Canadian Nursing Practice Question Bank - 1742 Verified Questions

Canadian Nursing Practice

Question Bank

Course Introduction

Canadian Nursing Practice explores the foundational concepts, principles, and competencies required for nursing professionals within the Canadian healthcare context. The course examines the roles and responsibilities of nurses in promoting health, preventing illness, and providing client-centered care in diverse settings. Students learn about the Canadian healthcare system, legal and ethical frameworks, cultural safety, interprofessional collaboration, and evidence-informed decision-making. Emphasis is placed on communication skills, nursing theories, standards of practice, and reflective practice, preparing students to deliver safe, compassionate, and holistic care to individuals, families, and communities across Canada.

Recommended Textbook

Medical Surgical Nursing in Canada 3rd Canadian Edition by Lewis

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72 Chapters

1742 Verified Questions

1742 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3946 Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction to Medical-Surgical Nursing

Practice in Canada

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78758

Sample Questions

Q1) When asking a clinical question using the PICO format,which of the following would represent the "C"?

A) Controlled diabetes in a woman aged 50 to 65 years

B) Conditioning and exercise program for one hour,three times weekly

C) Weekly blood glucose levels within normal range

D) Standard care for women with diabetes

Answer: D

Q2) Which characteristic is consistent with critical thinking?

A) Do not use abstract ideas.

B) Think within alternative systems of thought.

C) Encourage cooperative relationships from positions of power and authority.

D) Use the trial-and-error method for effective problem-solving options.

Answer: B

Q3) Which of the following is an example of the "P" in a SOAP progress note?

A) The patient stating that her right arm is numb

B) Encouragement of alternating rest and activity periods

C) Activity intolerance related to fatigue

D) Blood pressure 140/85 mm Hg

Answer: B

Page 3

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Chapter 2: Cultural Competence and Health Equity in Nursing Care

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78747

Sample Questions

Q1) An Aboriginal patient tells the nurse that he thinks his abdominal pain is caused by eating too much seal fat and that strong massage over the stomach will help it.What is this patient describing?

A) Awareness and knowledge of his own culture

B) Encounters with cultures different from his own

C) Explanatory model of health and health practices

D) Knowledge about the differences in modern and folk health practices

Answer: C

Q2) What is the most appropriate action when the patient constantly pauses before answering questions about his or her health history on an admission assessment?

A) Stop the assessment and return later.

B) Wait for the patient to answer the questions.

C) Ask why the questions require so much time to answer.

D) Give the patient the assessment form listing the questions and a pen.

Answer: B

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Chapter 3: Health History and Physical Examination

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which part of the stethoscope is best to use when the nurse is listening to low-pitched sounds?

A) Bell

B) Tube

C) Diaphragm

D) The largest area for auscultation

Answer: A

Q2) Which assessment technique would the nurse have used to document a finding of crepitus?

A) Inspection

B) Palpation

C) Auscultation

D) Percussion

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Patient and Caregiver Teaching

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) How can the nurse most effectively evaluate a teaching objective of "the patient will select a 2000-mg sodium diet from the hospital menu daily for three days with 90% accuracy"?

A) Ask the patient to identify what foods on the daily menu are high in sodium.

B) Have the patient describe the foods that were consumed for the past three days,and total their sodium content.

C) Note the food selected on three daily menus and determine whether the daily sodium content is within 1800 to 2200 mg.

D) Use a record of the patient's food intake for three days to determine whether the total sodium content is 6000 mg.

Q2) A patient is diagnosed with breast cancer following a needle biopsy of a breast lump.Considering the teaching process,what is the priority goal?

A) Learning to live with the disease

B) Selecting and using treatment options

C) Preventing the recurrence of the tumour

D) Minimizing the untoward effects of treatment

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Chapter 5: Chronic Illness

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) For which type of cancer does evidence exist to support a genetic predisposition to occurrence?

A) Lung

B) Breast

C) Cervical

D) Testicular

Q2) Chronic illness accounts for well over half (63%)of all deaths globally.Which chronic illness accounts for the highest proportion of those deaths in Canada?

A) Cancer

B) Diabetes

C) Cardiovascular disease

D) Chronic respiratory disease

Q3) Which of the following is an example of an environment contextual factor according to the World Health Organizations' ICF Bio-Psycho-Social Model?

A) Social background

B) Behaviour pattern

C) Social attitudes

D) Coping style

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Chapter 6: Community-Based Nursing and Home Care

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is considered a foundational concept of home health nursing?

A) Acute care management

B) Health promotion

C) Chronic disease management

D) Health restoration

Q2) How should the nurse describe home care services to a patient requiring extended care?

A) Home care services are limited to visits by nurses or home health aides.

B) For the expenses of home care to be covered,the patient must be confined to bed.

C) The patient's family will need to be included in planning and teaching about the patient's care.

D) Technologically complex therapies,such as parenteral chemotherapy and mechanical ventilators,cannot be managed at home.

Q3) Which of the following is a key principle of primary health care?

A) Universal access to health care on an economic basis

B) Focus on acute illness and cure

C) Partnership with other professions and sectors for health

D) Individuals as passive recipients of health care

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Chapter 7: Older Adults

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) When admitting an older adult patient to the hospital,the nurse asks the patient about advance directives.The patient notes that he has a proxy directive for health care.What does the nurse recognize that the patient has done?

A) Left instructions that are not legally binding about actions to be taken regarding his care in the event of a terminal or irreversible condition

B) Designated another person to make legally binding health care decisions for him if he is unable to do so for himself

C) Documented directions that are legally binding about actions to be taken regarding his care in the event of a terminal or irreversible condition

D) Designated another person to make health care decisions for him if he is unable to do so for himself,but those decisions are not legally binding.

Q2) Why is ageism an important concept to understand when caring for the elderly?

A) May damage the self-esteem of older adults

B) Increases social awareness of the needs of older adults

C) Provides statistical information regarding the older adult population

D) Promotes consideration of the diversity of the older adult population

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9

Chapter 8: Stress and Stress Management

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is scheduled for exploratory abdominal surgery to determine the cause of intermittent abdominal pain that he has had for the past six months.He tells the nurse that it will be a relief to finally have an answer as to the cause of the pain and that he feels relaxed about having the surgery.The nurse concludes that the patient is depicting stress as which type of transaction?

A) He is denying his anxiety about the planned surgery.

B) He will have no physiological response to the surgical procedure.

C) He has a sense of coherence that is able to mediate his stress.

D) He does not perceive that he is lacking adaptive resources for the planned surgery.

Q2) A 40-year-old woman comes to the health clinic requesting sleeping medication and treatment for headaches.She tells the nurse that her husband has moved out to live with another woman.Her 16-year-old son,who has a drug problem,sold her jewellery and electronic equipment.What stress theory is the nurse using in concluding that the woman's life events are contributing to her insomnia and headaches?

A) Stress as a stimulus

B) Stress as a response

C) Stress as a perception

D) Stress as a transaction

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10

Chapter 9: Sleep and Sleep Disorders

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Healthy adults spend what percentage of sleep time in non-rapid eye movement (NREM)sleep?

A) 20% to 25%

B) 45% to 50%

C) 75% to 80%

D) 85% to 90%

Q2) Which of the following should the nurse teach a patient to assist him or her with a sleep disturbance?

A) If you are not asleep within one hour of going to bed,get out of the bed.

B) Exercise an hour before going to bed.

C) Have a glass of wine or a beer just before bedtime.

D) Avoid caffeine and alcohol for at least four hours before bedtime.

Q3) Which of the following is a relatively noninvasive method of monitoring rest and activity cycles?

A) Self-report

B) Actigraphy

C) Polysomnography

D) Pittsburgh Sleep Quality Index

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11

Chapter 10: Pain

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A postoperative patient who has undergone extensive bowel surgery moves as little as possible and does not use his incentive spirometer unless specifically reminded.He rates his pain severity as an 8 on a 10-point scale but tells the nurse that he can "tough it out." To encourage the patient to use pain medication,what should the nurse explain about the effects of withholding or delaying analgesics?

A) Very few patients become addicted to opioids when using them for pain control.

B) He should not worry about side effects because these problems usually decrease over time.

C) Multiple options of medications are available,and if one drug does not relieve his pain,other drugs may be tried.

D) Unrelieved pain can be harmful because it impairs respiratory and gastrointestinal function and can impair his recovery from surgery.

Q2) Which type of pain is caused by damage to somatic tissue?

A) Visceral

B) Nociceptive

C) Neuropathic

D) Sensory-discriminative

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Substance Use

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78756

Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement is true in relation to Canada's low-risk drinking guidelines?

A) Drink no more than 15 drinks per week if you are a female.

B) Have no more than six drinks on any one occasion if you are a male.

C) Limit alcohol intake to two drinks in any three-hour period,regardless of gender.

D) Eat before but not while drinking alcohol.

Q2) For which reason does the nurse administer thiamine and multivitamins to a patient in alcohol withdrawal?

A) To prevent development of encephalopathy

B) To offset vitamin deficiencies caused by excessive drinking

C) To begin to reverse the symptoms of malnutrition

D) To aid in flushing the liver of alcohol-related metabolites

Q3) During which stage of alcohol withdrawal would the nurse expect to see a patient experience delirium tremens?

A) Early

B) Minor

C) Intermediate

D) Major

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13

Chapter 12: Complementary and Alternative Therapies

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with high blood pressure asks the nurse about the use of fish oil supplements to help lower blood pressure.Which is the nurse's best response?

A) "Some evidence exists that fish oil supplements are helpful in treating hypertension."

B) "Fish oil supplements are helpful for treating rheumatoid arthritis."

C) "No clear evidence exists that fish oil supplements are helpful."

D) "Discuss the use of fish oil supplements with the hospital dietitian."

Q2) During a routine health examination,the patient tells the nurse that she uses a variety of herbal therapies to maintain her health.In discussing her use of herbs,what should the nurse caution the patient about?

A) Most herbs are toxic and carcinogenic and should be used only when proven effective.

B) Herbs are not any better than conventional drugs in maintaining health and may be more unsafe.

C) Herbs should be purchased only from manufacturers with a history of quality control of their products.

D) Because herbal therapies may mask the symptoms of serious disease,frequent medical evaluation is required during their use.

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Chapter 13: Palliative Care at the End of Life

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) When caring for a patient close to death,when does the nurse recognize that death legally occurs?

A) When the cerebral cortex function ceases

B) When respirations cease

C) When coma,absence of brainstem reflexes,and apnea occur

D) When cardiopulmonary resuscitative efforts are not effective

Q2) Which sense is usually the last one to disappear before death?

A) Touch

B) Sight

C) Smell

D) Hearing

Q3) For two months after a patient was diagnosed with pancreatic cancer,she did not admit that she was ill and in need of health care.What is the emotional response associated with this stage of grief?

A) Yearning and protest

B) Acceptance and accommodation

C) Denial,disbelief,and avoidance

D) Anger,despair,and confrontation

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Chapter 14: Inflammation and Wound Healing

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of the following types of macrophages would be found in bone tissue?

A) Type A cells

B) Microglial cells

C) Osteoclasts

D) Histiocytes

Q2) The nurse assesses a surgical patient the morning of the first postoperative day.Which of the following signs of a local inflammatory response would the nurse expect to find?

A) Redness and heat of the incision

B) Leukocytosis with elevated monocytes

C) Pain and purulent drainage of the incision

D) Fever and increased pulse and respiratory rate

Q3) Which of the following causes of lethal cell injury results in destruction of the cell membrane or nucleus and the production of lethal toxins?

A) Hypoxia

B) Chemical

C) Microbial

D) Immunological

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Chapter 15: Genetics

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7 Verified Questions

7 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A young woman's mother has been diagnosed with BRCA gene-associated breast cancer,an autosomal dominant genetic disorder.She asks the nurse about the inheritance patterns of this disorder.On what knowledge will the nurse base the response to this young woman?

A) Most affected offspring of autosomal dominant disorders are males.

B) The young woman's mother had unaffected parents who were heterozygous for the gene.

C) The young woman has a 50% chance of having the mutated gene if her mother is heterozygous.

D) Daughters of women who are heterozygotic with an autosomal dominant disorder are usually carriers of the gene.

Q2) On average,what percentage of children in a family will be affected with the mutated gene in an autosomal recessive trait?

A) 0%

B) 25%

C) 50%

D) 100%

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Chapter 16: Altered Immune Response and Transplantation

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is employed as a laboratory technician is scheduled for knee surgery.While obtaining a health history from the patient,the nurse learns that the patient has a history of allergic rhinitis,asthma,and multiple food allergies.What is most important that the nurse do with this information?

A) Document the allergic history,and be alert for the possibility of a type I latex allergy.

B) Encourage the patient to carry an epinephrine kit in case a type IV allergic reaction to latex develops.

C) Advise the patient to use oil-based hand creams to decrease contact with natural proteins in latex gloves.

D) Recommend that the patient use vinyl gloves instead of latex gloves in preventing bloodborne pathogen contact.

Q2) A patient has been undergoing immunotherapy for 1 year.How does the nurse recognize that the goals of immunotherapy are achieved?

A) When blood analysis reveals increased IgG levels

B) When blood analysis reveals decreased IgE levels

C) When blood analysis reveals increased natural killer cells

D) When blood analysis reveals decreased T helper (CD4)cells

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Page 18

Chapter 17: Infection and Human Immunodeficiency Virus

Infection

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has recently tested positive for HIV and asks the nurse about drug therapy for HIV infection.What should the nurse tell the patient about drug therapy?

A) Drug therapy for HIV is indicated only when CD4⁺ T-cell counts are abnormal.

B) Drug therapy is delayed as long as possible to prevent development of viral resistance to the drugs.

C) When to start drug therapy is controversial,and treatment decisions are individualized for each patient.

D) AZT is administered initially to all patients who test positive for HIV to slow viral growth.

Q2) What is the median interval between untreated HIV infection and a diagnosis of AIDS?

A) 2 years

B) 5 years

C) 10 years

D) 20 years

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Cancer

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) In teaching about cancer prevention,why does the nurse stress promotion of exercise,normal body weight,and a low-fat diet?

A) General aerobic health is an important defence against cellular mutation.

B) Obesity is a factor that promotes cancer growth;if it is reversed,the risk of cancer can be decreased.

C) People who are overweight usually consume large amounts of fat,which is a chemical carcinogen.

D) The development of fatty tumours,such as lipomas,is increased when fatty tissue is abundant.

Q2) While she is being prepared for a biopsy of a lump in her right breast,the patient asks the nurse what the difference is between a benign tumour and a malignant tumour.Which of the following explanations about benign tumours best describes the difference from malignant tumours?

A) Benign tumours frequently recur in the same site.

B) Benign tumours do not cause damage to adjacent tissue.

C) Benign tumours do not spread to other tissues and organs.

D) Benign tumours are simply an overgrowth of normal cells.

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Fluid, electrolyte, and Acidbase Imbalances

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Spironolactone (Aldactone),an aldosterone antagonist,is prescribed for a patient as a diuretic.What dietary modifications should the nurse teach the patient to prevent electrolyte imbalances?

A) Increasing foods high in sodium

B) Decreasing foods high in potassium

C) Restricting fluid intake to 1000 mL per day

D) Increasing intake of milk and milk products

Q2) Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of hypokalemia?

A) Irritability

B) Soft,flabby muscles

C) Abdominal cramping

D) Oliguria

Q3) To prevent laryngeal spasms and respiratory arrest in a patient who is at risk for hypocalcemia,the nurse should assess the patient for which early sign of hypocalcemia?

A) Tetany

B) Confusion

C) Constipation

D) Numbness and tingling around the lips or in the fingers

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21

Chapter 20: Nursing Management: Preoperative Care

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following should be the nurse's preoperative consideration when the patient states that she takes a garlic pill every day?

A) Garlic may cause inflammation of the liver.

B) Garlic may inhibit platelet activity.

C) Garlic may increase bleeding.

D) Garlic may increase pulse rate.

Q2) A 74-year-old man is to have a left inguinal hernia repair at the outpatient surgical clinic.Preoperatively,what is it most important for the nurse to determine?

A) The patient has had outpatient surgery in the past.

B) The patient's medical plan covers outpatient surgery.

C) The patient plans to stay overnight at the surgical centre.

D) A family member or friend is available for transportation and care at home.

Q3) Which following class of preoperative medications is administered to increase the patients' gastric pH and decrease gastric volume?

A) Narcotics

B) Benzodiazepines

C) Anticholinergics

D) Histamine H₂-receptor antagonists

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Chapter 21: Nursing Management: Intraoperative Care

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with a dislocated shoulder is prepared for a closed,manual reduction of the dislocation with conscious sedation.Which of the following would the nurse anticipate would be administered preoperatively?

A) Inhaled nitrous oxide

B) IV midazolam

C) Intramuscular ketamine (Ketalar)

D) Intramuscular fentanyl-droperidol (Innovar)

Q2) What is the primary reason the perioperative nurse encourages a family member or a friend to remain with a patient in the preoperative holding area until the patient is taken into the operating room (OR)?

A) To ensure the proper identification of the patient before surgery

B) To protect the patient from cross-contamination with other patients

C) To assist the perioperative nurse to perform a complete patient history

D) To help minimize patient anxiety

Q3) What is one of the most important goals of the registered nurse first assistant?

A) Safety of the patient

B) Monitoring of the activities of others

C) Documentation of the intraoperative care

D) Admission of the patient to the OR

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Page 23

Chapter 22: Nursing Management: Postoperative Care

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Postoperatively,a patient is receiving low-molecular weight heparin.What should the nurse do when administering this drug?

A) Explain that the drug will help prevent clot formation in the legs.

B) Administer the dose with meals to prevent gastrointestinal irritation and bleeding.

C) Check the results of the partial thromboplastin time before administration.

D) Inform the patient that blood will be drawn every 6 hours to monitor the prothrombin time.

Q2) Which of the following is a possible cause for a temperature of 36.1°C in a patient at 8 hours postoperative abdominal surgery?

A) Surgical stress response

B) Lung congestion,atelectasis

C) Effects of anaesthesia

D) Phlebitis

Q3) Which of the following is an ambulatory surgery discharge criterion?

A) Voided at least three times

B) No IV narcotics for last 30 minutes

C) Had at least one bowel movement

D) Oxygen saturation 88%

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Chapter 23: Nursing Assessment: Visual and Auditory Systems

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) During a nursing history,the patient comments that he cannot bend over and lift an object without becoming dizzy and that he frequently has to stop physical activities because of dizziness and nausea.Dysfunction of which of the following is most likely causing the patient's symptoms?

A) Cochlea

B) Middle ear

C) Organ of Corti

D) Semicircular canals

Q2) During assessment of a patient's eyes,the nurse notes that the pupil of the right eye is irregular and appears to protrude into the iris.The nurse should question the patient about a history of which of the following?

A) Pinguecula

B) Eye trauma

C) Corticosteroid use

D) Glaucoma surgery

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Chapter 24: Nursing Management: Visual and Auditory

Problems

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35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) When teaching a patient about the administration of eye drops,the nurse instructs the patient to close his eye and apply gentle pressure with his fingers to the inside corner of the eye for which length of time?

A) 20 to 30 seconds

B) 1 to 2 minutes

C) 2 to 3 minutes

D) 4 to 5 minutes

Q2) A 78-year-old woman has age-related macular degeneration and has undergone laser photocoagulation without significant improvement in her vision.The ophthalmologist has told her that further treatment is not warranted.What is an appropriate outcome for the nurse to plan with the patient?

A) The patient plans for institutional care when blindness becomes total.

B) The patient uses optical and nonoptical methods for vision enhancement.

C) The patient comes to accept the visual impairment and eventual blindness.

D) The patient verbalizes the need to seek a second opinion regarding her condition.

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Chapter 25: Nursing Assessment: Integumentary System

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the primary function of the skin?

A) Sensory perception

B) Mirroring of emotions

C) Protecting underlying tissues of the body

D) Displaying the individual identity of the person

Q2) How would the nurse document a papule?

A) Firm,edematous,irregularly shaped area

B) Elevated,solid lesion smaller than 1 cm in diameter

C) Circumscribed,flat area with a change in skin colour,less than 1 cm in diameter

D) Circumscribed,elevated solid lesion,larger than 1 cm in diameter

Q3) When examining a patient,the nurse notes a musky body odour and relates this finding to activity of which of the following glands?

A) Melanocyte glands

B) Ductless glands

C) Apocrine glands

D) Sebaceous glands

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Chapter 26: Nursing Management: Integumentary

Problems

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78740

Sample Questions

Q1) A topical corticosteroid ointment is prescribed for a patient who has atopic dermatitis in her antecubital and popliteal spaces.During a follow-up visit by the patient,the nurse determines that the patient's administration of the drug should be assessed on observing which of the following findings?

A) Atrophy of the skin

B) Alopecia of the affected areas

C) Red-brown coloration of the lesions

D) Lesions covered with small gauze dressings

Q2) What is the most common reason that people undergo a cosmetic procedure?

A) To increase longevity

B) To obtain different employment

C) To improve their body image

D) To improve function of the area that is involved

Q3) Which of the following would the nurse recommend to the patient who has vitiligo?

A) Chemical peels

B) Use of warm compresses to decrease pain

C) Rehabilitative cosmetics to camouflage the lesion

D) Injection of botulinum toxins (Botox)

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Chapter 27: Nursing Management: Burns

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23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78739

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with deep partial-thickness and full-thickness burns of the face and chest has the wounds treated with the open method.The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection and an expected patient outcome of absence of wound infections.What is an appropriate nursing intervention to help the patient meet the expected outcome?

A) Restrict all visitors to prevent cross-contamination of wounds.

B) Wear gowns,caps,masks,and gloves during all care of the patient.

C) Use sterile water for cleansing and debridement in the hydrotherapy tank.

D) Administer prophylactic broad-spectrum antibiotics to prevent bacterial colonization of wounds.

Q2) Ranitidine (Zantac)is prescribed for a patient with major burns.In teaching the patient about the drug's purpose,the nurse should explain that it is used to prevent which of the following?

A) Diarrhea

B) Constipation

C) Adynamic ileus

D) Curling's ulcer

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Chapter 28: Nursing Assessment: Respiratory System

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78738

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient in severe respiratory distress is admitted to the medical unit at the hospital.During the admission assessment of the patient,what should the nurse do?

A) Perform a comprehensive health history with the patient to determine the extent of prior respiratory problems.

B) Complete a full physical examination to determine the effect of the respiratory distress on other body functions.

C) Delay any physical assessment of the patient,and ask family members about the patient's history of respiratory problems.

D) Perform a physical assessment of the respiratory system,and ask specific questions related to this episode of respiratory distress.

Q2) Which of the following is an early symptom of inadequate oxygenation?

A) Dyspnea at rest

B) Hypotension

C) Tachypnea

D) Cyanosis

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Chapter 29: Nursing Management: Upper Respiratory Problems

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23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78737

Sample Questions

Q1) When doing nutrition-related teaching with a patient who has acute pharyngitis,what should the nurse tell the patient to avoid ingesting?

A) Orange Jell-o

B) Vanilla ice cream

C) Grape popsicles

D) Orange juice

Q2) A patient returns from surgery with a cuffed,single-cannula tracheostomy tube after a total laryngectomy and radical neck dissection.In planning tracheostomy care for the patient during the first 24 hours after surgery,what is the priority nursing intervention?

A) The tracheostomy ties should not be changed.

B) The tracheostomy dressings should not be changed.

C) The patient should be encouraged to assist in the procedure.

D) Assess the airway and breath sounds.

Q3) Which is the most common infection causing acute pharyngitis?

A) Fungal

B) Viral

C) Acute follicular

D) Peritonsillar

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Chapter 30: Nursing Management: Lower Respiratory Problems

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47 Verified Questions

47 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78735

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia complains of a sharp pain whenever he takes a deep breath.Which action will the nurse take next?

A) Listen to the patient's lungs.

B) Check the patient's O₂ saturation.

C) Have the patient cough forcefully.

D) Notify the patient's health care provider.

Q2) To protect susceptible patients in the hospital from aspiration pneumonia,what must the nurse do?

A) Turn and reposition immobile patients every 2 hours.

B) Position patients with altered consciousness in a lateral position.

C) Monitor for respiratory symptoms in those patients who are immunosuppressed.

D) Plan room assignments to prevent infected patients from placement with surgical patients.

Q3) What should the nurse teach patients at risk for pneumonia to obtain?

A) Staphylococcal vaccine

B) Measles,mumps,rubella (MMR)vaccine

C) Pneumococcal vaccine

D) Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG)vaccine

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Chapter 31: Nursing Management: Obstructive Pulmonary Diseases

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42 Verified Questions

42 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78734

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements for a patient with COPD.What is an appropriate intervention for this problem?

A) Order fruits and fruit juices to be offered between meals.

B) Order a high-calorie,high-protein diet with six small meals a day.

C) Teach the patient to use frozen meals that can be microwaved at home.

D) Provide a high-calorie,high-carbohydrate,nonirritating,frequent-feeding diet.

Q2) A patient with severe COPD tells the nurse he wishes he would die because he is so disabled with his disease that he just cannot do anything for himself.Based on this information,the nurse identifies which of the following nursing diagnoses?

A) Hopelessness related to long-term stress

B) Anticipatory grieving related to expectation of death

C) Ineffective coping related to unknown outcome of illness

D) Depression related to physical and psychological dependence

Q3) What is the best nursing action when a patient with COPD is receiving oxygen?

A) Avoid administration of oxygen at a rate of more than 2 L/min.

B) Minimize oxygen use to avoid oxygen dependency.

C) Administer oxygen according to the patient's level of dyspnea.

D) Maintain the pulse oximetry level at 90% or greater.

Page 33

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Chapter 32: Nursing Assessment: Hematological System

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78733

Sample Questions

Q1) During physical assessment of a patient,the nurse suspects a chronic,severe iron-deficiency anemia on finding which of the following?

A) Yellowed sclera

B) Shiny,smooth tongue

C) Gum bleeding and tenderness

D) Loss of position and vibratory sensation in the extremities

Q2) The physician performs a bone marrow aspiration from the posterior iliac crest on a patient with pancytopenia.Following the procedure,what should the nurse do?

A) Apply a topical antimicrobial agent to the site.

B) Administer an analgesic to control pain at the site.

C) Apply pressure over the site for 5 to 10 minutes.

D) Position the patient supine with a small pillow at the aspiration site.

Q3) While examining the lymph nodes during physical assessment,about which of the following findings would the nurse be most concerned?

A) Firm inguinal nodes in a patient with an infected foot

B) Inability to palpate any superficial lymph nodes

C) 1-cm mobile and nontender axillary node

D) 2-cm nonpainful supraclavicular node

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Chapter 33: Nursing Management: Hematological Problems

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38 Verified Questions

38 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78732

Sample Questions

Q1) The physician orders transfusion with packed RBCs for a patient who has severe anemia resulting from a bleeding peptic ulcer.What is the most important nursing action to prevent a transfusion reaction when administering the blood?

A) Verify and document patient identification.

B) Keep the blood chilled during administration.

C) Administer the blood at a rate of no more than 2 mL/min.

D) Stay with the patient during the first 15 minutes of the transfusion.

Q2) During care of the patient with multiple myeloma,what is an important nursing intervention?

A) Limiting activity to prevent pathological fractures

B) Maintaining a fluid intake of 3 to 4 L/day to dilute calcium load

C) Assessing for changes in size and characteristics of lymph nodes

D) Administering narcotic analgesics continuously to control bone pain

Q3) During treatment of the patient with an acute exacerbation of polycythemia vera,what is a critical nursing intervention?

A) Administer oxygen.

B) Evaluate fluid balance.

C) Administer anticoagulants.

D) Administer parenteral iron.

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Chapter 34: Nursing Assessment: Cardiovascular System

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78731

Sample Questions

Q1) Upon auscultation,the nurse identifies an arterial bruit.What is a possible cause?

A) Cardiac dysrhythmias

B) Aneurysm

C) Pericarditis

D) Cardiac valve disorder

Q2) What should the nurse expect as a possible etiology in a patient who exhibits a positive Homans sign?

A) Thyrotoxicosis

B) Thrombophlebitis

C) Incompetent valves

D) Intermittent claudication

Q3) The nurse is monitoring a patient with possible coronary artery disease who is undergoing exercise (stress)testing on a treadmill.Which symptom has the most immediate implications for the patient's care during the exercise testing?

A) BP rising from 134/68 to 150/80 mm Hg

B) HR increasing from 80 to 96 beats/min

C) Patient complaining of feeling short of breath

D) ECG indicating the presence of coronary ischemia

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Chapter 35: Nursing Management: Hypertension

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78730

Sample Questions

Q1) Why should the nurse teach a patient who is taking labetalol (Normodyne)for treatment of hypertension to change position slowly?

A) The medication blocks the vasoconstrictive and sodium-retaining properties initiated by the presence of angiotensin.

B) The medication paralyzes the smooth muscle of blood vessels,and they cannot constrict in response to sympathetic stimulation.

C) The medication blocks the normal sympathetic nervous system response to position changes in vasoconstriction and increased heart rate.

D) The medication blocks the movement of calcium into the cardiac cells,and cardiac output cannot increase in response to decreased BP.

Q2) A patient with stage 1 hypertension who received a new prescription for methyldopa returns to the health clinic after 2 weeks for a follow-up visit.BP is unchanged from the previous clinic visit.What is the nurse's first action?

A) Ask the patient about whether the medication is actually being taken.

B) Teach the patient about the reasons for an increase in the medication dose.

C) Provide information about the use of multiple drugs to treat hypertension.

D) Remind the patient that lifestyle changes are also important in BP control.

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Chapter 36: Nursing Management: Coronary Artery Disease

and Acute Coronary Syndrome

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39 Verified Questions

39 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78729

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient admitted to the critical care unit (CCU)with an MI has a physician's orders for continuous amiodarone (Cordarone)infusion,intravenous (IV)nitroglycerin,and morphine sulphate 2 mg IV every 5 minutes until relief of pain occurs,in addition to the standard CCU protocol.The patient is having frequent,multifocal premature ventricular contractions,and he tells the nurse that the pain is worse than he has ever had and asks if he is going to die.On admission to the CCU,the nurse identifies which of the following nursing diagnoses as a priority?

A) Acute pain related to myocardial ischemia

B) Anxiety related to perceived threat of death

C) Decreased cardiac output related to cardiogenic shock

D) Activity intolerance related to decreased cardiac output

Q2) Three days after an MI,the patient develops chest pain that radiates to the back and left arm and is relieved by sitting in a forward position.On auscultation of the patient's chest,what would the nurse expect to hear?

A) Distant heart sounds

B) S₃ or S₄ heart sounds

C) A pericardial friction rub

D) A loud holosystolic apical murmur

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Chapter 37: Nursing Management: Heart Failure

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78728

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with chronic heart failure tells the nurse at the clinic that he has gained 2.26 kg in the last 3 days,even though he has continued to follow a low-sodium diet.What is the priority nursing action?

A) Ask the patient to recall the dietary intake for the last 3 days because the patient's diet contains hidden sources of sodium.

B) Instruct the patient in a low-calorie,low-fat diet because the weight gain has likely been caused by excessive intake of inappropriate foods.

C) Assess the patient for clinical manifestations of acute heart failure because an exacerbation of the chronic heart failure may be occurring.

D) Educate the patient about the use of diuretic therapy because it is likely that the patient will need medications to reduce the hypervolemia.

Q2) Which of the following is a common cause of chronic heart failure?

A) Anemia

B) Dysrhythmias

C) Myocarditis

D) Hypertensive crisis

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Chapter 38: Nursing Management: Dysrhythmias

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26 Verified Questions

26 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78727

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has a sinus arrest with a junctional escape rhythm.What would the nurse expect the patient's pulse rate to be?

A) 15 to 20 beats/min

B) 20 to 40 beats/min

C) 40 to 60 beats/min

D) 60 to 100 beats/min

Q2) A 21-year-old college student arrives at the student health centre at the end of the quarter complaining,"My heart is skipping beats." The nurse obtains an ECG and notes the presence of occasional PVCs.What action should the nurse take first?

A) Ask the patient about any history of coronary artery disease.

B) Question the patient about current stress level and coffee use.

C) Have the patient transported to the hospital ED.

D) Administer O₂ to the patient at 2 to 3 L/min using nasal prongs.

Q3) What is the most accurate way to calculate the heart rate from an ECG?

A) Count the number of R-R intervals in 6 seconds,and multiply by 10.

B) Count the number of small squares between the R-R interval,and divide by 1500.

C) Count the number of QRS complexes in 1 minute.

D) Count the large squares between one R-R interval,and divide by 300.

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Chapter 39: Nursing Management: Inflammatory and Structural

Heart Disorders

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28 Verified Questions

28 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78726

Sample Questions

Q1) A few days after an acute myocardial infarction,a patient complains of stabbing chest pain that increases with deep breathing.Which action will the nurse take first?

A) Notify the patient's physician.

B) Auscultate the heart sounds.

C) Check the patient's oral temperature.

D) Give the ordered acetaminophen (Tylenol).

Q2) A patient who has developed acute pulmonary edema is hospitalized and diagnosed with dilated cardiomyopathy.Which information will the nurse plan to include when teaching the patient about management of this disorder?

A) Careful compliance with diet and medications will control the patient's symptoms.

B) Notify the doctor about any symptoms of heart failure such as shortness of breath.

C) No more than one or two alcoholic drinks daily are permitted.

D) Elevating the legs above the heart will help relieve angina.

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Chapter 40: Nursing Management: Vascular Disorders

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31 Verified Questions

31 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78724

Sample Questions

Q1) A 36-year-old patient who has a history of thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger's disease)is admitted to the hospital with a gangrenous lesion of his right small toe.In planning expected outcomes with the patient,which outcome should the nurse give the highest priority?

A) Cessation of smoking

B) Maintenance of appropriate weight

C) Control of serum lipid levels

D) Demonstration of meticulous foot care

Q2) A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of chronic venous insufficiency.Which of the following statements by the patient is most consistent with this diagnosis?

A) "I have burning leg pains after I walk three blocks."

B) "I wake up during the night because my legs hurt."

C) "I can't get my shoes on at the end of the day."

D) "I can never seem to get my feet warm enough."

Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of a venous ulcer?

A) Capillary refill 5 seconds

B) Smooth,uniform ulcer margin.

C) Skin warm to touch

D) No dermatitis

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Chapter 41: Nursing Assessment: Gastrointestinal System

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78723

Sample Questions

Q1) A healthy adult produces approximately how much saliva on a daily basis?

A) 500 mL

B) 1000 mL

C) 1500 mL

D) 2000 mL

Q2) Upon doing a physical assessment of a patient's gastrointestinal (GI)system,the nurse would expect to find the cecum and appendix in which quadrant?

A) Right upper quadrant

B) Left upper quadrant

C) Right lower quadrant

D) Left lower quadrant

Q3) Following an episode of vomiting bright red blood,a patient is hospitalized for evaluation.During physical assessment of the patient,which of the following findings does the nurse identify as abnormal?

A) Tympany on percussion of the abdomen

B) The liver edge 3 cm below the costal margin

C) Aortic pulsations visible in the epigastric area

D) Bowel sounds of 30 per minute in each quadrant

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Chapter 42: Nursing Management: Nutritional Problems

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27 Verified Questions

27 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78722

Sample Questions

Q1) Total parenteral nutrition (TPN)with a peripherally inserted central catheter is initiated for a patient who has tar burns and multiple fractures from a roofing accident.After 6 hours of TPN infusion,the nurse checks the patient's capillary blood glucose level and finds it to be 8.9 mmol/L (160 mg/dL).What is the most appropriate nursing action?

A) Notify the physician of the blood glucose level.

B) Recheck the capillary blood glucose in 4 hours.

C) Check the catheter insertion site for signs of inflammation.

D) Slow the rate of the TPN solution to prevent hyperglycemia.

Q2) A 72-year-old patient is seen at the clinic for symptoms of a urinary tract infection.She is 155 cm tall and weighs 42 kg.The nursing history reveals that she drinks tea and eats toast twice a day for her meals because it is easy to fix and she has no appetite.Laboratory results include hemoglobin 6.5 mmol/L (10.5 g/dL)and albumin 20 g/L (2.0 g/dL).The nurse determines that the patient is near starvation with severe protein depletion when which of the following additional findings is observed?

A) A small,nodular liver

B) Generalized weakness

C) Edema of the face and extremities

D) Increased blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine levels

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Chapter 43: Nursing Management: Obesity

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23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78721

Sample Questions

Q1) In the clinic,the nurse is assessing a new patient who has abdominal obesity and hypertension.What further assessment should the nurse do to assess for possible metabolic syndrome?

A) Take the patient's apical pulse.

B) Ask the patient about dietary intake.

C) Measure the patient's waist size.

D) Determine the patient's ethnic origin.

Q2) In planning preoperative teaching for a patient undergoing a Roux-en-Y gastric bypass as treatment for morbid obesity,on what does the nurse place the highest priority?

A) Demonstrating passive range-of-motion exercises to the legs

B) Teaching the patient about the postoperative presence of a nasogastric (NG)tube connected to suction

C) Teaching the patient proper coughing and deep breathing techniques and methods of turning and positioning

D) Discussing the necessary postoperative modifications in lifestyle

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Chapter 44: Nursing Management: Upper Gastrointestinal

Problems

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43 Verified Questions

43 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78720

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is on NPO status and has been receiving parenteral nutrition for 2 weeks develops bilateral pain in the area of the ears.The nurse recognizes that the patient is at risk for development of which of the following conditions?

A) Parotitis

B) Stomatitis

C) Oral candidiasis

D) Vincent's infection (trench mouth)

Q2) In teaching a patient with peptic ulcer disease about nutritional management of the disorder,what should the nurse stress that the patient should do?

A) Avoid raw fruits and vegetables.

B) Avoid foods that cause discomfort.

C) Eat six small meals a day with bland foods.

D) Eliminate milk and milk products from the diet.

Q3) Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient with newly diagnosed GERD?

A) "Peppermint tea may be helpful in reducing your symptoms."

B) "You will need to keep the head of your bed elevated on blocks."

C) "You should avoid eating between meals to reduce acid secretion."

D) "Vigorous physical activities may increase the incidence of reflux."

Page 46

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Chapter 45: Nursing Management: Lower Gastrointestinal

Problems

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45 Verified Questions

45 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78719

Sample Questions

Q1) Sulphasalazine (Salazopyrin)is prescribed for a patient who has been diagnosed with ulcerative colitis.The nurse recognizes that teaching about this drug has been effective when the patient states which of the following?

A) "The medication will prevent infections that cause the diarrhea."

B) "The medication suppresses the inflammation in my large intestine."

C) "I will need lab tests to be sure that I can still fight infections."

D) "I will take the sulphasalazine as an enema or suppository."

Q2) A patient with acute diarrhea of 24 hours' duration calls the clinic to ask for directions for care.In talking with the patient,what should the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient to describe the character of the stools and any associated symptoms.

B) Advise the patient to use over-the-counter loperamide (Imodium)to slow gastrointestinal motility.

C) Inform the patient that laboratory testing of blood and stool specimens will be necessary.

D) Advise the patient to drink clear liquid fluids with electrolytes,such as Gatorade or Pedialyte.

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Chapter 46: Nursing Management:

Biliary Tract Problems

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40 Verified Questions

40 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78718

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with acute hepatitis B asks the nurse if treatment is available for the condition.What should the nurse explain to the patient?

A) Patients with acute hepatitis B can be given HBIG to help reduce the symptoms.

B) A variety of antiviral medications are available to treat acute hepatitis B,but serious side effects limit their use.

C) No medication is available for treatment of HBV infection.

D) Chronic HBV infection can be treated with interferon and lamivudine (Heptovir)and adefovir (Hepsera).

Q2) A patient with cancer of the liver has severe ascites that is causing shortness of breath and difficulty breathing.The physician plans a paracentesis to relieve the fluid pressure on the diaphragm.To prepare the patient for the procedure,what should the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient to empty the bladder.

B) Position the patient flat on the right side.

C) Obtain informed consent for the procedure.

D) Have the patient lie flat with a small pillow under the small of the back.

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Chapter 47: Nursing Assessment: Urinary System

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78717

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with an elevated BUN and serum creatinine is scheduled for a renal arteriogram.The nurse should question an order from the radiology department for which of the following bowel preparations?

A) Castor oil

B) Fleet enema

C) Tap-water enemas

D) Bisacodyl tablets

Q2) When reading a patient's chart,the nurse notes that the patient has had dysuria.To assess whether there is any improvement,which question will the nurse ask?

A) "Do you have any blood in your urine?"

B) "Do you have to get up at night to urinate?"

C) "Do you have any pain when you urinate?"

D) "Do you have to urinate very frequently?"

Q3) For what purpose does the nurse use auscultation during assessment of the urinary system?

A) To determine the position of the kidneys

B) To assess fluid wave patterns in the bladder

C) To determine the level of a distended bladder

D) To identify renal artery and abdominal aortic bruits

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Page 49

Chapter 48: Nursing Management: Renal and Urological Problems

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34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78716

Sample Questions

Q1) A 72-year-old man has benign prostatic hypertrophy,which has contributed to repeated bouts of cystitis.He is now admitted to the hospital with chills,fever,and nausea and vomiting.A urinalysis is positive for bacteria,red blood cells,and white blood cells.The nurse suspects the presence of an upper UTI when assessment of the patient reveals which of the following findings?

A) Suprapubic pain

B) Foul-smelling urine

C) A distended bladder

D) Costovertebral angle (CVA)tenderness

Q2) Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect in the patient with a lower urinary tract infection (UTI)?

A) Flank pain

B) Dysuria

C) Oliguria

D) Nausea

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Chapter 49: Nursing Management: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease

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35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78715

Sample Questions

Q1) Two hours after a kidney transplant,the nurse obtains all of the following data when assessing the patient.Which information is most important to communicate to the physician?

A) The BUN and creatinine levels are elevated.

B) The urinary output is 900 to 1100 mL/hour.

C) The patient's central venous pressure (CVP)is decreased.

D) The patient has level 8 (on a 10-point scale)incision pain when coughing.

Q2) A new order for IV gentamicin (Garamycin)60 mg twice daily is received for a patient with diabetes who has pneumonia.When evaluating for adverse effects of the medication,the nurse will plan to monitor the patient for which of the following?

A) Blood glucose

B) Serum potassium

C) BUN and creatinine

D) Urine osmolality

Q3) A patient complains of leg cramps during hemodialysis.What should the nurse do?

A) Give acetaminophen.

B) Infuse a bolus of normal saline.

C) Massage the patient's legs.

D) Reposition the patient.

Page 51

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Chapter 50: Nursing Assessment: Endocrine System

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78713

Sample Questions

Q1) What is the most common type of feedback system in the regulation of hormones?

A) Negative

B) Positive

C) Complex

D) Chemical

Q2) The physician has ordered a serum cortisol level to rule out adrenal dysfunction in a patient who is a night security guard who works from 2300 hours to 0700 hours and normally sleeps from 0800 hours to 1600 hours.To ensure the most reliable test results,when does the nurse arrange the blood specimen to be drawn?

A) At 0300 hours

B) At 2300 hours

C) In the early morning

D) In the late afternoon

Q3) A patient has a total serum calcium level of 3.3 mmol/L (13.3 mg/dL;6.7 mEq/L).The nurse understands that this level of calcium normally does which of the following?

A) Indicates hypothyroidism

B) Stimulates the secretion of calcitonin

C) Occurs when the parathyroid gland is surgically removed

D) Can be caused by oversecretion of calcitonin from the thyroid gland

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Page 52

Chapter 51: Nursing Management: Endocrine Problems

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39 Verified Questions

39 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78712

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with hypoparathyroidism receives instructions from the nurse regarding symptoms of hypo- and hypercalcemia.The nurse teaches the patient that if mild symptoms of hypocalcemia occur,the patient should do which of the following?

A) Increase the daily fluid intake to twice the usual amount.

B) Self-administer intramuscular calcium before calling the doctor.

C) Call an ambulance because the symptoms will progress to seizures.

D) Breathe in and out of a paper bag to temporarily relieve the symptoms,and then seek medical assistance.

Q2) While assessing a patient who has just arrived in the postanaesthesia recovery unit after a thyroidectomy,the nurse obtains the following data.Which information is most important to communicate to the surgeon?

A) Complaining of level 7 incisional pain on a 10-point scale

B) Cardiac monitor showing a heart rate of 112 beats/min

C) Increasing swelling of the neck

D) A weak,hoarse voice

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Chapter 52: Nursing Management: Diabetes Mellitus

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38 Verified Questions

38 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78711

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with type 2 diabetes has sensory neuropathy of the feet and legs and peripheral vascular disease evidenced by decreased peripheral pulses and dependent rubor.What will the nurse teach the patient?

A) The feet should be soaked in warm water on a daily basis.

B) Flat-soled leather shoes are the best choice to protect the feet from injury.

C) Heating pads should always be set at a very low temperature.

D) Over-the-counter callus remover may be used to remove calluses and prevent pressure.

Q2) The nurse has been teaching the patient to administer a dose of 10 units regular insulin and 28 units Lente insulin.Which of the following statements by the patient indicates a need for additional instruction?

A) "I should rotate injection sites among my arms,legs,and abdomen each day."

B) "I may reuse my insulin syringes for more injections if I recap them after use."

C) "I should draw up the regular insulin first after injecting air into the Lente bottle."

D) "I do not have to pull back on the plunger to check for blood before I inject the insulin."

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54

Chapter 53: Nursing Assessment: Reproductive System

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78710

Sample Questions

Q1) A woman calls the clinic because she is having an unusually heavy menstrual flow.She tells the nurse that she has saturated two pads in the past 2 hours.At which of the following approximate amounts does the nurse estimate the amount of blood loss?

A) 10 to 20 mL

B) 20 to 30 mL

C) 30 to 40 mL

D) 40 to 60 mL

Q2) Which of the following is an age-related change in male sexual functioning?

A) Increased force of ejaculation

B) Increased rigidity of erection

C) Increased interest in sex

D) Decreased libido

Q3) During the physical assessment of a 68-year-old woman,which of the following is a finding that the nurse considers abnormal?

A) Pendulous breasts

B) Nonpalpable ovaries

C) Serous nipple drainage

D) Atrophy of vaginal tissue

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Chapter 54: Nursing Management: Breast Disorders

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23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78709

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has a permanent breast implant inserted in an outpatient surgery area.What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

A) Resume normal activities 2 to 3 days after the mammoplasty.

B) Check wound drains for excessive blood or any foul odour.

C) Wear a loose-fitting bra to decrease irritation of the sutures.

D) Take aspirin every 4 hours to reduce inflammation.

Q2) Which breast disorder is most common between the ages of 35 and 50?

A) Lactational mastitis

B) Fibrocystic changes

C) Fibroadenoma

D) Duct ectasia

Q3) When counselling a patient about breast cancer prevention,the nurse considers that the patient has a significant family history of breast cancer if she has which of the following?

A) A sister who died from ovarian cancer at the age of 29

B) A paternal grandmother who died from breast cancer at the age of 72

C) A cousin who was diagnosed with breast cancer at the age of 60 and ovarian cancer at the age of 68

D) A mother who was diagnosed with breast cancer at the age of 42

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Page 56

Chapter 55: Nursing Management: Sexually Transmitted

Infections

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78708

Sample Questions

Q1) A Gram-stained smear of a patient's urethral discharge reveals the presence of N.gonorrhoeae.The patient tells the nurse that he had sexual contact with a new girlfriend but does not think he was exposed to gonorrhea because she did not appear to have any infection.In responding to the patient,what should the nurse explain?

A) Women develop subclinical cases of gonorrhea that do not cause tissue damage or symptoms.

B) Women do not develop gonorrhea infections but can serve as carriers to spread the infection to males.

C) Many women are not aware they have gonorrhea because they often do not have symptoms of infection.

D) When gonorrhea infections occur in women,the infection affects only the ovaries and not the other genital organs.

Q2) Cervarix,an HPV vaccine,is recommended for which of the following populations?

A) Females before sexual intercourse

B) Males and females between the ages of 9 and 26

C) Females between the ages of 13 and 20

D) Any sexually active female

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Page 57

Chapter 56: Nursing Management: Female Reproductive Problems

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40 Verified Questions

40 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78707

Sample Questions

Q1) A 56-year-old mother of nine children undergoes an anterior and posterior colporrhaphy for repair of a cystocele and a rectocele.When assessing the patient on her return from the postanaesthesia care unit,what would the nurse expect to find?

A) A rectal tube

B) Perineal dressings

C) Gauze vaginal packing

D) An in-dwelling catheter

Q2) A perimenopausal woman does not want to use hormone therapy but is interested in complementary and alternative therapies.Which of the following herbal or supplemental preparations should the nurse suggest is the safest to control menopausal symptoms?

A) Valerian

B) Dong quai

C) Black cohosh

D) Dietary soy products

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Chapter 57: Nursing Management: Male Reproductive Problems

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26 Verified Questions

26 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78706

Sample Questions

Q1) Following a radical retropubic prostatectomy for prostate cancer,the patient is incontinent of urine.What is an appropriate nursing intervention to teach this patient?

A) Pelvic floor muscle training

B) The use of herbal saw palmetto

C) How to perform intermittent self-catheterization

D) To avoid heavy lifting,which increases the incidence of incontinence

Q2) The physician prescribes finasteride (Proscar)for a 56-year-old male patient who has a BPH symptom score of 12 on the AUA Symptom Index.When teaching the patient about the medication,of what should the nurse inform him?

A) His interest in sexual activity may decrease while he is taking the medication.

B) He should change position from lying to standing slowly to avoid dizziness.

C) Improvement in the obstructive symptoms should occur within about 2 weeks.

D) He will need to monitor his blood pressure frequently to assess for hypertension.

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Chapter 58: Nursing Assessment: Nervous System

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21 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the path of intervention with cranial nerve VI (abducens nerve)that is connected to the brain via the pons?

A) Motor path

B) Sensory path

C) Sympathetic path

D) Parasympathetic path

Q2) Which internal structure arises from the basilar and two internal carotid arteries?

A) Reticular formation

B) Blood-brain barrier

C) Circle of Willis

D) Anterior communicating centre

Q3) When reviewing the results of a patient's cerebrospinal fluid analysis obtained from a lumbar puncture,which of the following does the nurse identify as abnormal?

A) pH 7.35

B) White blood cell count 4 cells/microlitre (0.004 cells/L)

C) Protein 0.30 g/L (30 mg/dL)

D) Glucose 1.7 mmol/L (30 mg/dL)

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Chapter 59: Nursing Management: Acute Intracranial Problems

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34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78704

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with a serum sodium level of 115 mmol/L has a decreasing level of consciousness (LOC)and complains of a headache.Which of the following orders should be the priority?

A) Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol)650 mg orally.

B) Administer 5% hypertonic saline intravenously.

C) Draw blood for arterial blood gases (ABGs).

D) Send the patient to the radiology department for computed tomography of the head.

Q2) Which of the following assessment data of the oculomotor nerve make the nurse suspicious of a possible supratentorial herniation and compression of the brainstem?

A) Absent corneal reflexes

B) Development of nystagmus

C) Right pupil does not react to light

D) Left pupil is 10 mm in size

Q3) Rabies manifests as which of the following?

A) Bacterial meningitis

B) Viral encephalitis

C) Viral meningitis

D) Bacterial encephalitis

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Chapter 60: Nursing Management: Stroke

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28 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is assisting the patient who is recovering from an acute stroke and has right-sided hemiplegia to transfer from the bed to the wheelchair.Which nursing action is appropriate?

A) Positioning the wheelchair next to the bed on the patient's right side

B) Placing the wheelchair parallel to the bed on the patient's left side

C) Setting the wheelchair directly in front of the patient,who is sitting on the side of the bed

D) Moving the wheelchair a few steps from the bed and having the patient walk to the chair

Q2) A patient with right-sided weakness that started 1 hour ago is admitted to the emergency department,and the following diagnostic tests are ordered.Which order should the nurse act on first?

A) Chest radiograph

B) Electrocardiogram

C) Complete blood count

D) Noncontrast computed tomography (CT)scan

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Chapter 61: Nursing Management: Chronic Neurological Problems

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33 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) After experiencing a generalized tonic-clonic seizure in the classroom,a 25-year-old high school teacher is evaluated and diagnosed with idiopathic epilepsy.The patient cries when told of the diagnosis and tells the nurse that she can never go back to teaching after experiencing the seizure in front of her students.What is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for the patient?

A) Anxiety related to loss of control during seizures

B) Hopelessness related to diagnosis of chronic illness

C) Disturbed body image related to new diagnosis of epilepsy

D) Ineffective role performance related to misinformation about epilepsy

Q2) A patient with a headache describes it as affecting both sides of his head with a moderate intensity that becomes worse when he is physically active.The nurse knows that the patient's clinical manifestations are characteristic of which of the following disorders?

A) Cluster headaches

B) Migraine headaches

C) Tension-type headaches

D) Headaches associated with trigeminal neuralgia

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Disease,and Other Dementias

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 71-year-old patient is diagnosed with moderate dementia as a result of multiple strokes.During assessment of the patient,what would the nurse expect to find?

A) Extreme suspiciousness

B) Irritability and withdrawal

C) Difficulty eating and swallowing

D) Loss of recent and long-term memory

Q2) A 72-year-old woman hospitalized with pneumonia becomes disoriented and confused 2 days after admission.Which assessment information obtained by the nurse about the patient indicates that the patient is experiencing delirium rather than dementia?

A) The patient is disoriented to place and time but oriented to person.

B) The patient has a history of increasing confusion over several years.

C) The patient's speech is fragmented and incoherent.

D) The patient was oriented and alert when admitted.

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Chapter 63: Nursing Management: Peripheral Nerve and Spinal Cord Problems

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29 Verified Questions

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78699

Sample Questions

Q1) As a result of a gunshot wound,a patient has an incomplete right spinal cord lesion at the level of T7,resulting in Brown-Séquard syndrome.Which nursing action should be included in the plan of care?

A) Assessment of the patient for left leg pain

B) Assessment of the patient for left arm weakness

C) Positioning the patient's right leg when turning the patient

D) Teaching the patient to look at the left leg to verify its position

Q2) Which of the following would the nurse expect from a patient with a spinal cord injury at the level of C7?

A) The patient is able to stand with long leg braces.

B) The patient is independent in all self-care activities.

C) The patient is independent with transferring from a wheelchair to bed.

D) The patient may require assistance with bowel functioning.

Q3) A patient is exhibiting signs of autonomic dysreflexia.Which of the following would the nurse do first?

A) Raise the patient to a sitting position.

B) Check bladder for distension.

C) Assess for tight clothing.

D) Call the health care provider.

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Chapter 64: Nursing Assessment: Musculoskeletal System

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14 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The wrist joint is an example of which one of the following joint types?

A) Hinge joint

B) Pivot joint

C) Condyloid joint

D) Gliding joint

Q2) During assessment of the musculoskeletal system of a 74-year-old woman,what is a finding that reflects the normal age-related vertebral disc compression?

A) Kyphosis

B) Back pain

C) Loss of height

D) Crepitation on movement

Q3) Which type of bone cell plays a role in bone remodelling?

A) Osteoblast

B) Osteoclast

C) Osteocyte

D) Osteon

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Chapter 65: Nursing Management: Musculoskeletal

Trauma and Orthopedic Surgery

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38 Verified Questions

38 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78697

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient with an above-the-knee amputation who will be fitted with a prosthesis when healing is complete and the residual limb is well moulded.The nurse determines that teaching has been effective when the patient gives which of the following responses?

A) "I should lie on my abdomen for 30 minutes three or four times a day."

B) "I should change the limb sock when it becomes soiled or stretched out."

C) "I should use lotion on the stump to prevent drying and cracking of the skin."

D) "I should elevate the residual limb on a pillow several times a day to decrease edema."

Q2) A patient hospitalized with multiple fractures has a long arm plaster cast applied for immobilization of a fractured radius.Until the cast has completely dried,what should the nurse do?

A) Keep the extremity in a dependent position.

B) Handle the cast with the palms of the hands.

C) Position the cast on a pillow to prevent abnormal shaping.

D) Cover the cast with a small blanket to absorb the dampness.

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Chapter 66: Nursing Management: Musculoskeletal

Problems

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which foot disorder does the patient have when there is an elevation of the longitudinal arch of the foot,resulting from contracture of the plantar fascia?

A) Hallux valgus

B) Morton's neuroma

C) Pes cavus

D) Pes planus

Q2) Following a laminectomy with a spinal fusion,a patient reports numbness and tingling of the right lower leg.What is the first nursing action?

A) Report the patient's complaint to the surgeon.

B) Check the vital signs for indications of hemorrhage.

C) Turn the patient to the side to relieve pressure on the operative area.

D) Compare these findings with preoperative assessments of neuromuscular symptoms.

Q3) Which reflex is affected in a patient with a disc herniation at the level of L3?

A) None

B) Patellar

C) Achilles

D) Deep-tendon reflex

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Page 68

Chapter 67: Nursing Management: Arthritis and Connective

Tissue Diseases

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41 Verified Questions

41 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with an acute attack of gout is treated with colchicine.The nurse determines that the drug is effective on observing which of the following findings?

A) Relief of pain

B) Increased urine purine levels

C) Increased urine uric acid levels

D) Decreased serum uric acid levels

Q2) A 71-year-old obese man has bilateral OA of the hips.The nurse teaches the patient that the most beneficial measure to protect his joints is to do which of the following activities?

A) Use a wheelchair to avoid walking as much as possible.

B) Use a weight-reduction diet to obtain a healthy body weight.

C) Use a walker for ambulation to relieve the pressure on his hips.

D) Sit in chairs that do not cause his hips to be lower than his knees.

Q3) Which one of the following medications would the nurse teach the patient to take with food or milk?

A) Ibuprofen (Advil)

B) Capsaicin

C) Diclofenac diethylamine (Voltaren)

D) Triamcinolone (Aristospan)

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Chapter 68: Nursing Management: Critical Care Environment

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38 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with hemodynamic monitoring has a blood pressure of 94/68 mm Hg,HR of 130 beats/min,CO₂ of 4.8 L/min,and mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO₂)of 64%.In analyzing the patient's hemodynamic measurements,the nurse calculates his SV at which of the following findings?

A) 23 mL/beat

B) 37 mL/beat

C) 42 mL/beat

D) 59 mL/beat

Q2) To prevent complications during the insertion of a pulmonary artery flow-directed catheter,it is important for the nurse to monitor which of the following parameters?

A) Cardiac activity

B) Coagulation status

C) Wave pressure tracings

D) Fluid and electrolyte status

Q3) Which finding represents a normal SV when monitoring hemodynamic parameters?

A) 25 mL/beat

B) 50 mL/beat

C) 100 mL/beat

D) 200 mL/beat

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Chapter 69: Nursing Management: Shock,systemic

Inflammatory Response Syndrome,and Multiple-Organ

Dysfunction Syndrome

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78693

Sample Questions

Q1) The triage nurse receives a call from a community member who is driving an unconscious friend with multiple injuries after a motorcycle accident to the hospital.The caller states that they will be arriving in 1 minute.What will the nurse obtain in preparation for the patient's arrival?

A) A litre of lactated Ringer's solution

B) 500 mL of 5% albumin

C) Two 14-gauge IV catheters

D) A retention catheter

Q2) What is an appropriate nursing intervention for a patient in shock with the nursing diagnosis of fear related to perceived threat of death?

A) Arrange for a member of the clergy to visit the patient.

B) Ask the physician to prescribe a sedative for the patient.

C) Provide the patient with as much privacy with the family as possible.

D) Place the patient's call bell where it can be easily reached.

Q3) Which of the following nursing interventions prevents the development of shock?

A) Routine checking of stools for occult blood

B) Keeping patients warm to prevent chilling or shivering

C) Identifying situations in which patients are at risk for shock

D) Frequent monitoring of patient status to detect compensatory changes

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Chapter 70: Nursing Management: Respiratory Failure and

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78691

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with severe chronic lung disease is hospitalized in respiratory distress.When monitoring the patient,which nursing assessment will be of most concern?

A) Bibasilar lung crackles

B) Sitting in the tripod position

C) Oxygen saturation of 91%

D) Decrease in respiratory rate from 30 breaths/min to 10 breaths/min

Q2) To evaluate both oxygenation and ventilation in a patient with acute respiratory failure,the nurse uses the findings revealed with which of the following monitoring methods?

A) Chest X-ray films

B) Pulse oximetry

C) Arterial blood gas (ABG)analysis

D) Hemodynamic monitoring

Q3) The nurse suspects the possible onset of ARDS in a susceptible patient who develops which of the following symptoms?

A) Dyspnea,restlessness,and mild hypoxemia

B) Tachypnea and hypertension with elevated PaO₂

C) Diffuse crackles and rhonchi on chest auscultation

D) Cough with blood-tinged sputum and respiratory alkalosis

Page 72

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Chapter 71: Nursing Management: Emergency Care Situations

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78690

Sample Questions

Q1) During the primary assessment of a trauma victim,the nurse observes that the patient's right pedal pulses are absent and the leg is swollen.What is the nurse's priority action?

A) Initiate two large-bore intravenous (IV)lines with isotonic fluids.

B) Administer 100% oxygen with a nonrebreather mask.

C) Complete the primary assessment before initiating any treatments.

D) Expose the patient to further assess for a cause of the decreased peripheral circulation.

Q2) A migrant field worker is brought to the emergency department after he caught his right hand in a produce conveyer belt.His hand has multiple lacerations,and he has tissue avulsion of the right palm.On questioning,he does not know about his tetanus prophylaxis status.Which of the following drug regimens does the nurse anticipate administering?

A) Tetanus immunoglobulin

B) Tetanus and diphtheria toxoid

C) Tetanus-diphtheria toxoid and tetanus immune globulin

D) Tetanus immune globulin and two doses of tetanus and diphtheria toxoid

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Page 73

Chapter 72: Emergency Preparedness and Disaster Management

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) An acute care centre is testing its emergency plan.During which phase of emergency management does this event occur?

A) Response

B) Recovery

C) Mitigation

D) Preparedness

Q2) A mass casualty incident is an example of which type of disaster?

A) Internal

B) External

C) Peripheral

D) Combined internal and external

Q3) Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)can be spread in several forms.Which one is the least lethal?

A) Inhalation

B) Ingestion

C) Cutaneous

D) Injection

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