Cancer Biology Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Cancer Biology explores the fundamental mechanisms underlying the development, progression, and treatment of cancer. This course provides an in-depth examination of the genetic, molecular, and cellular changes that lead to malignancy, including oncogenes, tumor suppressor genes, and the hallmarks of cancer. Key topics cover tumor microenvironment, metastasis, cancer immunology, and current strategies in cancer therapy. Through the integration of recent research and clinical approaches, students will gain a comprehensive understanding of how cancer arises, evolves, and can be targeted, laying a foundation for potential careers in biomedical research, medicine, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Diagnostics Fundamentals Methods and Clinical Applications 2nd Edition by Lela Buckingham
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16 Chapters
448 Verified Questions
448 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3839 Page 2
Chapter 1: DNA
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76572
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a purine?
A) Thymine
B) Cytosine
C) Adenine
D) Alanine
Answer: C
Q2) Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty identified the nature of Griffith's transforming factor in an experiment where it was destroyed by what treatment?
A) Protease
B) Ribonuclease
C) Deoxyribonuclease
D) Heating
Answer: C
Q3) The process of separating the two DNA strands into two single strands is called:
A) Denaturation
B) Bidirectional
C) Depolymerization
D) Synthesis
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: RNA
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In transcription, what is the starting material, the ending material, and the major enzyme that catalyzes the process?
A) DNA, RNA, DNA polymerase
B) RNA, protein, peptidyl transferase
C) RNA, DNA, reverse transcriptase
D) DNA, RNA, RNA polymerase
Answer: D
Q2) The most frequently methylated base in vertebrates is:
A) Adenine
B) Cytosine
C) Guanine
D) Thymine
Answer: B
Q3) Alteration of the nucleotide sequence of RNA after transcription is called:
A) Methylation
B) RNA silencing
C) RNA editing
D) Capping
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Proteins
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Specialized proteins that bind to the large ribosomal subunit and protect the hydrophobic regions of growing polypeptides are called:
A) Aminoacyl tRNA synthetases
B) Molecular chaperones
C) Metalloproteins
D) Peptidyl transferases
Answer: B
Q2) All but two amino acids are encoded by more than one codon, thus making the genetic code:
A) Error-prone
B) Random
C) Redundant
D) Denatured
Answer: C
Q3) Alpha helices and beta-pleated sheets are what level of protein structure?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Quaternary
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acid Extraction Methods
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) PolyT oligomers bound to a matrix resin column will selectively isolate which of the following?
A) Ribosomal RNA
B) GC-rich DNA
C) Transfer RNA
D) Messenger RNA
Q2) Nucleic acid concentration can be assessed relatively simply and quickly by which of the following procedures?
A) Electrophoresis
B) Enzyme immunoassay
C) Sequencing
D) Spectrophotometry at 260 nm
Q3) The 260 nm/280 nm ratio for isolated DNA was determined to be 1:2. What should be done next with this sample?
A) Proceed with DNA analysis as necessary.
B) Reprecipitate the DNA to remove excess protein.
C) Treat the sample with RNAse to remove RNA.
D) Dilute the sample to 1:10 and repeat spectrophotometry.
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Chapter 5: Resolution and Detection of Nucleic Acids
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Sample Questions
Q1) A molecular biologist is to separate and analyze a mixture of nucleic acids that are about 100,000 bp in size. Which of the following methods will yield the best results?
A) Capillary electrophoresis
B) Rotating gel electrophoresis
C) Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
D) Traditional agarose gel electrophoresis
Q2) To increase the density of a sample relative to the density of the buffer prior to loading the sample into a gel, which of the following is added to the sample?
A) Glycerol
B) Ethidium bromide
C) Formaldehyde
D) Tris acetate EDTA
Q3) Which of the following are used to make wells in a solidifying gel into which samples are loaded?
A) Brushes
B) Combs
C) Picks
D) Shovels
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Chapter 6: Analysis and Characterization of Nucleic Acids and Proteins
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a method of transferring nucleic acids from a gel to a membrane substrate?
A) Capillary
B) Vacuum
C) Electrophoretic
D) Ionic
Q2) A circular molecule has two sites for the restriction enzyme PstI and one site for the enzyme BamH1. How many fragments will result when digested with both enzymes?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q3) The entire human genome can be analyzed at one time by which of the following methods?
A) Northern blot
B) Southern blot
C) Slot blot
D) Microarray
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Chapter 7: Nucleic Acid Amplification
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Starting with a single target, how many copies are produced in a PCR reaction of 30 cycles?
A) 30
B) 30<sup>2</sup>
C) 2<sup>30</sup>
D) 2 x 30
Q2) Nucleic acid has been isolated from a urethral swab and a PCR is performed on the sample to detect Neisseria gonorrhoeae. The positive control has a band at the expected size; the negative template control and the contamination controls do not have bands; and the amplification control has a band of expected size. The patient sample has a band consistent with the amplification control band and does not have a band corresponding to the positive control band. How is this result interpreted?
A) The patient has a positive PCR result for Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B) The results are not acceptable because the control results are invalid.
C) The patient does not have Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and it is a true negative result.
D) The patient has a false negative result for Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
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Chapter 8: Chromosomal Structure and Chromosomal Mutations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the proper order for the four phases of the cell cycle?
A) G1, S, M, G2
B) G1, S, G2, M
C) G2, S, M, G1
D) M, S, G1, G2
Q2) Which of the following types of chromatin are open and actively involved in gene expression (transcription)?
A) Heterochromatin
B) Homochromatin
C) Euchromatin
D) Interchromatin
Q3) A change in DNA sequence that is present in at least 1% to 2% of the population is called a(n):
A) Phenotype
B) Polymorphism
C) Aneuploid
D) Mutation
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Gene Mutations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is being tested to determine whether he has the factor V Leiden mutation by PCR-RFLP analysis. PCR is performed on the patient's DNA and cut with HindIII. The mutation-positive control sample had a single band of expected size, and the mutation-negative control sample had a slightly larger band. The patient's specimen had two bands, one that was the same size as the mutation-positive control band and the other the same as the mutation-negative control. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of these results?
A) The patient does not have the factor V Leiden mutation.
B) The patient is heterozygous for the factor V Leiden mutation.
C) The patient is homozygous for the factor V Leiden mutation.
D) The results are not valid, and the assay should be repeated.
Q2) Which of the following assays can be used in high-throughput applications?
A) Melt curve assay
B) Heteroduplex analysis
C) PCR-RFLP
D) Homogenous MassExtend
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11
Chapter 10: DNA Sequencing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The goal of the HapMap project is which of the following?
A) Find blocks of SNPs that are inherited together
B) Complete the human genome sequence
C) Compare human and primate genomes
D) Sequence all bacterial genomes
Q2) When two sequences are found to be exactly the same, they have which of the following?
A) Heterology
B) Identity
C) Alignment
D) Motif
Q3) Sequencing ladders resolved by gel electrophoresis are read in which of the following directions?
A) Top to bottom
B) Bottom to top
C) Across lanes
D) Diagonally
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12
Chapter 11: DNA Polymorphisms and Human Identification
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When two sources of DNA are compared by STR analysis in a crime scene, how many differences between alleles will determine that the two sources are different?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6
Q2) Which of the following polymorphisms are tandem repeats of 1-8 bp?
A) Restriction fragment length polymorphisms
B) Short tandem repeats
C) Variable number tandem repeats
D) Single nucleotide polymorphisms
Q3) If a locus on chromosome 16 is homozygous, then the locus has:
A) Many different alleles on one chromosome 16
B) The same alleles on each chromosome 16 homolog
C) Different alleles on each chromosome 16 homolog
D) No alleles
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13
Chapter 12: Detection and Identification of Microorganisms
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What characteristic of parasites complicates molecular testing?
A) Unusual sequence content
B) Resistance to disruption and lysis
C) Wide prevalence in developed countries
D) Similar microscopic morphology
Q2) What will be observed in a PCR test of a true negative sample for the sample, positive control, negative control, and amplification control, respectively?
A) Negative, positive, negative, positive
B) Negative, positive, negative, negative
C) Negative, negative, negative, negative
D) Negative, negative, negative, positive
Q3) Which of the following genes is the target in molecular-based assays that are used to quantify the amount of HIV in a patient?
A) Protease
B) gag
C) Hemagglutinin
D) ctx-m
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Chapter 13: Molecular Detection of Inherited Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) All members of a family carry the same gene polymorphism associated with a certain phenotype. There is a range of phenotypes among the family members. What is the term for this observation?
A) Variable expressivity
B) Complete penetrance
C) X-linked
D) Y-linked
Q2) Almost all sex-linked disorders involve which of the following chromosomes?
A) X
B) Y
C) 1
D) 22
Q3) A patient is tested to determine the number of CGG repeats in the FMR1 gene by Southern blot. The patient is found to have a band that runs above the normal control band. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of these results?
A) The patient is normal.
B) The patient has Huntington's disease.
C) The patient has Tay-Sachs disease.
D) The patient has full fragile X mutation.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Molecular Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) T-cell receptor gene rearrangements were analyzed by PCR using forward and reverse primers complementary to the V<sub>\(\gamma\)</sub>1 and J<sub>\(\gamma\)</sub>1 regions, respectively, of the T-cell receptor gene region. The products were separated by polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis and bands visualized using ethidium bromide. The lane corresponding to the patient had a sharp band. All controls were acceptable. How is this result interpreted?
A) The patient has a monoclonal (monotypic) T-cell population.
B) The patient is normal and has polyclonal T cells.
C) This is a false positive because of amplification of immunoglobulin genes.
D) The assay should be repeated because the wrong primers were used.
Q2) What would be observed in the event of loss of heterozygosity?
A) Two alleles at a heterozygous locus
B) One allele at a homozygous locus
C) One allele at a heterozygous locus
D) Two alleles at a homozygous locus
Q3) Herceptin (trastuzumab) therapy works best on what tumors?
A) Colon cancer expressing K-ras
B) Lung cancer with EGFR mutations
C) Breast cancer with no HER2/neu expression
D) Breast cancer with HER2/neu overexpression
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Chapter 15: DNA-Based Tissue Typing
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Sample Questions
Q1) In HLA nomenclature, the letter N indicates what type of allele?
A) An allele with a new antigenic phenotype
B) An allele with no reaction to antibody
C) A new antigen sequence
D) Normal antibody binding
Q2) A husband volunteers to be the donor for his wife's organ transplant. In pre-transplantation testing, the woman's serum was mixed in vitro with lymphocytes from her husband. After a few hours, complement and Trypan blue were added to the culture well. The cells were observed under the microscope and determined to be viable. What is the interpretation of this assay?
A) The husband has antibodies that recognize his wife's cells.
B) The wife has antibodies that recognize her husband's cells.
C) The husband cannot donate his organ to his wife.
D) The husband can donate his organ to his wife.
Q3) Polymorphisms in the HLA locus arise primarily through which type of genetic event?
A) Translocation
B) Gene conversion
C) Missense mutation
D) Deletion
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Quality Assurance and Quality Control in the Molecular Laboratory
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the proper way to handle raw data from a completed test run?
A) Submit the data to the ordering physician.
B) Discard the data immediately after the case is signed out.
C) Immediately shred the data to maintain patient privacy.
D) Retain the data with the final reports of the test run.
Q2) What is required for incorporating an FDA-approved test into a laboratory?
A) Proceed to use the test reagents according to the manufacturer's directions.
B) Validate test performance on reference and validation specimens.
C) Use the test, substituting reagents previously validated in the laboratory.
D) Request and review quality-assurance data from the manufacturer.
Q3) The ability of a molecular-based assay to detect only the analyte and not other targets is called which of the following?
A) Clinical specificity
B) Clinical sensitivity
C) Analytic sensitivity
D) Analytic specificity
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