Cancer Biology Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Cancer Biology is an advanced course that explores the molecular and cellular foundations of cancer, examining how normal cellular processes are disrupted to drive tumor development and progression. The course covers topics such as the hallmarks of cancer, oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes, mechanisms of metastasis, the tumor microenvironment, and the roles of cell signaling pathways in cancer. Students will analyze the genetic and epigenetic changes that underlie cancer, study emerging approaches in cancer diagnostics and therapeutics, and review the latest research in cancer prevention and treatment strategies.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Cell Biology 8th Edition by Harvey Lodish
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23 Chapters
1018 Verified Questions
1018 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Chemical Foundations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a negatively charged amino acid?
A)alanine
B)aspartate
C)glutamine
D)histidine
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is the weakest interaction?
A)hydrogen bond
B)ionic bond
C)phosphoanhydride bond
D)van der Waals interaction
Answer: D
Q3) The ultimate source of chemical energy for all cells is:
A)electricity.
B)heat.
C)light.
D)magnetism.
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Molecular Genetic Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Construction of a cDNA library involves several steps,the first usually involves:
A)digesting noncoding regions of DNA.
B)cloning complementary double-strand DNA into a plasmid.
C)isolating total RNA from the organism or cell type of interest.
D)reverse transcribing RNA into cDNA.
Answer: C
Q2) Describe some typical features of a restriction enzyme recognition sequence.
Answer: Restriction enzyme recognition sequences are typically 4-8 base pairs in length and are often palindromic,which means that the sequence read in the 5´ to 3´ direction is the same on each DNA strand.For example,the recognition sequence for EcoRI is 5´ GAATTC 3´.The complementary sequence is 3´ CTTAAG 5´,which is the same sequence when read in the 5´ to 3´ direction.
Q3) Organisms that are considered polyploid have:
A)more than one genome.
B)more than two copies of each chromosome.
C)only one copy of each chromosome.
D)multiple copies of a specific chromosome.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Km for an enzyme-catalyzed reaction:
A)determines the shape of the kinetics curve.
B)determines the Vm for the reaction.
C)is a measure of the affinity of the substrate for the enzyme.
D)is a measure of the rate of the reaction.
Answer: C
Q2) Two proteins that have a similar function:
A)will share similar amino acid sequences if they are homologs.
B)must have similar amino acid sequences.
C)will have identical primary structures.
D)belong in families together.
Answer: A
Q3) Proteases that attack selected peptide bonds within a polypeptide chain are synthesized and secreted as inactive forms called:
A)carboxypeptidases.
B)aminopeptidases.
C)zymogens.
D)none of the above
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Culturing and Visualizing Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a cellular homogenate were subjected to differential centrifugation,which of the following would be expected to pellet first?
A)the endoplasmic reticulum
B)mitochondria
C)the cytosol
D)nuclei
Q2) You are studying lamins and use an antibody method to follow their expression and subcellular localization at the electron microscope level.What process would you use to find these proteins in the bacteria E.coli?
Q3) All of the following are produced by animal cells in culture and help the cells adhere to the culture dish except:
A)glycoproteins.
B)collagen.
C)phospholipase A.
D)hyaluronic acid.
Q4) Fixatives such as formaldehyde are routinely used in certain types of electron microscopy and light microscopy.However,fixatives may introduce complications in the analysis of the resulting images.What problems may result from using fixatives?
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Fundamental Molecular Genetic Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the CAU anticodon of a tRNA was modified to UAC,the anticodon for tRNA ,valine aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase recognized the altered tRNA and added valine rather than methionine to it.When the converse modification was made,the altered tRNA containing a CAU anticodon (rather than UAC)was recognized and activated by methionine aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.What do these data suggest about the mechanism by which aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases recognize their cognate tRNAs?
Q2) In humans,the ribosome responsible for translating proteins consists of which of following two subunits?
A)60S and 30S
B)40S and 50S
C)18S and 40S
D)60S and 40S
Q3) In DNA,which of the following base pairing normally occurs between two strands of DNA?
A)A to C
B)T to A
C)G to T
D)C to T
Q4) What is the difference between lytic and lysogenic bacteriophages?
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Chapter 6: Bio-membrane Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe how unesterified fatty acids unlinked to CoA are able to move through the aqueous environment of the cytoplasm.
Q2) Peripheral membrane proteins
A)contain many hydrophobic amino acid residues.
B)contain membrane spanning domains.
C)have covalently attached lipid or fatty acid anchors.
D)may noncovalently interact with phospholipid heads.
Q3) Phospholipids with short or unsaturated fatty acyl chains
A)decrease membrane fluidity.
B)increase membrane fluidity.
C)cause biomembranes to become thicker.
D)allow hydrophilic molecules to diffuse across the lipid bilayer.
Q4) Cholesterol and phospholipids are transported between organelles by
A)Golgi-dependent mechanisms.
B)incompletely characterized vesicle populations.
C)direct contact between membranes and,to some extent,small,soluble lipid-transfer proteins.
D)b and c
Q5) What experimental evidence supports the fluid mosaic model of biomembranes?
Page 8
Q6) Describe how you would prepare liposomes from a biological membrane.
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Chapter 7: Genes Genomics and Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The DNA and protein sequences of the -tubulin genes in humans and in fish are similar,and because each arose due to speciation,these genes would be considered:
A)homologous.
B)orthologous.
C)paralogous.
D)autologous.
Q2) Give a functional definition of a gene.
Q3) Chromosome painting involves
A)staining chromosomes with Giemsa reagent.
B)hybridizing fluorescent probes to chromosomes.
C)hybridizing radioactive probes to chromosomes.
D)a and b
Q4) Mobile DNA elements likely contributed to the evolution of higher organisms by the A)generation of gene families by gene duplication.
B)creation of new genes by exon shuffling.
C)formation of more complex regulatory regions.
D)all of the above
Q5) Describe the two major pathways for transposition of mobile elements.
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Chapter 8: Transcriptional Control of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reporter genes employ fragments of DNA encoding proteins that when translated do not have any obvious effects in the cells and tissues.Which one of the following is NOT a reporter protein?
A)luciferase
B)green fluorescent protein
C) -galactosidase
D)RNA polymerase 1
Q2) Which of the following is not a structural motif found in a DNA-binding domain?
A)homeodomain
B)zinc-finger
C)helix-loop-helix
D)random-coil acidic domain
Q3) You are studying the effects of -amanitin,a poisonous cyclic octapeptide,on eukaryotic cells and have noticed that following treatment,there is no miRNA transcription.Based on this evidence you conclude that -amanitin must be inhibiting:
A)RNA polymerase I.
B)RNA polymerase II.
C)RNA polymerase III.
D)RNA polymerase I and RNA polymerase III.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Post-Transcriptional Gene Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ribozyme is an RNA sequence
A)that uses Mg² ions as a cofactor.
B)with catalytic ability to cleave RNA.
C)that acts in the spliceosome.
D)all of the above
Q2) In an experiment you have used recombinant DNA technology to create hnRNP C protein tagged with green fluorescent protein and hnRNP A1 protein tagged with red fluorescent protein.What would you expect to see when the proteins are expressed and visualized in Xenopus cells?
A)green fluorescence only in the cytoplasm
B)red fluorescence only in the nucleus
C)red fluorescence only in the cytoplasm
D)green and red fluorescence in the nucleus
Q3) The branch-point A residue involved in lariat formation is part of the A)intron.
B)exon.
C)5´'UTR.
D)3´UTR.
Q4) How do researchers visualize the cellular locations of specific RNA molecules?
Q5) What are hnRNP proteins? How were they identified?
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Transmembrane Transport of Ions and Small Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statement(s)is (are)true of V-class proton pumps?
A)They are ATPases.
B)They are present in membranes of plant vacuoles.
C)They serve to decrease the pH inside a lysosome.
D)all of the above
Q2) Transepithelial glucose transport uses a symporter to transport glucose up a concentration gradient by:
A)coupling glucose transport to proton movement.
B)coupling glucose transport to Na movement.
C)coupling glucose transport to Ca² movement.
D)coupling glucose transport to Cl- movement.
Q3) The major ATP-powered pump responsible for maintaining ion gradients across the plasma membrane of mammalian cells is:
A)the calmodulin-activated plasma membrane Ca² ATPase.
B)the sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca² ATPase.
C)the vacuolar F-class proton pump.
D)the plasma-membrane Na /K ATPase.
Q4) What evidence suggests that all of the P-class ion pumps evolved from a common ancestor even though they now transport different ions?
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Chapter 11: Cellular Energetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following health-related conditions are NOT related to mitochondrial function?
A)Tay-Sachs disease
B)Parkinson's disease
C)Kearns-Sayre syndrome
D)aging
Q2) The "tail" of chlorophyll is hydrophobic,which is important for:
A)absorbing blue light.
B)anchoring it in the thylakoid membrane.
C)transferring electrons.
D)giving plants their green color.
Q3) Which stages of photosynthesis can occur only in the light and which can also occur in the dark?
Q4) _____ is the carbon-containing compound produced by glycolysis.
A)Pyruvate
B)Glucose
C)CO
D)Acetyl CoA
Q5) Which components of PSII are responsible for producing the proton-motive force?
Page 13
Q6) What is the function of the malate-aspartate shuttle?
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Chapter 12: Moving Proteins Into Membranes and Organelles
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a cell that lacks cytosolic Hsc70:
A)import of proteins into the mitochondrial matrix would be diminished.
B)proteins in the ER would not fold properly.
C)the peroxisome would contain more catalase.
D)generation of ATP from the electron transport chain would happen at the plasma membrane.
Q2) Unlike mitochondria and chloroplasts,peroxisomes can arise _____ from precursor membranes,as well as by division of preexisting organelles.
A)as condensate
B)as dispersions
C)de novo
D)as vaporware
Q3) Protein sequences for targeting to mitochondria or chloroplasts are located at:
A)the C-terminus of the precursor protein.
B)amino acid position 173 in most mitochondrial and chloroplast proteins.
C)the N-terminus of the precursor protein.
D)the second and third answers are correct
Q4) What is meant by de novo formation of peroxisomes?
Page 14
Q5) How does Ran·GTP participate in the nuclear export of the HIV Rev protein?
Q6) How are proteins imported into the thylakoids of chloroplasts?
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Page 15
Chapter 13: Vesicular Traffic, Secretion, and Endocytosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the types of mutations in the LDL receptor that would cause familial hypercholesterolemia.
Q2) Soluble and membrane proteins advance through the Golgi complex by:
A)cisternal progression.
B)stable continuities between Golgi cisterna.
C)transient continuities between Golgi cisterna.
D)vesicular transport.
Q3) How can the direction in which vesicles move in a VSV G-based,cell-free system for transport between Golgi compartments be distinguished?
Q4) Lipoproteins are effective in transporting lipid molecules in an aqueous environment because their surface layer is:
A)hydrophobic.
B)glycosidic.
C)amphipathic.
D)hydrophobic and glycosidic.
Q5) What is the role of vesicles in the early stages of the secretory pathway such as ER to Golgi trafficking?
Q6) What is autophagy?
Q7) How are SNARE proteins thought to bring about specific membrane fusion?
Page 16
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Chapter 14: Signal Transduction and G-Protein Coupled Receptors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell sensitivity to an external signal is determined by:
A)k n.
B)k ff.
C)Kd.
D)the number of surface receptors.
Q2) Of the components of a heterotrimeric G protein,which subunit(s)is(are)able to activate downstream responses?
A)only the alpha subunit
B)only the beta/gamma subunits
C)only the delta subunit
D)both the alpha subunit and the beta/gamma subunits
Q3) Signal amplification is an important part of GPCR-mediated signaling.Which of the following steps do NOT directly amplify the signal?
A)effector activation
B)binding of second messenger to target protein/ion channel
C)kinase acting on substrates
D)second messenger generation
Q4) Describe the differences between an agonist and an antagonist.
Page 17
Q5) How does the body respond to decreases in blood glucose levels below about 5 mM?
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Chapter 15: Signaling Pathways That Control Gene Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Binding of hormone to a receptor tyrosine kinase causes all of the following,except:
A)dimerization of the receptor.
B)autophosphorylation of the receptor.
C)activation of Ras through an interaction with GRB2 and Sos.
D)hydrolysis of GTP bound to Ras.
Q2) Serum response factor (SRF)is phosphorylated by:
A)MEK.
B)MAP kinase.
C)p90 .
D)Raf.
E)Ras.
Q3) Predict the consequences of a temperature-sensitive mutation in which phosphorylation of the -catenin protein is blocked.Above the permissive temperature:
A) -catenin levels will increase and -catenin will be constitutively active.
B) -catenin levels will increase and -catenin will be inactive.
C) -catenin levels will decrease.
D) -catenin will remain constant but cells will be unresponsive to Wnt signaling.
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Page 18
Chapter 16: Cell Organization and Movement I: Microfilaments
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would occur if CapZ was inhibited in cells?
A)increased organization of actin in stereocilia due to stabilized actin dynamics
B)increased rates of polymerization due to reduced availability for ADP-G-actin
C)increased steady-state treadmilling of F-actin
D)faster movement of cells toward a chemical signal
Q2) Which of the following proteins is involved in formation of actin bundles in microvilli by providing crosslinks between actin filaments?
A) actinin
B)cofilin
C)fimbrin
D)profilin
Q3) What cellular components cause some actin filaments to form bundles and others to form networks?
Q4) How are actin-binding proteins involved in gel-sol transitions?
Q5) Which region of myosin interacts with actin filaments?
A)the head domain
B)the rod domain
C)the light chains
D)the tail domain
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Chapter 17: Cell Organization and Movement II: Microtubules
and Intermediate Filaments
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Sample Questions
Q1) During late anaphase and telophase,the microfilament-based contractile ring facilitates pinching the cell into two,but the ring must first be positioned equidistant between the two spindle poles before this occurs.Describe the mechanism whereby signals from the spindle direct the positioning of the contractile ring.
Q2) Where are microtubules observed to be present in different polarities?
A)axons of nerve cells
B)animal cells in interphase
C)animal cells in mitosis
D)dendrites of nerve cells
Q3) The region of a motor protein that interacts with the motor's cellular cargo is the:
A)head domain.
B)tail domain.
C)rod domain.
D)light chains.
Q4) Why would neuronal vesicles probably contain both kinesin and cytosolic dynein?
Q5) What effect will addition of AMP-PNP have on axonal transport?
Q6) What function do kinetochore-bound motor proteins perform during anaphase A?
Q7) What are the effects of colchicine and taxol on cells?
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Chapter 18: Regulating the Eukaryotic Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Investigators found that the cyclin B concentration rises and falls in synchrony with mitotic events and MPF activity.However,correlation is not causality.How did they show that cyclin B was responsible for these cell-cycle events?
Q2) Which of the following is a target of the APC?
A)Cdc25
B)cyclin B
C)separase
D)Cdc28
Q3) During which stage of the cell cycle is the chromosome content of a mammalian liver cell 1n?
A)G
B)S
C)G
D) none of the above
Q4) Exit from mitosis depends upon the degradation of: A)cohesion.
B)condensin.
C)cyclin B. D)securin.
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Chapter 19: Integrating Cells Into Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) A tight junction is made up of which of the following proteins?
A)tricellulin
B)occludin
C)claudin
D)all of the above
Q2) Which of these is NOT a component of plant cell walls?
A)collagen
B)pectin
C)cellulose
D)hemicellulose
Q3) Hydroxyproline is important in the formation of staple collagen polymers within cells.The formation of hydroxyproline requires:
A)vitamin A.
B)vitamin B.
C)vitamin C.
D)vitamin D.
Q4) How are multiple forms of fibronectin generated?
Q5) What are the three unusually abundant amino acids in collagen?
Q6) What is the role of Ca² in NCAM-mediated homophilic cell-cell adhesion?
Q7) What is the oligomeric structure of integrins?
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Chapter 30: Cell Birth, Lineage, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) In cells that have been signaled to die via TNF-a receptor signaling but lack caspase-8 activity:
A)apoptosis occurs via the other caspases.
B)necroptosis occurs downstream of RIP protein activation of MLKL.
C)the cell remains alive and viable.
D)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following genes encodes a caspase in C.elegans?
A)ced-3
B)ced-4
C)ced-9
D)ced-8
Q3) How can somatic cell nuclear transfer be used to clone a mouse?
Q4) Which of the following forms a dimer that gets displaced from the surface of the mitochondria by EGL-1?
A)CED-3
B)CED-4
C)CED-9
D)CED-8
Q5) Explain the role of mitochondria in apoptosis.
Q6) Describe two ways that stem cells can be induced to divide asymmetrically.
Page 23
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Chapter 21: Nerve Cells
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a function of astrocytes?
A)stimulate blood vessels in the brain to maintain tight junctions
B)provide growth factors to neurons
C)produce extracellular matrix
D)excite muscle cells
Q2) Action potentials are propagated in only one direction,down the axon.Explain how the absolute refractory period of the voltage-gated Na channels and the brief hyperpolarization resulting from K efflux produces this outcome.
Q3) During an action potential,which happens first?
A)opening of voltage-gated Na channels
B)closing of voltage-gated Na channels
C)opening of voltage-gated K channels
D)closing of voltage gated K channels
Q4) Acetylcholine receptor loss is observed in people with:
A)schizophrenia.
B)drug addiction.
C)myasthenia gravis.
D)all of the above
Q5) How do researchers measure ion movements through single channels?
Q6) What starts an action potential in a post-synaptic neuron?
Page 24
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Chapter 22: Immunology
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Q1) What roles do natural killer cells play in the innate immune response?
Q2) Which of the following would occur from B-cell class switching?
A)rearrangement of the light chain
B)new VDJ recombination that still retains antigen specificity
C)production of IgA secreted into the bloodstream with the same antigen specificity
D)production of IgG 2 with the same antigen specificity
Q3) Describe how the heavy chains and light chains are arranged in IgA or IgG antibody molecules.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a heavy chain isotype?
A)
B)
C)k
D)
Q5) Which class of immunoglobulins is made first?
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgG
D)IgM
Q6) Why has the live-attenuated polio vaccine been recently discontinued?
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Chapter 23: Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) During metastasis,cells may undergo an epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition whereby there is a(n):
A)increase in cell polarity.
B)loss of cell-cell-adhesion.
C)down-regulation in the expression of the Snail and Twist transcription factors.
D)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following interventions would NOT be likely to prevent tumor cells from metastasizing?
A)inhibitors of adhesion molecules
B)inhibitors of enzymes that degrade the basement membrane
C)inhibitors of cell motility
D)inhibitors of EGF
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of malignant tumors?
A)localized to tissue of origin
B)metastatic
C)well differentiated
D)sense signals that restrict cell division
Q4) What are the differences and similarities between the transforming genes of retroviruses and those of DNA tumor viruses?
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