Cancer Biology Test Bank
Course Introduction
Cancer Biology explores the fundamental molecular and cellular mechanisms underlying the development and progression of cancer. The course covers topics such as the genetic and epigenetic changes that drive tumor initiation, the role of oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes, signaling pathways involved in cell proliferation and apoptosis, tumor microenvironment interactions, metastasis, and cancer immunology. Additionally, it examines current strategies for cancer diagnosis, treatment, and therapeutic resistance, integrating recent advancements in cancer research to provide a comprehensive understanding of the disease.
Recommended Textbook Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy 4th Edition by Washington
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38 Chapters
954 Verified Questions
954 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Cancer: An Overview
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which classification are the chemotherapy agent's lipids soluble and capable of crossing the blood-brain barrier?
A) Alkylating agents
B) Antimetabolites
C) Antibiotics
D) Hormonal agents
E) Nitrosoureas
F) Vinca alkaloids
Answer: E
Q2) Injecting monoclonal antibodies is an example of which type of treatment?
A) Surgery
B) Radiation therapy
C) Chemotherapy
D) Immunotherapy
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is true of anaplastic tumors?
A) Closely resemble the cells of origin
B) Maintain some resemblance of the cells of origin
C) Do not resemble the cells of origin
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Ethics and Legal Considerations of Cancer Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the study of ethical issues in medicine?
A) Biometrics
B) Bioethics
C) Macro ethics
D) Micro ethics
Answer: B
Q2) What legal document allows the competent adult to provide direction to health care providers regarding their choices under certain circumstances, should the individual no longer be able to make those decisions?
A) Scope of practice
B) Informed consent
C) Durable power of attorney
D) Living will
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following ethical principles relates to faithfulness or loyalty?
A) Beneficence
B) Maleficence
C) Fidelity
D) Veracity
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Principles of Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three most common procedures used to make a diagnosis of cancer are all except which of the following?
A) Incisional
B) Excisional
C) Sputum cytology
D) Needle aspiration
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following describes the accidental leakage of intravenous drugs into the surrounding tissues?
A) Permeation
B) Metastasis
C) Extravasation
D) Hypoxia
Answer: C
Q3) Characteristics of malignant tumors include all except which of the following?
A) They have rapid growth.
B) They are encapsulated.
C) They metastasize frequently.
D) There is frequent vessel invasion.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Overview of Radiobiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the term interphase death mean?
A) The cell dies prior to entering interphase.
B) The cell dies prior to leaving interphase.
C) The cell dies between mitotic phases.
D) The entire organism dies.
Q2) Which of the following terms describes the separation of water into hydrogen and oxygen following exposure to radiation?
A) Radiolysis
B) Radioactivity
C) Ionization
D) Duplication
Q3) Which of the following tissues is least radiosensitive?
A) Bone
B) Kidney
C) Ocular lens
D) Colon
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6
Chapter 5: Detection and Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mass screening is based on all except which of the following?
A) Specific results obtained
B) Cost-effectiveness
C) Risk to the patient
D) Geographic location
Q2) In the TNM staging system, what does the "T" indicate?
A) Metastases
B) Nodal status
C) Primary tumor
D) Grade of the tumor
Q3) Which of the following is a normal white blood count?
A) 3.9 to 5.4 million/mm3
B) 3,900 to 10,800/mm3
C) 12 to 16 million/mm3
D) 150,000 to 425.000/mm3
Q4) Which of the following is not considered one of the four senses?
A) Sight
B) Touch
C) Taste
D) Smell
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Chapter 6: Medical Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Image fusion as used in the production of positron emission tomography (PET)images may fuse together the PET images with the images of what other imaging modality?
A) Ultrasound
B) X-ray
C) Computed tomography (CT)
D) All of the above
Q2) Unlike digital radiography, conventional imaging media includes which of the following?
A) Film
B) Screens
C) Cassettes
D) All of the above
Q3) The quantity of photons in an x-ray beam is directly proportional to
A) kVp
B) anode temperature rating
C) tube current
D) filtration
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Treatment Delivery Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Depth of maximum dose for a 15-MV machine is how far below the skin surface?
A) 0.5 cm
B) 1.5 cm
C) 2.5 cm
D) 3 cm
Q2) At what rate does the cobalt 60 source decay?
A) 1% per month
B) 2% per month
C) 3% per month
D) 5% per month
Q3) Some of the more common medical accelerator hazards include which of the following?
I.Incorrect dose delivered
II.Dose delivered to wrong area
III.Machine collision
IV.Emergency off malfunction
A) I, II, and IV
B) II, III, and IV
C) I, III, and IV
D) I, II, and III
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Chapter 8: Treatment Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bolus comes in many forms and has many applications.Which of the following is not a material that bolus would be made from?
A) Vaseline gauze
B) Water-filled balloon
C) Superflab
D) Aluminum covered with paraffin wax
Q2) Arrange the following tasks involved in delivering a dose of radiation therapy in the proper order.
I.Complete the treatment record.
II.Initiate the beam-on setting, and monitor the patient and equipment.
III.Align the field using lasers, light field, and surface landmarks.
IV.Prepare the room.
A) I, II, III, IV
B) II, I, III, IV
C) IV, II, I, III
D) IV, III, II, I
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Chapter 9: Infection Control in Radiation Oncology Facilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the study of the distribution and determinants of diseases and injuries in the human population?
A) Epidemiology
B) Colonization
C) Nosocomial
D) Virulence
Q2) What are the five transmission routes that carry disease?
A) Airborne, vector-borne, contact, droplet, common vehicle
B) Airborne, vector-borne, indirect, subdirect, droplet
C) Airway, vector-borne, contact, blood-borne common vehicle
D) Airway, vector-borne, contact, drippings, common vehicle
Q3) When should gloves be worn?
A) When handling the hand pendant
B) When blood and body fluids are present
C) Instead of washing hands all day
D) All of the above
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11
Chapter 10: Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not one of the 10 most commonly used and helpful verbal responses?
A) Reflecting
B) Confronting
C) Repeating
D) Summarizing
Q2) Dry desquamation occurs at _________ cGy.
A) 1,600 to 2,000
B) 4,000 to 6,000
C) 2,000 to 3,000
D) 3,000 to 4,000
Q3) The affective responses that occur most commonly among cancer patients are ________________.
A) anxiety and depression
B) anxiety and coping strategies
C) depression and coping
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12
Chapter 11: Pharmacology and Drug Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following routes of drug administration is not considered a parenteral route?
A) Oral
B) Intradermal
C) Subcutaneous
D) Intrathecal
Q2) Contrast agents used for the imaging procedure known as cholecystography should be administered by which of the following routes?
A) Oral
B) Intravenous
C) Intramuscular
D) Intradermal
Q3) Opioid medications are prescribed for the purpose of which of the following?
A) Preventing nausea and vomiting
B) Treating allergic reactions
C) Reducing inflammation
D) Relieving pain
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Chapter 12: Applied Mathematics Review
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Sample Questions
Q1) Solve for x in the equation x² - 1 = 0.
A) 0
B) 1
C) -1
D) ±1
Q2) Which of the following numeric expressions is written in scientific notation?
A) 8.333 × 10<sup>4</sup>
B) 83.33 × 10<sup>3</sup>
C) 833.3 × 10<sup>2</sup>
D) 8333 × 10<sup>1</sup>
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a random error?
A) Inaccuracies in the laser positioning system
B) Patient movement
C) Human error
D) Difference in cushioning capacity of couch materials between simulator and treatment table
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Chapter 13: Introduction to Radiation Therapy Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A beta minus particle is also known as a(n)____________.
A) electron
B) proton
C) hadron
D) neutron
Q2) Which of the following is the most common photon interaction that occurs in the energy range used in radiation therapy?
A) Photoelectric
B) Compton
C) Photodisintegration
D) Thomson
Q3) The number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus is known as
A) atomic weight
B) strong force
C) atomic mass number
D) nuclear stability
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Chapter 14: Aspects of Brachytherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tandem and ovoids are used to treat which of the following?
A) Prostate
B) Bladder
C) Cervix
D) Esophagus
Q2) The average or mean life of iridium 192 is __________ days.
A) 51
B) 74
C) 107
D) 148
Q3) Of the following, which radionuclide is used for permanent prostate implants?
A) Gold 198
B) Cobalt 60
C) Cesium 137
D) Iridium 192
Q4) As half-life increases, the overall activity ______________________.
A) increases
B) decreases
C) remains unchanged
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Chapter 15: Special Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the motion management method that defines an internal target volume?
A) OBI
B) compression
C) conservative
D) MIP
Q2) Image-guided radiation therapy is useful because it can ____________________.
I.result in a more focused treatment
II.account for interfraction and intrafraction motion
III.compare in-room image set with treatment planning image set
A) I and II
B) II and III
C) I and III
D) I, II, and III
Q3) Radiation therapists and radiation oncologists prefer the kV images because the
A) contrast is better
B) metal artifacts are reduced
C) timing is more efficient
D) resolution is not an issue
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Chapter 16: Particle Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hounsfield units should be converted to correct for particle ___________ when using computed tomography (CT)for proton therapy planning?
A) relative stopping power (RSP)
B) nonuniformity
C) energy fluctuation
D) Bragg peak
Q2) Although several heavy particles may be used therapeutically, proton therapy represents _____% of the particle therapy market in the United States.
A) 60
B) 75
C) 88
D) 100
Q3) What are the typical therapeutic proton beam energies?
A) 6 to 25 MeV
B) 10 to 50 MeV
C) 50 to 250 MeV
D) 300 to 500 MeV
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18
Chapter 17: Radiation Safety and Protection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The annual dose equivalent limit to the whole body for educationally exposed individuals is ____ mSv.
A) 0.5
B) 1
C) 5
D) 50
Q2) The average annual dose received by the general public from all naturally occurring radiation sources is ____ mSv.
A) 3
B) 2
C) 1
D) 0.5
Q3) Which particles have the highest linear energy transfer?
A) Alpha particles
B) Beta particles
C) X-rays
D) Gamma-rays
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Patient Safety in Radiation Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Harold Freudenberger, physical signs of burnout would not include which of the following?
A) Headaches
B) Insomnia
C) Fatigue
D) Alopecia
Q2) Transformational leaders likely focus on the ______________.
A) tasks to be completed
B) methods for completing tasks
C) rationale for tasks
D) reward and punishment
Q3) Regular safety rounds may be instituted by a department in order to do which of the following?
A) Discuss items needed to perform tasks successfully.
B) Improve interpersonal and organizational communication.
C) Report various issues noticed during the day.
D) Evaluate the quality of work by others.
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Chapter 19: Quality Improvement in Radiation Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term is defined as "planned or systematic actions necessary to provide adequate confidence that a product or service will satisfy given requirements for quality"?
A) Quality audit
B) QA
C) Quality control
D) Quality indicator
Q2) X-ray output was calibrated during commissioning as 1.0 cGy/MU.During monthly quality assurance checks, the output is calibrated as 1.3 cGy/MU.This monthly output measurement is _____________________.
A) outside of tolerance limits but no action is required
B) within tolerance limits and no action is required
C) outside of tolerance limits and action is required
D) not required until the annual quality assurance routine
Q3) The ASRT have developed practice standards for radiation therapists.They are divided into what three sections?
A) Cognitive, affective, and psychomotor standards
B) Clinical, quality, and professional performance standards
C) Education, professional self-assessment, and ethical behavior standards
D) Patient care, treatment delivery, and Total Quality Management (TQM)standards
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Chapter 20: Surface and Sectional Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes why ultrasound is not useful when imaging the skull, lungs, or intestines?
A) Ultrasound does not penetrate bone.
B) Ultrasound does not penetrate air-filled spaces.
C) Ultrasound may not undergo reverse photoelectric absorption.
D) Both a and b are correct.
E) Both a and c are correct.
Q2) Which of the following body types has a massive and powerful physique and great body weight with a heavy bony framework and a high alimentary tract? This body type also has a short, wide trunk with a long abdomen of great capacity.
A) Sthenic
B) Hyposthenic
C) Hypersthenic
D) Asthenic
Q3) Which of the following is abnormal lateral curvature of the vertebral column with excessive right or left curvature in the thoracic region?
A) Scoliosis
B) Kyphosis
C) Lordosis
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Simulator Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) As the field of view increases and the matrix size remains constant, the spatial resolution ____________.
A) increases
B) decreases
C) stays the same
Q2) Light photons are produced and transmitted electronically through to a video image at which of the following?
A) Output phosphor
B) Tube housing
C) Photocathode
D) Focusing lenses
Q3) The matrix size is determined by the number of ___________.
A) voxels
B) Hounsfield units
C) detectors on the scanner
D) pixels
Q4) CT numbers are also known as which of the following?
A) Hounsfield units
B) Godfrey units
C) Attenuation coefficient units
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Chapter 22: Computed Tomography Simulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using intravenous (IV)contrast to enhance the anatomy of the brain, the best interval for contrast administration should be before the scan by _____________.
A) 30 seconds
B) 60 seconds
C) 30 minutes
D) 60 minutes
Q2) Which of the following is the window level on a CT image?
A) The range of numbers displayed on a CT image
B) The number of columns and rows of pixels demonstrated on an image
C) An unwanted image characteristic
D) The central Hounsfield unit of all the CT numbers displayed on an image
Q3) Which of the following is the window width on a CT image?
A) The range of numbers displayed on a CT image
B) The number of columns and rows of pixels demonstrated on an image
C) An unwanted image characteristic
D) The central Hounsfield unit of all the CT numbers displayed on an image
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Chapter 23: Photon Dosimetry Concepts and Calculations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the depth from the PA if the SAD is 100 cm and the SSD is 89 cm?
A) 8 cm
B) 9 cm
C) 10 cm
D) 11 cm
Q2) Which of the following defines Dmax?
A) Build-up region
B) Depth of maximum equilibrium
C) Depth of dose deposited per unit of time
D) Dose scatter to surface
Q3) As the source-skin distance increases, what happens to the tissue-air ratio?
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Remains the same
D) No effect
Q4) As the energy increases, what happens to the PDD?
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Remains the same
D) No effect
25
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Chapter 24: Photon Dose Distributions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a plot of target or normal structure volume as a function of dose?
A) BEV
B) DVH
C) DRR
D) REV
Q2) The process of identifying structures, target volumes, or normal tissues, by creating contours around them, is often called _____________________.
A) organ segmentation
B) virtual simulation
C) intensity modulation
D) heterogeneity correction
Q3) The percent depth dose curve (PDD)is a representation of dose variation in __________ dimensions.
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
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26
Chapter 25: Electron Beams in Radiation Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the depth of the 80% isodose line of a 15-MeV electron beam?
A) 3 cm
B) 3.75 cm
C) 5 cm
D) 7.5 cm
Q2) What is the danger to tissue in front of an internal shield when used with electron beams therapy?
A) Photon contamination
B) Under dosing
C) Electron backscatter
D) Infection
Q3) What effect will an increase in the nominal energy of an electron beam have on the depth of the 80% isodose line?
A) Increase
B) Decrease
C) Remain the same
D) Dose dependence
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Chapter 26: Electronic Charting and Image Management
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Q1) All of the following except which personnel provide support for EMRs?
A) System analyst
B) Network specialist
C) Engineers
D) Information systems specialist
Q2) _______ facilitate the use of wireless PDAs, laptops, and other pervasive computing devices at the point of care.
A) LANs
B) WLANs
C) ASPs
D) Mans
Q3) Who is responsible for the quality of the EMR?
A) Patients
B) Hospital administrators
C) Information systems personnel
D) Caregivers
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Bone, Cartilage, and Soft Tissue Sarcomas
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Sample Questions
Q1) When used with radiation therapy, which of the following reduces the loss of function and improves overall control?
A) Intralesional resection
B) Radical resection
C) Amputation
D) Limb-sparing surgery
Q2) Treatment for malignant fibrous histiocytoma involves which of the following?
I.Radiation therapy
II.Surgery
III.Chemotherapy
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) I, II, and III
Q3) Overall, STS requires which dose of radiation to achieve local control and long-term survival?
A) Low
B) Medium
C) High
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Lymphoreticular System Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) What stage is a Hodgkin lymphoma that involves SCV lymph nodes and the spleen?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Q2) What is the most common long-term side effect of total lymphoid irradiation?
A) Skin erythema
B) Dysphagia
C) Secondary malignancy
D) Developmental anomalies
Q3) The thymus is commonly associated with which of the following blood cell types?
A) Red blood cells
B) B-cell lymphocytes
C) T-cell lymphocytes
D) Macrophages
Q4) In what general anatomical location is Waldeyer ring located?
A) Mouth
B) Anus
C) Small intestine
D) Axilla
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Chapter 29: Endocrine System Tumors
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Q1) Cancer of which of the following endocrine glands has the highest incidence rate?
A) Thyroid
B) Adrenal
C) Pituitary
D) Parathyroid
Q2) In which gland is antidiuretic hormone (ADH)produced?
A) Pancreas
B) Pituitary
C) Thyroid
D) Adrenal
Q3) In which gland is follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)produced?
A) Pancreas
B) Pituitary
C) Thyroid
D) Adrenal
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Chapter 30: Respiratory System Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) What T stage is a lung cancer measuring 2.5 cm in its greatest dimension?
A) T1
B) T2
C) T3
D) T4
Q2) According to the American Cancer Society, what is the percentage of lung cancers caused by smoking?
A) 37%
B) 67%
C) 87%
D) 97%
Q3) One symptom associated with superior vena cava syndrome is orthopnea.Orthopnea is ____________________.
A) difficulty breathing
B) a bluish color of the skin
C) difficulty swallowing
D) inability to lie flat
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32
Chapter 31: Head and Neck Cancers
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Sample Questions
Q1) What condition frequently develops in users of smokeless tobacco?
A) Erythroplakia
B) Leukoplakia
C) Thrush
D) Dysplasia
Q2) Which anatomic structure contains the true vocal cords?
A) Glottis
B) Epiglottis
C) Pharynx
D) Larynx
Q3) What T stage is a glottic tumor that involves only one vocal cord but does impair mobility?
A) T1a
B) T1b
C) T1c
D) T2
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33
Chapter 32: Central Nervous System Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the 5-year survival rate for all CNS tumors combined?
A) 20%
B) 35%
C) 50%
D) 75%
Q2) What is the most common source of brain metastases among the following?
A) Colon
B) Lung
C) Breast
D) Melanoma
Q3) From which cells to medulloblastomas arise?
A) Primitive neuroectodermal tumor (PNET)
B) Primitive neuroectodermal cells
C) Astrocytes
D) Lymphocytes
Q4) Which tumors spread through the cerebral spinal fluid?
A) Astrocytoma
B) Oligodendroglioma
C) Medulloblastoma
D) Schwannoma
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Chapter 33: Digestive System Tumors
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Q1) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)is associated with cancer of which anatomic region?
A) Esophagus
B) Stomach
C) Liver
D) Colon
Q2) At what age should a person of average risk have his or her first screening colonoscopy?
A) 30
B) 40
C) 50
D) 60
Q3) Which of the following is the region of the esophagus between thoracic vertebrae 5 and 8?
A) Upper thoracic
B) Middle thoracic
C) Lower thoracic
D) Gastroesophageal junction
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Chapter 34: Gynecological Tumors
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Q1) Which of the following cancers is treated with the patient in the "frog leg" position?
A) Ovarian
B) Cervical
C) Vaginal
D) Vulvar
Q2) Overall, cervical cancer occurs most frequently with those associated with which of the following factors?
I.Women of lower socioeconomic status
II.Early sexual activity and multiple partners
III.Multiple instances of pelvic infection
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) I, II, and III
Q3) Who has the most significant risk of developing ovarian cancer?
A) 35-year-old woman with one child
B) 35-year-old woman with five children
C) 65-year-old woman with one child
D) 65-year-old woman with five children
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Male Reproductive and Genitourinary Tumors
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Q1) What is the primary treatment option for kidney cancer?
A) Surgery
B) Chemotherapy
C) Radiation therapy
D) Immunotherapy
Q2) What is the most common form of bladder cancer?
A) Adenocarcinoma
B) Transitional cell carcinoma
C) Squamous cell carcinoma
D) Renal cell carcinoma
Q3) What is the most common form of kidney cancer?
A) Adenocarcinoma
B) Transitional cell carcinoma
C) Squamous cell carcinoma
D) Renal cell carcinoma
Q4) To which surface of the prostate gland do the seminal vesicles attach?
A) Posterior superior
B) Anterior lateral
C) Superior anterior
D) Inferior posterior
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Chapter 36: Breast Cancer
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Q1) What stage is a 6-cm breast cancer in the upper inner quadrant?
A) Tis
B) T1
C) T2
D) T3
Q2) What ligament holds the breast in place?
A) Cooper
B) Montgomery
C) Stoop
D) Paget
Q3) What T stage is a breast cancer that is a 1-cm tumor in the upper outer quadrant?
A) Tis
B) T1
C) T2
D) T3
E) T4
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Pediatric Solid Tumors
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Q1) Which pediatric cancer occurs in the sympathetic nervous system ganglia?
A) Medulloblastoma
B) Neuroblastoma
C) Primary brain lesions
D) Retinoblastoma
Q2) Wilms' tumors are cancers of which organ?
A) Kidney
B) Bone
C) Skeletal muscle
D) Smooth muscle
Q3) Medulloblastomas typically begin in which area of the brain?
A) Brain stem
B) Cerebellum
C) Cerebrum
D) Hypothalamus
Q4) Which pediatric cancer spreads through the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
A) Leukemia
B) Medulloblastoma
C) Neuroblastoma
D) Retinoblastoma
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Chapter 38: Skin Cancers and Melanoma
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Q1) What is the most significant cause of skin cancer?
A) Radiation exposure
B) Sun exposure
C) Arsenic exposure
D) Human papillomavirus
Q2) What is the most common form of skin cancer?
A) Basal cell carcinoma
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Melanoma
D) Kaposi sarcoma
Q3) What primary skin cancer (other than malignant melanoma)is aggressive and has a tendency to spread through the lymphatics and bloodstream?
A) Adenocarcinoma
B) Basal cell
C) Squamous cell
D) Merkel cell
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