator failure accompanying Guillain-Barré syndrome include:
1) alveolar consolidation.
2) airway distortion and dilation.
3) mucosal edema.
4) atelectasis.
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 29: Myasthenia Gravis
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Q1) Myasthenia gravis:
1) interferes with acetylcholine transmission.
2) causes weakness of voluntary muscles.
3) is an ascending paralysis starting in the legs.
4) is usually preceded by a viral infection.
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3
Q2) Clinical indications that a patient with myasthenia gravis has acute ventilatory failure include:
1) NIF < -25 cm H<sub>2</sub>O
2) VC < 20 ml/kg
3) PaCO<sub>2</sub> > 45 mm Hg
4) pH < 7.35
A)1
B)2, 3
C)1, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 30: Sleep Apnea
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Q1) During a pulmonary function study, it was found that your patient has a sawtooth pattern on his flow-volume loop. What is this finding associated with?
A) Central sleep apnea
B)COPD
C)Obstructive sleep apnea
D)Laryngeal edema (epiglottitis)
Q2) Long-term management of central sleep apnea includes:
A) CPAP.
B)adaptive servo-ventilation (VPAP).
C)mechanical ventilation.
D)palatopharyngoplasty.
Q3) Signs and symptoms associated with obstructive sleep apnea include:
1) insomnia.
2) excessive daytime sleepiness.
3) hypothyroidism.
4) metabolic alkalosis.
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 31: Newborn and Early Childhood Respiratory Disorders
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Q1) Early clinical manifestations of an infant with respiratory distress include: 1) cyanosis.
2) substernal retractions.
3) expiratory grunting.
4) apnea.
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3
Q2) A premature neonate must generate a higher negative intrapleural pressure during inspiration than a term neonate. This will result in all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) cyanosis of dependent thoracic areas.
B)"seesaw" breathing pattern.
C)alveolar hyperinflation.
D)intercostal retractions.
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Chapter 32: Meconium Aspiration Syndrome
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Q1) An infant with MAS will show what clinical manifestations associated with the more negative intrapleural pressures needed during inspiration?
1) Seesaw breathing movement
2) Breath sounds reveal rhonchi and crackles
3) Expiratory grunting
4) Cyanosis of the dependent thoracic areas
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) About how many neonatal patients with MAS will require mechanical ventilation?
A) 50%
B)30%
C)10% to 15%
D)4%
Q3) How may a fetus respond when he/she becomes hypoxemic?
A) It stops making breathing efforts.
B)It makes rapid, shallow chest movements.
C)It makes very deep, gasping inspiratory movements.
D)It shows Kussmaul respirations.
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Chapter 33: Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn
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Q1) An infant with a mild case of TTN will show the following arterial blood gas value(s):
1) increased pH
2) decreased pH
3) low PaO<sub>2</sub>.
4) low PaCO<sub>2</sub>.
A)4
B)3, 4
C)2, 3
D)1, 3, 4
Q2) During the physical exam of a patient with TTN, what respiratory rate is usually found?
A) 80 to 120/min
B)60 to 80/min
C)30 to 60/min
D)Less than 30/min
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Chapter 34: Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) Your patient with RDS has alveolar hypoxia and pulmonary vasoconstriction. How will this affect his blood flow?
1) Blood shunts through the foramen ovale
2) Increased systemic blood flow
3) Blood shunts through the ductus arteriosus
4) Decreased blood flow to the gut
A)2, 4
B)1, 3
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) What special environmental concerns are there with a neonate with RDS in order to avoid compromising its oxygenation?
A) Keep a normal body temperature
B)Shine bilirubin lights on the neonate
C)Keep the infant cool
D)Humidify the inhaled oxygen
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Chapter 35: Pulmonary Air Leak Syndromes
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Q1) What pulmonary condition can be identified by a change in the point of maximum impulse (PMI)?
A) Pneumothorax
B)PIE
C)Pneumomediastinum
D)Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS)
Q2) Your neonatal patient needs to be on a mechanical ventilator for breathing support but has PIE. What change can be made to help treat the problem?
A) Begin the bronchopulmonary hygiene therapy protocol.
B)Decrease the oxygen percentage.
C)Initiate high-frequency ventilation.
D)Insert bilateral pleural chest tubes.
Q3) During the physical exam of a patient with PIE and a pneumoperitoneum, what respiratory rate is usually found?
A) 80 to 120/min
B)>60/min
C)30 to 60/min
D)Less than 30/min
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Chapter 36: Respiratory Syncytial Virus Infection
Bronchiolitis or Pneumonitis
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Q1) A respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infection will cause the following anatomic alterations of the lungs:
1) chemical pneumonitis of the small airways.
2) peribronchiolar mononuclear infiltration.
3) small airway epithelial necrosis.
4) edema of the epiglottis and upper airway.
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 2, 3
D)2, 3, 4
Q2) The physical examination of a neonate with RSV will often reveal all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) change in point of maximum impulse (PMI).
B)copious secretions.
C)expiratory grunting.
D)cyanosis.
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Chapter 37: Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia
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Q1) Your patient is beginning to develop BPD. What can be given to promote pulmonary vasodilation?
A) Furosemide (Lasix)
B)Inhaled nitric oxide (iNO)
C)Inhaled albuterol
D)> 50% oxygen
Q2) A patient with Stage 1 BPD would have which of the following chest radiograph findings?
A) Ground-glass granular pattern
B)Emphysematous bullae
C)Honeycomb appearance
D)Mediastinal shift
Q3) What can be given to a preterm infant to help reduce lung inflammation and the incidence of BPD?
A) Vitamin D
B)Exogenous surfactant
C)Ribavirin (Virazole)
D)Corticosteroids
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Chapter 38: Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
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Q1) What will happen to the developing lungs of a fetus with a CDH?
A) Pulmonary hypoplasia
B)Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
C)They will fill with amniotic fluid.
D)Meconium will be aspirated.
Q2) All of the following anatomic alterations may be found in a patient with a congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH), EXCEPT:
A) lungs are compressed.
B)atelectasis.
C)hyperinflation.
D)complete lung collapse.
Q3) All of the following chest radiograph findings would be found in a patient with a CDH, EXCEPT:
A) steeple point sign.
B)complete lung collapse.
C)lungs do not meet the chest wall.
D)heart is shifted to the unaffected side.
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Chapter 39: Croup Syndrome: Laryngotracheobronchitis and
Acute Epiglottitis
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Q1) What is the main clinical risk facing a patient with epiglottitis?
A) Secretions blocking the trachea
B)The epiglottis will bleed.
C)Laryngeal inlet covered by the epiglottis
D)The vocal cords will spasm and close.
Q2) Your patient has epiglottitis. This condition will affect which of the following:
1) Pharynx
2) Aryepiglottic folds
3) False vocal cords
4) Trachea
A)1, 2
B)2, 3
C)1, 2, 3
D)2, 3, 4
Q3) The diagnosis of LTB is made by all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) child has inspiratory stridor and barking cough.
B)child has a normal temperature or low fever.
C)child has a significant fever.
D)child can drink without difficulty.
Page 41
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Chapter 40: Near Drowning
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Q1) Warming techniques for a cold-water near drowning victim include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) cooling the extremities and warming the body.
B)warming the inspired oxygen.
C)heated intravenous solutions.
D)heated lavage of the pericardial space.
Q2) The pulmonary effects of a near-drowning victim inhaling water include:
1) alveolar consolidation.
2) bronchospasm.
3) production of frothy, white secretions.
4) pleural effusion.
A)2, 3
B)1, 2, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) Many adult drowning victims have been shown to have:
A) used alcohol.
B)had a stroke.
C)eaten just before swimming.
D)had a heart attack.
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Chapter 41: Smoke Inhalation and Thermal Injuries
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Q1) Late stage complications of extensive body surface burns include:
1) sepsis.
2) cyanide poisoning.
3) pneumonia.
4) pulmonary embolism.
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)2, 3
D)1, 3, 4
Q2) A 10-year-old patient has inhaled hot gases and an inspection of her mouth shows edema and blisters. What should be done?
A) Perform a bronchoscopy to evaluate the trachea.
B)Perform endotracheal intubation.
C)Check her pulse oximeter value.
D)Give her a breathing treatment with racemic epinephrine.
Q3) The long term effects of a smoke inhalation injury are:
A) obstructive lung disease.
B)restrictive lung disease.
C)obstructive and restrictive lung disease.
D)neither, there is normally complete healing.
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Chapter 42: Postoperative Atelectasis
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Q1) All of the following would be found in a patient with atelectasis, EXCEPT
A) Normal shunt fraction
B)Whispered pectoriloquy
C)Chest radiograph shows increased density in areas of atelectasis
D)Diminished breath sounds
Q2) Examples of the types of surgical procedures that often result in atelectasis include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) Open heart surgery
B)Craniotomy
C)Gallbladder removal
D)Splenectomy
Q3) Your patient has a tumor blocking the left mainstem bronchus. What additional factor would favor the development of atelectasis?
A) Breathing a nitric oxide mix (iNO)
B)Breathing a helium/oxygen mix (heliox)
C)Breathing a high percentage of oxygen
D)Breathing a low percentage of oxygen
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