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Cardiac Physiology explores the functional aspects of the heart, focusing on the mechanisms underlying cardiac muscle contraction, electrical activity, and the regulation of heart rate and blood flow. The course covers topics such as the anatomy of cardiac tissues, the cardiac cycle, electrophysiology, and the physiological basis of heart sounds and murmurs. It also examines the effects of neural and hormonal influences on the heart, mechanisms of cardiac output regulation, and the adaptations of the heart to various physiological and pathological conditions. Through this foundational knowledge, students gain insight into how the heart supports overall circulatory system function and maintains homeostasis.
Recommended Textbook
ECGs Made Easy 6th Edition by Barbara J Aehlert
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10 Chapters
507 Verified Questions
507 Flashcards
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62 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which side of the heart is a high-pressure system that pumps arterial blood to the systemic circulation?
A) Left
B) Right
Answer: A
Q2) _____ is the period of relaxation during which a heart chamber is filling.
Answer: Diastole
Q3) Chronotropy refers to an effect on _____.
A) heart rate
B) force of contraction
C) bronchial smooth muscle
D) speed of conduction through the atrioventricular node
Answer: A
Q4) The primary neurotransmitters of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system are _____.
A) dopamine and acetylcholine
B) muscarine and norepinephrine
C) acetylcholine and epinephrine
D) norepinephrine and epinephrine
Answer: D

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65 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The T wave represents ventricular _____.
A)Ventricular
B)Atrial
C)Repolarization
D)Augmented
E)Reciprocal changes
F)Indicative changes
G)Reentry
H)Ectopic
I)Positive
J)Amplitude
K)Voltmeter
L)Supranormal
M)Electrolyte
Answer: C
Q2) Depolarization is the same as contraction.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
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45 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rate of sinus tachycardia is _____ beats/min.
A) slower than 60
B) 40 to 80
C) 60 to 100
D) faster than 100
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following are possible causes of sinus tachycardia?
A) Hypothermia, hypovolemia
B) Hypoxia, calcium channel blocker overdose
C) Fever, pain, anxiety
D) Vomiting, vagal maneuvers
Answer: C
Q3) The rate of a sinus bradycardia is _____ beats/min.
A) slower than 60
B) 60 to 100
C) 80 to 120
D) faster than 100
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Delivery of an electrical current timed for delivery during the QRS complex is called
Q2) In atrial fibrillation, the AV node attempts to protect the ventricles from the hundreds of impulses bombarding it per minute by blocking many of the impulses generated by the irritable sites in the atria.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Atrial fibrillation is characterized by _____.
A) one P wave before each QRS and a regular ventricular rate of 60 to 100 beats/min
B) an erratic, wavy baseline and irregular ventricular rhythm
C) "saw-tooth"- or "picket-fence"-shaped waveforms preceding each QRS
D) P waves occurring before, during, or after the QRS complex; when seen, they are inverted
Q4) Most patients with type I atrial flutter develop atrial fibrillation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An accessory pathway that has one end attached to normal conductive tissue is called a(n) __________.
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Q1) A beat originating from the AV junction that appears later than the next expected sinus beat is called a(n) _______________.
Q2) List four reasons why the AV junction may assume responsibility for pacing the heart.
Q3) Common causes of junctional dysrhythmias may include acute coronary syndromes and _____.
A) hyperthyroidism
B) hypovolemia
C) digitalis toxicity
D) hypoxia
Q4) The pacemaker cells in the AV junction are located near the nonbranching portion of the bundle of His.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In a junctional rhythm viewed in lead II, where is the location of the P wave on the ECG if atrial and ventricular depolarization occur simultaneously?
A) Before the QRS complex
B) During the QRS complex
C) After the QRS complex
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name given to polymorphic VT that occurs in the presence of a long QT interval?
Q2) List four common causes of premature ventricular complexes.
Q3) Which of the following best describes an idioventricular rhythm?
A) Rapid, chaotic rhythm with no pattern or regularity
B) Gradual alteration in the amplitude and direction of the QRS; atrial rate indiscernible; ventricular rate 150 to 250 beats/min
C) Essentially regular ventricular rhythm with QRS complexes measuring 0.12 second or greater; atrial rate not discernible; ventricular rate 20 to 40 beats/min
D) Regular ventricular rhythm with QRS complexes measuring less than 0.10 second; P waves may occur before, during, or after the QRS; ventricular rate 40 to 60 beats/min
Q4) Transcutaneous pacing is the treatment of choice for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List four reasons when the ventricles may assume responsibility for pacing the heart.
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Q1) The ventricular rhythm is regular in second-degree AV block type I.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In second-degree and third-degree AV blocks, _____.
A) P waves occur regularly
B) every other P wave is dropped
C) P waves are periodically dropped
D) there are more QRS complexes than P waves
Q3) In 2:1 AV block, the PR interval _____.
A) shortens
B) lengthens
C) is absent
D) remains constant
Q4) Second-degree AV block type II is characterized by _____ intervals.
A) irregular P to P
B) irregular R to R
C) regular P to P intervals and regular R to R
D) irregular P to P intervals and irregular R to R
Q5) A _____ bundle branch block produces a QS pattern in lead V<sub>1</sub>.
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Q6) A _____ bundle branch block produces a RSR pattern in lead V<sub>1</sub>.
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Q1) In pacing, threshold refers to _____.
A) the ability of a pacemaker to recognize and respond to intrinsic electrical activity
B) the minimum level of electrical current needed to consistently depolarize the myocardium
C) a pacing lead with a single electrical pole at the distal tip of the pacing lead through which the stimulating pulse is delivered
D) the ability of a pacemaker to increase the pacing rate in response to physical activity or metabolic demand
Q2) In pacing, rate modulation refers to _____.
A) the ability of a pacemaker to recognize and respond to intrinsic electrical activity
B) the minimum level of electrical current needed to consistently depolarize the myocardium
C) the ability of a pacemaker to increase the pacing rate in response to physical activity or metabolic demand
D) a pacing lead with a single electrical pole at the distal tip of the pacing lead through which the stimulating pulse is delivered.
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Q1) Indicative ECG changes observed in leads V , V , V , and V suggest that the _____ wall of the _____ ventricle is affected.
A) posterior; right
B) anteroseptal; left
C) inferolateral; left
D) anterolateral; right
Q2) Hypertrophy refers to a(n) _____.
A) delay in impulse conduction through the SA node
B) disturbance in impulse conduction through the AV junction
C) increase in the diameter of a chamber of the heart caused by volume overload
D) increase in the thickness of a heart chamber because of chronic pressure overload
Q3) When you read a 12-lead ECG from left to right, the ECG tracing is continuous.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A standard 12-lead ECG provides views of the heart in _____.
A) the frontal plane only
B) the sagittal plane only
C) the horizontal plane only
D) both the frontal and the horizontal planes
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63 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proper positioning of the electrodes for leads I, II, and III requires placement on the patient's torso.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In an adult, the normal duration of the QRS complex is _____ seconds.
A) 0.12 to 0.20
B) 0.06 to 0.11
C) 0.04 to 0.14
D) 0.20 to 0.38
Q3) On an ECG, what is the first negative deflection seen after the P wave?
A) Q wave
B) R wave
C) S wave
D) T wave
Q4) How are frequent PACs usually managed?
A) Defibrillation
B) Synchronized cardioversion
C) Correcting the underlying cause
D) Administration of medications such as atropine or epinephrine
Q5) A _____ bundle branch block produces a QS pattern in lead V<sub>1</sub>.
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