Cancer Biology Test Bank
Course
Introduction
Cancer Biology explores the fundamental mechanisms underlying the development and progression of cancer, integrating molecular, cellular, and genetic perspectives. The course examines the hallmarks of cancer, including abnormal cell proliferation, evasion of programmed cell death, angiogenesis, and metastasis, as well as the roles of oncogenes, tumor suppressor genes, and the tumor microenvironment. Students also learn about cancer epidemiology, risk factors, diagnostic tools, and emerging therapeutic strategies, preparing them to understand the scientific and clinical challenges in cancer research and treatment.
Recommended Textbook
Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy 4th Edition by Washington
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38 Chapters
954 Verified Questions
954 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/472
Page 2
Chapter 1: Cancer: An Overview
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8617
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following acts as a radioprotector?
A) Amifostine
B) Actinomycin D
C) Adriamycin
D) Etoposide
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is not a phase of the mammalian cell cycle?
A) G0
B) G1
C) G2
D) G3
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following make(s)for an effective screening examination?
A) Specific
B) Sensitive
C) Cost-effective
D) Accurate
E) All of the above
Answer: E
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Ethics and Legal Considerations of Cancer Management
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a source from which values are derived?
A) Money
B) Experience
C) Religion
D) Science
Answer: A
Q2) Which two ethical principles may clash when dealing with consent?
I.Beneficence
II.Nonmaleficence
III.Autonomy
IV.Confidentiality
A) I and III
B) I and IV
C) II and III
D) II and IV
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Principles of Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Homeostasis refers to a constant or stable ____________.
A) internal environment
B) external environment
C) temperature and pressure
D) nutritional supply
Answer: A
Q2) Characteristics of malignant tumors include all except which of the following?
A) They have rapid growth.
B) They are encapsulated.
C) They metastasize frequently.
D) There is frequent vessel invasion.
Answer: B
Q3) The cancer of chimney sweeps identified by Percival Pott in mid-eighteenth-century England was related to which of the following chemicals?
A) Hydrocarbons
B) Asbestos
C) Arsenic
D) Nitrosamines
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Overview of Radiobiology
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Isoeffect curves are most closely associated with which of the following?
A) Oxygen enhancement
B) Radiation syndromes
C) Tolerance doses
D) Fractionation
Q2) Which of the following tissues is least radiosensitive?
A) Bone
B) Kidney
C) Ocular lens
D) Colon
Q3) Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?
A) Adenine
B) Cytosine
C) Thymine
D) Uracil
Q4) The TD 5/5 for the whole liver is approximately _____ Gy.
A) 15
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
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Chapter 5: Detection and Diagnosis
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Examples of facilitating verbal responses include all except which of the following?
A) "I understand."
B) "This is just part of the aging process."
C) "How much did it hurt?"
D) "I see you are very angry."
Q2) Making a fist and pounding gently onto the posterior abdomen, over a kidney area, is an example of which of the following physician's exam?
A) Percussion
B) Auscultation
C) Palpation
D) Inspection
Q3) Which of the following factors would not be observed when assessing respiration?
I.Rate
II.Rhythm
III.Character
A) I and II
B) II and III
C) I and III
D) I, II, and III
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Chapter 6: Medical Imaging
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23 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Components of a modern x-ray tube include which of the following?
A) Cathode filament
B) Rotating anode
C) Glass envelope
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is responsible for transforming invisible x-rays into energy and then into visible light?
A) Grids
B) Glass envelop
C) Densitometer
D) Intensifying screens
Q3) Attenuation is the process by which an x-ray beam ___________________.
A) is focused
B) is reduced in intensity
C) diverges
D) exposes a film
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Chapter 7: Treatment Delivery Equipment
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24 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is (are)true of electron beams?
A) Require a flattening filter to make the electron beam profile symmetric and flat
B) Require a scattering foil to make the electron beam profile symmetric and flat
C) Interact with the transmission target before leaving the exit window
D) a, b, and c
E) b and c
Q2) The circulator in a linear accelerator does which of the following?
A) Mixes the hot and cold water to get the right temperature
B) Spins the electrons in the right direction
C) Conducts microwaves from the radiofrequency (RF)driver into the klystron
D) Isolates the klystron from reflected microwave power
Q3) When using multileaf collimation, which concerns need to be evaluated?
A) Penumbra between the leaves and the transmission of the leaves
B) Movement of MLCs during the treatment give variations in dose that need to be evaluated along with penumbra between the leaves
C) Movement of MLCs during treatment and interleaf transmission leakage
D) Penumbra at the end of the leaves and interleaf transmission leakage
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Chapter 8: Treatment Procedures
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Safety and care in the assessment of pain, mobility, and other factors affecting the patient's well-being are the responsibility of which of the following?
A) Radiation oncologist
B) Patient's family
C) Radiation therapist
D) Radiation oncology nurse
Q2) Which of the following opposing field techniques is specifically designed for treatment of the breast?
A) AP/PA arrangement
B) Tangential fields
C) Box technique
D) Right and left laterals
Q3) An anterior oblique and posterior oblique treatment field is an example of which of the following?
A) Arc therapy
B) Four-field box or brick
C) Wedge pair
D) Parallel opposed portals (POP)
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10
Chapter 9: Infection Control in Radiation Oncology Facilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) An OSHA-approved respiratory mask is required for use by health care workers at high risk of being exposed to which of the following?
A) Hepatitis B
B) Hepatitis C
C) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
D) Tuberculosis (TB)
Q2) A person who is colonized but not ill is known as a ________________.
A) host
B) carrier
C) vector
D) fomite
Q3) CDC stands for the _________________________.
A) Cancer Diagnostic Centers
B) Center for Diagnosis of Cancer
C) Cancer Domain Center
D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
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11
Chapter 10: Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonspecific side effects include all except which of the following?
A) Fatigue
B) Pain
C) Weight loss
D) Sleep
Q2) Skin reactions include all except which of the following?
A) Erythema
B) Alopecia
C) Dry desquamation
D) Moist desquamation
Q3) Reflective listening involves listening with _____________.
A) prayer
B) praise
C) sympathy
D) empathy
Q4) Thrombocytopenia is a reduction in which of the following?
A) Platelets
B) White blood cells
C) Red blood cells
D) All blood counts
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Chapter 11: Pharmacology and Drug Administration
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Radiolucent contrast agents are those that ______________________.
A) appear dark on x-ray
B) appear white on x-ray
C) have high atomic numbers
D) absorb x-ray photons easily
Q2) What is the first duty of a therapist if a patient has an adverse reaction to a drug?
A) Locate emergency supplies.
B) Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
C) Call a code.
D) Observe the patient carefully.
Q3) For injections administered by the intradermal route, the syringe should be positioned _________ to the skin.
A) at a 45-degree angle
B) at a 90-degree angle
C) almost parallel
D) almost perpendicular
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Chapter 12: Applied Mathematics Review
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Express log<sub>2</sub> 16 = 4 in exponential notation.
A) 4 = v16
B) 42 = 16
C) 1.6 = 10<sup>2</sup>
D) 2<sup>4</sup> = 16
Q2) The relationship between distance and radiation dose follows which of the following?
A) Direct proportionality
B) Indirect proportionality
C) Inverse proportionality
D) Linear interpolation
Q3) Solve for x in the equation 4x - 4 = 12.
A) 6
B) ±6
C) 4
D) ±4
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14
Chapter 13: Introduction to Radiation Therapy Physics
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The metric system, or SI, unit of energy is ________________.
A) Hertz
B) meter
C) joule
D) angstrom
Q2) An electron's binding energy is the amount of energy required to remove that electron from the atom and is usually measured in __________.
A) MeV
B) keV
C) Coulombs
D) kilograms
Q3) The force responsible for interaction between particles with a nonzero mass and having infinite range is _________________.
A) electromagnetic
B) gravity
C) weak force
D) strong force
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Chapter 14: Aspects of Brachytherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) For brachytherapy to the cervix, where is point A located in relation to the cervical os?
A) 2 cm superior and 2 cm lateral
B) 1 cm superior and 2 cm lateral
C) 2 cm inferior and 2 cm lateral
D) 2 cm superior and 1 cm lateral
Q2) The Paris system is based on which of the following?
A) Radioactive sources must be rectilinear.
B) Source centers must be in a different plane.
C) Linear activity must be nonuniform along each source.
D) Sources can be spaced at any distance.
Q3) Tandem and ovoids are used to treat which of the following?
A) Prostate
B) Bladder
C) Cervix
D) Esophagus
Q4) As half-life increases, the overall activity ______________________.
A) increases
B) decreases
C) remains unchanged
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Chapter 15: Special Procedures
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Radiation therapists and radiation oncologists prefer the kV images because the _______________________.
A) contrast is better
B) metal artifacts are reduced
C) timing is more efficient
D) resolution is not an issue
Q2) The cyber knife can treat anywhere in the body because it uses a(n)___________ technique.
A) nonisocentric
B) repetitive
C) real-time
D) isocentric
Q3) Which of the following is the motion management method that defines an internal target volume?
A) OBI
B) compression
C) conservative
D) MIP
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17
Chapter 16: Particle Therapy
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patch planning is an approach used when matching two proton fields together based on their __________.
A) energy
B) field size
C) fall-off region (penumbra)
D) field range
Q2) In an SOBP proton beam, as depth increases, linear energy transfer (LET)does what?
A) Decreases
B) Increases
C) Remains unchanged
Q3) The spread out Bragg peak (SOBP)is created by which of the following?
A) Nozzle
B) Aperture
C) Compensator
D) Modulator wheel
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18
Chapter 17: Radiation Safety and Protection
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31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) X-rays have a quality factor of ________.
A) 1
B) 5
C) 10
D) 20
Q2) The average annual dose received by the general public from radon is ____ mSv.
A) 3
B) 2
C) 1
D) 0.5
Q3) The average annual dose received by the general public from all naturally occurring radiation sources is ____ mSv.
A) 3
B) 2
C) 1
D) 0.5
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Patient Safety in Radiation Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be a key driving force for the development of staff exhibiting "initiating" and "enhancing" behaviors during culture change efforts?
A) Positive feedback
B) Low staff levels
C) Burdensome reporting system
D) Limited access to training
Q2) ASTRO accreditation program assesses radiation oncology departments using _____ standards.
A) 5
B) 7
C) 14
D) 16
Q3) A therapist who seems cynical toward coworkers and patients may be experiencing burnout at the level known as ______________________.
A) emotional exhaustion
B) depersonalization
C) reduced personal accomplishment
D) occupational stress
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Chapter 19: Quality Improvement in Radiation Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Among continuous improvement methods, the system of Six Sigma focuses on improving processes by _______________________________.
A) emphasizing quality control procedures that are routinely performed, documented, and evaluated
B) emphasizing speed and efficiency
C) eliminating defects in the process through precision and accuracy
D) continuous statistical assessment of data being collected
Q2) TJC's indicator measurement system (IM system)focuses primarily on which of the following?
A) Acute inpatient care
B) Quality indicators
C) Electronic data
D) Peer review
Q3) The tolerance for light/radiation field coincidence on the linear accelerator is _____ mm.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Surface and Sectional Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a disadvantage of MRI over CT?
A) Magnetic shielding requirements that are expensive
B) Lower numbers of patients who can be imaged per hour
C) Increased cost
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following sinuses are located directly inferior to and form the floor of the orbit?
A) Maxillary
B) Sphenoidal
C) Frontal
D) Ethmoidal
Q3) In females with large breasts, the area around the ___________________ is of great concern in external beam treatment because of the breast tissue acting as a bolus.
A) nipple
B) areola
C) tail of Spence
D) inframammary sulcus
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22
Chapter 21: Simulator Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)_________ ring allows the CT x-ray tube to rotate in a continuous motion without the concern of cables becoming tangled.
A) spiral
B) slip
C) aperture
D) electrical power
Q2) The CT number for dense bone is _________.
A) -1000
B) -100
C) 0
D) 1000
Q3) Which of the following details the difference in completing an axial scan as compared to spiral CT?
A) Aperture size is larger in an axial scanner.
B) Detector size is larger in the spiral CT scanner.
C) Gantry is rotating in a diagonal.
D) Table moves for the spiral CT.
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Chapter 22: Computed Tomography Simulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using intravenous (IV)contrast to enhance the anatomy of the brain, the best interval for contrast administration should be before the scan by _____________.
A) 30 seconds
B) 60 seconds
C) 30 minutes
D) 60 minutes
Q2) Image registration or fusion has all of the following characteristics except which of the following?
A) It ensures that the patient is in the same position for all scans.
B) It identifies preoperative volume.
C) It is useful for determining the extent of the tumor.
D) It uses two sets of images that are similar.
Q3) Which of the following is the window width on a CT image?
A) The range of numbers displayed on a CT image
B) The number of columns and rows of pixels demonstrated on an image
C) An unwanted image characteristic
D) The central Hounsfield unit of all the CT numbers displayed on an image
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Chapter 23: Photon Dosimetry Concepts and Calculations
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Sample Questions
Q1) As the field size increases, the PDD does what?
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Remains the same
D) No effect
Q2) Which of the following is the equivalent square of rectangular field of 10 ´ 15?
A) 12 × 12
B) 3.6 × 3.6
C) 11.5 × 11.5
D) 13 × 13
Q3) What is a TAR at the depth of Dmax used to correct for scatter of dose called?
A) Scatter-air ratio
B) Tissue-phantom ratio
C) Backscatter factor
D) Mayneord's F factor
Q4) As the source-skin distance increases, what happens to the tissue-air ratio?
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Remains the same
D) No effect
25
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Chapter 24: Photon Dose Distributions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Beam attenuation in energy ranges typically used in radiation therapy is primarily the result of which type of interaction?
A) Compton scatter
B) Photoelectric effect
C) Pair production
D) All are equal
Q2) Which of the following is a plot of target or normal structure volume as a function of dose?
A) BEV
B) DVH
C) DRR
D) REV
Q3) What is the most common field arrangement used in radiation therapy?
A) Single field
B) Parallel-opposed
C) Four-field box
D) Wedged-pair
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26
Chapter 25: Electron Beams in Radiation Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the depth of the 80% isodose line of a 15-MeV electron beam?
A) 3 cm
B) 3.75 cm
C) 5 cm
D) 7.5 cm
Q2) To produce a therapeutically useful electron beam, the stream of electrons leaving the electron gun must contact the ___________ before exiting the gantry head.
A) target
B) scattering foil
C) flattening filter
D) mirror and bulb assembly
Q3) Which of the following is not an application of bolus when used with electron beams?
A) Increase surface dose
B) Tissue compensator
C) Shape isodose distributions
D) Increase the effective energy at depth
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Chapter 26: Electronic Charting and Image Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) _______ refers to the graphic, textual, and auditory information the program presents to the user and the input methods the user employs to control the program.
A) Data entry
B) Proprietary interface
C) User interface (UI)
D) Standards-based interface
Q2) Electronic medical records (EMRs)provide which benefits over paper-based records?
I.Improved efficiency
II.Enhanced patient privacy and security
III.Improved accessibility to medical information
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) I, II, and III
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28
Chapter 27: Bone, Cartilage, and Soft Tissue Sarcomas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where should the upper and lower field edges be placed for the treatment of metastatic spine cancer?
A) Mid-vertebral body
B) Medial aspect of the vertebral body
C) Superior aspect of the vertebral body
D) Intervertebral space
Q2) Overall, STS requires which dose of radiation to achieve local control and long-term survival?
A) Low
B) Medium
C) High
Q3) Which of the following has the highest incidence of bone tumors?
A) Ewing sarcoma
B) Chondrosarcoma
C) Metastatic bone lesions
D) Multiple myeloma
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29
Chapter 28: Lymphoreticular System Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) What stage is a Hodgkin lymphoma that involves SCV lymph nodes and the spleen?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Q2) Today, the standard treatment for early stage Hodgkin lymphoma is combination chemotherapy and irradiation of the involved field to a dose of ____ Gy.
A) 30
B) 45
C) 50
D) 60
Q3) What landmark is typically used to determine the lower border of the abdominal portion of the inverted-Y field?
A) L1-2
B) L2-3
C) L3-4
D) L4-5
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Chapter 29: Endocrine System Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which gland is follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)produced?
A) Pancreas
B) Pituitary
C) Thyroid
D) Adrenal
Q2) Radioactive iodine is used to treat cancers of which of the following endocrine glands?
A) Pancreas
B) Pituitary
C) Thyroid
D) Adrenal
Q3) In which gland is T? produced?
A) Parathyroid
B) Pituitary
C) Thyroid
D) Adrenal
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Chapter 30: Respiratory System Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a common acute side effect a patient may experience during the course of radiation treatments for lung cancer?
A) Dermatitis
B) Erythema
C) Esophagitis
D) Diarrhea
Q2) What is the 5-year survival rate for small cell and non-small cell lung cancers?
A) 0.5%
B) 15%
C) 60%
D) 85%
Q3) What is the primary function of the respiratory system?
A) Immunity
B) Exchange of gases
C) Production of somatostatin
D) Metabolism
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Chapter 31: Head and Neck Cancers
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Sample Questions
Q1) One virus with increasing prevalence in patients diagnosed with certain tumors of the head and neck is the ___________ virus.
A) Epstein Barr
B) hepatitis B
C) human T-cell type 1
D) hepatitis C
Q2) After what dose of radiation does xerostomia typically first occur?
A) 1000 to 2000 cGy
B) 2000 to 3000 cGy
C) 3000 to 4000 cGy
D) 4000 to 5000 cGy
Q3) Which of the following is not considered a risk factor for larynx cancer?
A) Epstein-Barr virus
B) Poor nutrition
C) Alcohol abuse
D) Human papillomavirus
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Chapter 32: Central Nervous System Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following beam arrangements is most typical for treatment of a malignant primary brain tumor?
A) Parallel opposed whole brain fields
B) Small fields with 1 to 3 cm margins
C) Oblique fields to include the supraorbital ridge
D) Large fields with 5 to 10 cm margins
Q2) Which of the following factors can limit the usefulness of surgery for CNS neoplasms?
A) Tumor location and extent
B) Patient status
C) Risk of causing neurologic damage
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS)?
A) Spherical tumor
B) 2-cm tumor
C) Brain metastases
D) Five lesions
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Chapter 33: Digestive System Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cancers is most common in the United States?
A) Esophagus
B) Stomach
C) Liver
D) Colorectal
Q2) What condition is most closely associated with adenomatous polyposis?
A) Barrett esophagus
B) Gardner syndrome
C) Plummer-Vinson syndrome
D) Tenesmus
Q3) What condition is most closely associated with gastroesophageal reflux?
A) Barrett esophagus
B) Gardner syndrome
C) Plummer-Vinson syndrome
D) Tenesmus
Q4) In which division of the esophagus does most esophageal tumors occur?
A) Upper third
B) Middle third
C) Lower third
D) Gastroesophageal junction
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Chapter 34: Gynecological Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Overall, cervical cancer occurs most frequently with those associated with which of the following factors?
I.Women of lower socioeconomic status
II.Early sexual activity and multiple partners
III.Multiple instances of pelvic infection
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) I, II, and III
Q2) Which female reproductive organ is most likely to develop cancer?
A) Ovarian
B) Uterus (endometrium)
C) Vaginal
D) Vulvar
Q3) Chlamydia infections are a risk factor for developing which female reproductive cancer?
A) Ovarian
B) Cervical
C) Vaginal
D) Vulvar
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Chapter 35: Male Reproductive and Genitourinary Tumors
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25 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A total dose of 7200 cGy in fractions of 180 cGy is used to treat which male reproductive cancer?
A) Prostate
B) Testicle
C) Penis
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following treatment techniques are most frequently used when irradiating the prostate?
I.Supine positioning
II.Prone positioning
III.Full bladder
IV)Empty bladder
A) I and III
B) I and IV
C) II and III
D) II and IV
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Breast Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) What T stage is a breast cancer that is a 3-cm tumor invading the chest wall?
A) Tis
B) T1
C) T2
D) T3
E) T4
Q2) What T stage is a breast cancer that is a 1-cm tumor in the upper outer quadrant?
A) Tis
B) T1
C) T2
D) T3
E) T4
Q3) Inflammatory breast cancer is always classified as which T stage?
A) T4a
B) T4b
C) T4c
D) T4d
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Pediatric Solid Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common intracranial tumor in children?
A) Medulloblastoma
B) Metastatic lesion
C) Astrocytoma
D) Craniopharyngioma
Q2) Which pediatric cancer is closely associated to nephroblastomatoses?
A) Ewing sarcoma
B) Medulloblastoma
C) Rhabdomyosarcoma
D) Wilms' tumor
Q3) Successful treatment of Langerhans cell histiocytosis requires what dose?
A) 200 to 400 cGy
B) 400 to 1200 cGy
C) 1500 to 2500 cGy
D) Greater than 4000 cGy
Q4) Wilms' tumors are cancers of which organ?
A) Kidney
B) Bone
C) Skeletal muscle
D) Smooth muscle
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Chapter 38: Skin Cancers and Melanoma
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Q1) Which layer of the epidermis forms the skin surface and contains 25 to 30 rows of flat, dead, squamous cells?
A) Stratum basale
B) Stratum spinosum
C) Stratum granulosum
D) Stratum corneum
Q2) What form of skin cancer has the highest mortality rate?
A) Basal cell carcinoma
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Melanoma
D) Kaposi sarcoma
Q3) What primary skin cancer (other than malignant melanoma)is aggressive and has a tendency to spread through the lymphatics and bloodstream?
A) Adenocarcinoma
B) Basal cell
C) Squamous cell
D) Merkel cell
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