Calculus-Based Physics II Test Bank - 2629 Verified Questions

Calculus-Based Physics II Test Bank

Course Introduction

Calculus-Based Physics II is a continuation of the foundational study of classical physics, emphasizing electricity, magnetism, optics, and introductory modern physics concepts. Utilizing calculus, the course explores principles such as electric fields, Gauss's Law, circuits, magnetic fields, Faradays Law, electromagnetic waves, and light behavior. Students develop analytical problem-solving skills to understand and mathematically model physical systems, preparing them for advanced studies in science and engineering. Laboratory components reinforce theoretical concepts through experimental investigation and data analysis.

Recommended Textbook Physics for Scientists and Engineers Technology Update 9th Edition Raymond A. Serway

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46 Chapters

2629 Verified Questions

2629 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Physics and Measurement

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Sample Questions

Q1) John and Linda are arguing about the definition of density.John says the density of an object is proportional to its mass.Linda says the object's mass is proportional to its density and to its volume.Which one,if either,is correct?

A)They are both wrong.

B)John is correct,but Linda is wrong.

C)John is wrong,but Linda is correct.

D)They are both correct.

E)They are free to redefine density as they wish.

Answer: D

Q2) The standard exam page is 8.50 inches by 11.0 inches.Its area in cm² is

A)19.5

B)36.8

C)93.5

D)237.

E)603.

Answer: E

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Motion in One Dimension

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Sample Questions

Q1) The position of a particle moving along the x axis is given by x = (21 + 22t 6.0t²)m,where t is in s.What is the average velocity during the time interval t = 1.0 s to t = 3.0 s?

A) 6.0 m/s

B) 4.0 m/s

C) 2.0 m/s

D) 8.0 m/s

E)8.0 m/s

Answer: C

Q2) A ball thrown vertically from ground level is caught 3.0 s later when it is at its highest point by a person on a balcony which is 14 m above the ground.Determine the initial speed of the ball.

A)19 m/s

B)4.7 m/s

C)10 m/s

D)34 m/s

E)17 m/s

Answer: A

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Vectors

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two vectors starting at the same origin have equal and opposite x components.Is it possible for the two vectors to be perpendicular to each other? Justify your answer.

Answer: Yes.If the y components are of the right magnitudes,the angle can be 90 degrees.(This will occur if 11ea7ff9_2a57_73d9_a768_c1d056ef29d5_TB2295_11 and A = B tan ₁. )

Q2) Refer to Exhibit 3-2.What is the child's distance from her starting position?

A)2.8 m

B)3.5 m

C)6.0 m

D)6.9 m

E)12.0 m

Answer: B

Q3) A vector starts at coordinate (3.0,4.0)and ends at coordinate ( 2.0,16.0).What are the magnitude and direction of this vector?

Answer: 13.0 m,113°.

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Chapter 4: Motion in Two Dimensions

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Sample Questions

Q1) An object moving at a constant speed requires 6.0 s to go once around a circle with a diameter of 4.0 m.What is the magnitude of the instantaneous acceleration of the particle during this time?

A)2.2 m/s²

B)2.7 m/s²

C)3.3 m/s²

D)3.8 m/s²

E)4.4 m/s²

Q2) A race car moving with a constant speed of 60 m/s completes one lap around a circular track in 50 s.What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the race car?

A)8.8 m/s²

B)7.5 m/s²

C)9.4 m/s²

D)6.3 m/s²

E)5.3 m/s²

Q3) An artillery shell is fired with an initial velocity of 300 m/s at 55.0° above the horizontal.It explodes on a mountainside 42.0 s after firing.If x is horizontal and y vertical,find the (x,y)coordinates where the shell explodes.

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6

Chapter 5: The Laws of Motion

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 2.0-kg block slides on a rough horizontal surface.A force (magnitude P = 4.0 N)acting parallel to the surface is applied to the block.The magnitude of the block's acceleration is 1.2 m/s².If P is increased to 5.0 N,determine the magnitude of the block's acceleration.

A)2.1 m/s²

B)2.3 m/s²

C)1.9 m/s²

D)1.7 m/s²

E)3.2 m/s²

Q2) A 5.0-kg mass is attached to the ceiling of an elevator by a rope whose mass is negligible.What force does the mass exert on the rope when the elevator has an acceleration of 4.0 m/s² upward?

A)69 N downward

B)29 N downward

C)49 N downward

D)20 N downward

E)19 N downward

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Page 7

Chapter 6: Circular Motion and Other Applications of

Newtons Laws

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 0.50 kg mass attached to the end of a string swings in a vertical circle (radius = 2.0 m).When the mass is at the highest point of the circle the speed of the mass is 8.0 m/s.What is the magnitude of the force of the string on the mass at this position?

A)21 N

B)11 N

C)16 N

D)26 N

E)36 N

Q2) If a dense 20.0-kg object is falling in air at half its terminal velocity,what is the drag force on the object at this moment?

A)24.5 N

B)49.0 N

C)69.3 N

D)98.0 N

E)139 N

Q3) A small dense object is suspended from the rear view mirror in a car by a lightweight fiber.As the car is accelerating at 1.90 m/s²,what angle does the string make with the vertical?

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Chapter 7: Energy of a System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Positive work can be done

A)by friction on the tires when a car is accelerating without skidding.

B)by a spring when it launches a clown in the air.

C)by a hand throwing a ball.

D)by all of the above.

E)only by (b)and (c)above.

Q2) Sally,who weighs 450 N,stands on a skate board while Roger pushes it forward 13.0 m at constant velocity on a level straight street.He applies a constant 100 N force.

A)The work Roger does on the skateboard is 0 J.

B)The work Roger does on the skateboard is 1 300 J.

C)The work Sally does on the skateboard is 1 300 J.

D)The work Sally does on the skateboard is 5 850 J.

E)The work Roger does on the skateboard is 5 850 J.

Q3) The force of static friction exerted on an automobile's tires by the ground

A)provides the accelerating force that makes the car move forward.

B)does positive work on the car while it is accelerating.

C)does negative work on the car while it is decelerating.

D)does everything listed in (a), (b)and (c).

E)only does positive or negative work as in (b)or (c).

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Conservation of Energy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two masses,M_A and M_B,with M_B = 2M_A,are released at the same time and allowed to fall straight down.Neglect air resistance.When we compare their kinetic energies after they have fallen equal distances,we find that

A)K_B = K_A.

B)K_B = 2K_A.

C)K_B = 4K_A.

D)K_A = 2K_B.

E)K_A = 4K_B.

Q2) A spring with spring constant k = 800 N/m is compressed 12 cm from its equilibrium position.A spring with spring constant k = 400 N/m has the same elastic potential energy as the first spring when its extension is

A)0.060 m.

B)0.085 m.

C)0.12 m.

D)0.17 m.

E)0.24 m.

Q3) A rain cloud contains 2.66 × 10⁷ kg of water vapor.How long would it take for a 2.0 kW pump to lift the same amount of water to an altitude of 2 000 m?

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Page 10

Chapter 9: Linear Momentum and Collisions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two bodies of equal mass m collide and stick together.The quantities that always have equal magnitude for both masses during the collision are

A)their changes in momentum.

B)the force each exerts on the other.

C)their changes in kinetic energy.

D)all of the above.

E)only (a)and (b)above.

Q2) Car A rear ends Car B,which has twice the mass of A,on an icy road at a speed low enough so that the collision is essentially elastic.Car B is stopped at a light when it is struck.Car A has mass m and speed v before the collision.After the collision

A)each car has half the momentum.

B)car A stops and car B has momentum mv.

C)car A stops and car B has momentum 2mv.

D)the momentum of car B is four times as great in magnitude as that of car A. E)each car has half of the kinetic energy.

Q3) A pitcher claims he can throw a baseball with as much momentum as a 3.00-g bullet moving with a speed of 1500 m/s.A baseball has a mass of 0.145 kg.What must be its speed if the pitcher's claim is valid?

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11

Chapter 10: Rotation of a Rigid Object About a Fixed Axis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A small sphere attached to a light rigid rod rotates about an axis perpendicular to and fixed to the other end of the rod.Relative to the positive direction of the axis of rotation,the angular positions of the sphere are positive,its angular velocity is positive,and its angular acceleration is negative.The sphere is

A)rotating clockwise and slowing down.

B)rotating counterclockwise and slowing down.

C)rotating clockwise and speeding up.

D)rotating counterclockwise and speeding up.

E)first rotating clockwise and then counterclockwise.

Q2) At t = 0,a wheel rotating about a fixed axis at a constant angular acceleration of 0.40 rad/s² has an angular velocity of 1.5 rad/s and an angular position of 2.3 rad.What is the angular position of the wheel at t = 2.0 s?

A)4.9 rad

B)4.7 rad

C)4.5 rad

D)4.3 rad

E)4.1 rad

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Angular Momentum

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Sample Questions

Q1) A space station out beyond the solar system is rotating with constant angular velocity.A spaceship heading into the station along a diameter of the station,uses its rockets to brake,and then docks inside the station at its center.When the spaceship docks,the angular momentum of the system consisting of the station and ship

A)is less than the original angular momentum of the station.

B)is the same as the original angular momentum of the station.

C)is greater than the original angular momentum of the station.

D)is less than the original angular momentum of the station,but the angular velocity increases.

E)is greater than the original angular momentum of the station,but the angular velocity decreases.

Q2) If L represents angular momentum,I represents moment of inertia,p represents linear momentum,m represents mass,and r represents a distance,which of the following can represent kinetic energy?

A)p²/2m

B)L²/2I

C)rpI

D)all of the above E)both (a)and (b)

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Page 13

Chapter 12: Static Equilibrium and Elasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Angie says that an object is in equilibrium if the net torques about the center of mass is zero.Robbie says that an object is in equilibrium if the sum of external forces is zero.Which one,if either,is correct?

A)Both are correct: an object is in equilibrium if either condition holds.

B)Neither is correct: both conditions must hold simultaneously.

C)Neither is correct: the net external force and the net external torque about any axis must be zero.

D)Neither is correct: an object is in equilibrium only if its velocity is zero in all coordinate systems.

E)Both are correct: if the sum of the external forces is zero,the net torque about any axis is automatically zero,and vice versa.

Q2) Find the minimum diameter of a steel wire 18 m long that will stretch no more than 9 mm when a load of 380 kg is hung on the lower end.(Y steel = 2.0 × 10¹¹ N/m²).

Q3) If 1.0 m³ of concrete weighs 5 × 10⁴ N,what is the height of the tallest cylindrical concrete pillar that will not collapse under its own weight? (The compression strength of concrete is 1.7 × 10⁷ N/m²)

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Chapter 13: Universal Gravitation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following quantities is conserved for a planet orbiting a star in a circular orbit? Only the planet itself is to be taken as the system;the star is not included.

A)Momentum and energy.

B)Energy and angular momentum.

C)Momentum and angular momentum.

D)Momentum,angular momentum and energy.

E)None of the above.

Q2) Refer to Exhibit 13-1.What is the magnitude of the resultant force (caused by the other two masses)on the mass at the origin?

A)2.7 × 10 ⁸ N

B)2.1 × 10 ⁸ N

C)1.8 × 10 ⁸ N

D)2.4 × 10 ⁸ N

E)2.9 × 10 ⁸ N

Q3) Isaac Newton was able to estimate a value for G,the universal gravitational constant,from the following data: the radius of the Earth is about 6 400 km,the average density of rocks is about 5.50 g/cm³,and g = 9.80 m/s² near the surface of the Earth.What value did Newton obtain for G?

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Chapter 14: Fluid Mechanics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Find the average density of a red giant star with a mass of 20 × 10³⁰ kg (approximately 10 solar masses)and a radius of 150 × 10⁹ m (equal to the Earth's distance from the sun).

A)1.41 × 10 ⁴ kg/m³

B)0.007 kg/m³

C)1.41 kg/m³

D)710 kg/m³

E)1.41 × 10 ³ kg/m³

Q2) Refer to Exhibit 14-1.The absolute pressure at point A,in Pa,is

A)3.92 × 10⁵.

B)4.90 × 10⁵.

C)5.39 × 10⁵.

D)5.88 × 10⁵.

E)6.89 × 10⁵.

Q3) One hundred milliliters of water is poured into a U-tube that has a cross-sectional area of 1 cm².Then 100 milliliters of oil,with a density 80% that of water,is poured down one side of the U-tube so that the oil floats on the water.Find the difference in height of the liquid surfaces on the two sides of the U-tube.

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16

Chapter 15: Oscillatory Motion

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Sample Questions

Q1) John says that the value of the function cos[ (t + T)+ ],obtained one period T after time t,is greater than cos( t + )by 2 .Larry says that it is greater by the addition of 1.00 to cos( t + ).Which one,if either,is correct?

A)John,because T = 2 .

B)John,because T = 1 radian.

C)Larry,because T = 2 .

D)Larry,because T = 1 radian.

E)Neither,because cos( + 2 )= cos .

Q2) The motion of a piston in an auto engine is simple harmonic.If the piston travels back and forth over a distance of 10 cm,and the piston has a mass of 1.5 kg,what is the maximum speed of the piston and the maximum force acting on the piston when the engine is running at 4 200 rpm?

Q3) The mat of a trampoline is held by 32 springs,each having a spring constant of 5 000 N/m.A person with a mass of 40.0 kg jumps from a platform 1.93 m high onto the trampoline.Determine the stretch of each of the springs.

Q4) An archer pulls her bow string back 0.40 m by exerting a force that increases uniformly from zero to 240 N.What is the equivalent spring constant of the bow,and how much work is done in pulling the bow?

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17

Chapter 16: Wave Motion

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Sample Questions

Q1) The wavelength of light visible to the human eye is on the order of 5 × 10 ⁷ m.If the speed of light in air is 3 × 10⁸ m/s,find the frequency of the lightwave.

A)3 × 10⁷ Hz

B)4 × 10⁹ Hz

C)5 × 10¹¹ Hz

D)6 × 10¹⁴ Hz

E)4 × 10¹⁵ Hz

Q2) An earthquake emits both S-waves and P-waves which travel at different speeds through the Earth.A P-wave travels at 9 000 m/s and an S-wave travels at 5 000 m/s.If P-waves are received at a seismic station 1.00 minute before an S-wave arrives,how far away is the earthquake center?

A)88.9 km

B)1 200 km

C)675 km

D)240 km

E)480 km

Q3) If the breakers at a beach are separated by 5.0 m and hit shore with a frequency of 0.20 Hz,with what speed are they traveling?

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Page 18

Chapter 17: Sound Waves

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Sample Questions

Q1) Calculate the intensity level in dB of a sound wave that has an intensity of 15 × 10 ⁴ W/m².

A)20

B)200

C)92

D)9

E)10

Q2) A person standing in the street is unaware of a bird dropping that is falling from a point directly above him with increasing velocity.If the dropping were producing sound of a fixed frequency,as it approaches the person would hear the sound

A)drop in frequency.

B)stay at the same frequency.

C)increase in frequency.

D)decrease in loudness.

E)stay at the same loudness.

Q3) The intensity level of an orchestra is 85 dB.A single violin achieves a level of 70 dB.How does the intensity of the sound of the full orchestra compare with that of the violin?

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19

Chapter 18: Superposition and Standing Waves

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Sample Questions

Q1) Refer to Exhibit 18-1.The phase difference in radians between points A and D is A) .

B)2 .

C)3 .

D)4 .

E)5 .

Q2) Two waves are described by Y₁ = 6 cos 180t and y₂ = 6 cos 186t, (both in meters). With what angular frequency does the maximum amplitude of the resultant wave vary with time?

A)366 rad/s

B)6 rad/s

C)3 rad/s

D)92 rad/s

E)180 rad/s

Q3) Find the frequencies of the first three harmonics of a 1.0-m long string which has a mass per unit length of 2.0 × 10 ³ kg/m and a tension of 80 N when both ends are fixed in place.

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Chapter 19: Temperature

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Q1) One mole of an ideal gas has a temperature of 25°C.If the volume is held constant and the pressure is doubled,the final temperature (in °C)will be

A)174

B)596

C)50

D)323

E)25

Q2) Helium condenses into the liquid phase at approximately 4 K.What temperature,in degrees Fahrenheit,does this correspond to?

A) 182

B) 269

C) 118

D) 452

E) 484

Q3) A gold ring has an inner diameter of 2.168 cm at a temperature of 15.0°C.Determine its diameter at 100.0°C.( _GOLD = 1.42 × 10 ⁵/°C)

Q4) At what Fahrenheit temperature are the Kelvin and Fahrenheit temperatures numerically equal?

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21

Chapter 20: The First Law of Thermodynamics

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Q1) In an isovolumetric process

A)the temperature remains constant.

B)no heat is transferred between a system and its surroundings.

C)the pressure remains constant.

D)the volume remains constant.

E)the internal energy is constant.

Q2) How much heat,in joules,is required to convert 1.00 kg of ice at 0°C into steam at 100°C? (L_ice = 333 J/g;L_steam = 2.26 × 10³ J/g. )

A)3.35 × 10⁵

B)4.19 × 10⁵

C)2.36 × 10⁶

D)2.69 × 10⁶

E)3.01 × 10⁶

Q3) The work done in the expansion from an initial to a final state

A)is the area under the curve of a PV diagram.

B)depends only on the end point.

C)is independent of the path.

D)is the slope of a PV curve.

E)equals P(V_F V_i).

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Page 22

Chapter 21: The Kinetic Theory of Gases

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Q1) The air in an automobile engine at 20°C is compressed from an initial pressure of 1.0 atm and a volume of 200 cm³ to a volume of 20 cm³.Find the temperature if the air behaves like an ideal gas ( = 1.4)and the compression is adiabatic.

A)730°C

B)460°C

C)25°C

D)50°C

E)20°C

Q2) The root mean square speed of a gas molecule is greater than the average speed,because the former gives a greater weight to A)lighter molecules.

B)heavier molecules.

C)lower speeds.

D)higher speeds.

E)more probable speeds.

Q3) One mole of helium gas expands adiabatically from 2 atm pressure to 1 atm pressure.If the original temperature of the gas is 20°C,what is the final temperature of the gas? ( = 1.67)

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23

Chapter 22: Heat Engines, entropy, and the Second Law of

Thermodynamics

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Q1) A Carnot cycle,operating as a heat engine,consists,in the order given,of

A)an isothermal expansion,an isothermal compression,an adiabatic expansion and an adiabatic compression.

B)an adiabatic expansion,an adiabatic compression,an isothermal expansion and an isothermal compression.

C)an isothermal expansion,an adiabatic compression,an isothermal compression and an adiabatic expansion.

D)an adiabatic compression,an isothermal compression,an isothermal expansion and an adiabatic expansion.

E)an isothermal expansion,an adiabatic expansion,an isothermal compression and an adiabatic compression.

Q2) When water of mass m and specific heat c is heated from absolute temperature T₁ to absolute temperature T₂,its change in entropy is A)cm ln(T₂/T₁)

B)cm (T₂/T₁)

C)cm (T₂ T₁)/T₁

D)cm (T₂ T₁)/T₂

E)cm (T₂ T₁)/(T₂ + T₁)

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Chapter 23: Electric Fields

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Q1) An alpha particle (charge = +2e)is sent at high speed toward a gold nucleus (charge +79e).What is the electrical force acting on the alpha particle when it is at a distance of 2 × 10 ¹⁴ m away from the gold nucleus? (e = 1.6 × 10 ¹⁹ C)

Q2) A particle (q = 3.0 mC,m = 20 g)has a speed of 20 m/s when it enters a region where the electric field has a constant magnitude of 80 N/C and a direction which is the same as the velocity of the particle.What is the speed of the particle 3.0 s after it enters this region?

A)68 m/s

B)44 m/s

C)56 m/s

D)80 m/s

E)36 m/s

Q3) The electron gun in a television tube accelerates electrons (mass = 9.11 × 10 ³¹ kg,charge = 1.60 × 10 ¹⁹ C)from rest to 3.00 × 10⁷ m/s within a distance of 2.00 cm.What electric field is required?

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Chapter 24: Gausss Law

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Q1) Charge of uniform surface density (4.0 nC/m²)is distributed on a spherical surface (radius = 2.0 cm).What is the total electric flux through a concentric spherical surface with a radius of 4.0 cm?

A)2.8 N m²/C

B)1.7 N m²/C

C)2.3 N m²/C

D)4.0 N m²/C

E)9.1 N m²/C

Q2) The electric field just outside the surface of a hollow conducting sphere of radius 20 cm has a magnitude of 500 N/C and is directed outward.An unknown charge Q is introduced into the center of the sphere and it is noted that the electric field is still directed outward but has decreased to 100 N/C.What is the magnitude of the charge Q?

A)1.5 nC

B)1.8 nC

C)1.3 nC

D)1.1 nC

E)2.7 nC

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26

Chapter 25: Electric Potential

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Q1) An electron is released form rest in a region of space where a uniform electric field is present.Joanna claims that its kinetic and potential energies both increase as it moves from its initial position to its final position.Sonya claims that they both decrease.Which one,if either,is correct?

A)Joanna,because the electron moves opposite to the direction of the field.

B)Sonya,because the electron moves opposite to the direction of the field.

C)Joanna,because the electron moves in the direction of the field.

D)Sonya,because the electron moves in the direction of the field.

E)Neither,because the kinetic energy increases while the electron moves to a point at a higher potential.

Q2) A charge of +3.0 C is distributed uniformly along the circumference of a circle with a radius of 20 cm.How much external energy is required to bring a charge of 25 C from infinity to the center of the circle?

A)5.4 J

B)3.4 J

C)4.3 J

D)2.7 J

E)6.8 J

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Page 27

Chapter 26: Capacitance and Dielectrics

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Q1) A 15- F capacitor and a 30- F capacitor are connected in series,and charged to a potential difference of 50 V.What is the resulting charge on the 30- F capacitor?

A)0.70 mC

B)0.80 mC

C)0.50 mC

D)0.60 mC

E)0.40 mC

Q2) A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a battery and charged to voltage V.Leah says that the charge on the plates will decrease if the distance between the plates is increased while they are still connected to the battery.Gertie says that the charge will remain the same.Which one,if either,is correct,and why?

A)Gertie,because the maximum voltage is determined by the battery.

B)Gertie,because the capacitance of the capacitor does not change.

C)Leah,because the capacitance decreases when the plate separation is increased.

D)Leah,because the capacitance increases when the plate separation is increased.

E)Neither,because the charge increases when the plate separation is increased.

Q3) Is it feasible to construct an air-filled parallel-plate capacitor that has its two plates separated by 0.10 mm and has a capacitance of 1.0 F? Why or why not?

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28

Chapter 27: Current and Resistance

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Q1) A copper cable is to be designed to carry a current of 300 A with a power loss of only 2.0 watts per meter.What is the required radius of the copper cable? (The resistivity of copper is 1.7 × 10 ⁸ m. )

Q2) What is the resistance of a wire made of a material with a resistivity of 3.2 × 10 ⁸ m if its length is 2.5 m and its diameter is 0.50 mm?

A)0.16

B)0.10

C)1.28

D)0.41

E)0.81

Q3) A small bulb is rated at 7.5 W when operated at 125 V.Its resistance (in ohms)is

A)0.45.

B)7.5.

C)17.

D)940.

E)2 100.

Q4) A high-voltage transmission line carries 1 000 A at 700 kV for a distance of 100 miles.If the resistance per length in the wire is 0.5 /mile,what is the power loss due to resistive losses?

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Chapter 28: Direct-Current Circuits

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Q1) In an RC circuit,how many time constants must elapse if an initially uncharged capacitor is to reach 80% of its final potential difference?

A)2.2

B)1.9

C)1.6

D)3.0

E)5.0

Q2) An initially uncharged 10- F capacitor is charged by a 10-V battery through a resistance R.The capacitor reaches a potential difference of 4 V in a period of 3 s after the charging began.Find the value of R.

Q3) How many time constants must elapse if an initially charged capacitor is to discharge 55% of its stored energy through a resistor?

A)0.60

B)0.46

C)0.52

D)0.40

E)1.1

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Chapter 29: Magnetic Fields

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Q1) A straight wire of length 70 cm carries a current of 50 A and makes an angle of 60° with a uniform magnetic field.If the force on the wire is 1.0 N what is the magnitude of B?

A)41 mT

B)33 mT

C)55 mT

D)87 mT

E)57 mT

Q2) A deuteron is accelerated from rest through a 10-kV potential difference and then moves perpendicularly to a uniform magnetic field with B = 1.6 T.What is the radius of the resulting circular path? (deuteron: m = 3.3 × 10 ²⁷ kg,q = 1.6 × 10 ¹⁹ C)

A)19 mm

B)13 mm

C)20 mm

D)10 mm

E)9.0 mm

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Chapter 30: Sources of the Magnetic Field

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Q1) Two long parallel wires carry unequal currents in opposite directions.The ratio of the currents is 3 to 1.The magnitude of the magnetic field at a point in the plane of the wires and 10 cm from each wire is 4.0 T.What is the larger of the two currents?

A)0.5 A

B)1.0 A

C)1.5 A

D)2.0 A

E)3.0 A

Q2) Two long parallel wires each carry a current of 5.0 A directed to the east.The two wires are separated by 8.0 cm.What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at a point that is 5.0 cm from each of the wires?

A)72 T

B)48 T

C)24 T

D)96 T

E)32 T

Q3) A superconducting wire carries a current of 1.0 × 10⁴ A.Find the magnetic field at a distance of 1.0 m from the wire.

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Chapter 31: Faradays Law

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Q1) A circular loop (area = 0.20 m²)turns in a uniform magnetic field with B = 0.13 T.At an instant when the angle between the magnetic field and the normal to the plane of the loop is ( )rads and is decreasing at the rate of 0.50 rad/s,what is the magnitude of the emf induced in the loop?

A)zero

B)13 mV

C)26 mV

D)20 mV

E)18 mV

Q2) Coil 1,connected to a 100 resistor,sits inside coil 2.Coil 1 is connected to a source of 60 cycle per second AC current.Which statement about coil 2 is correct?

A)No current will be induced in coil 2.

B)DC current (current flow in only one direction)will be induced in coil 2.

C)AC current (current flow in alternating directions)will be induced in coil 2.

D)DC current will be induced in coil 2,but its direction will depend on the initial direction of flow of current in coil 1.

E)Both AC and DC current will be induced in coil 2.

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Page 33

Chapter 32: Inductance

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Q1) When a switch is closed to complete a DC series RL circuit,

A)the electric field in the wires increases to a maximum value.

B)the magnetic field outside the wires increases to a maximum value.

C)the rate of change of the electric and magnetic fields is greatest at the instant when the switch is closed.

D)all of the above are true.

E)only (a)and (c)above are true.

Q2) A circuit contains two inductors of 6.0 mH inductance in series placed in parallel with an inductor of 8.0 mH inductance.After one of the 6.0 mH inductors burns out,the repair person wants to replace all three inductors with one inductor of equivalent inductance.Assuming inductors combine in series and parallel the same way resistors do,what inductance should she use?

A)3.0 mH

B)3.4 mH

C)4.8 mH

D)11 mH

E)20 mH

Q3) An RLC circuit has L = 250 mH,C = 0.200 F,and R = 2.00 k .What is the angular frequency of its damped oscillations?

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Page 34

Chapter 33: Alternating-Current Circuits

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Sample Questions

Q1) Suppose the circuit parameters in a series RLC circuit are: L = 1.00 H,C = 10.0 nF,R = 100 ,and the source voltage is 220 V.Determine the resonant frequency of the circuit and the amplitude of the current at resonance.

Q2) A 60.0-Hz ac generator with a peak voltage of 110 V drives a series RC circuit with R = 10.0 and C = 300 F.The peak current in the circuit is

A)8.24 A.

B)8.84 A.

C)11.0 A.

D)12.4 A.

E)23.5 A.

Q3) A current I = 3 sin (400 t)amperes flows in a series RL circuit in which L = 1 mH and R = 100 .What is the average power loss?

A)225 W

B)450 W

C)980 W

D)1.12 kW

E)900 W

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Chapter 34: Electromagnetic Waves

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the atmosphere,the shortest wavelength electromagnetic waves are called A)microwaves.

B)infrared waves.

C)ultraviolet waves.

D)X-rays.

E)gamma rays.

Q2) Find the frequency of X-rays of wavelength 1 Å = 10 ¹⁰ m.

A)3 × 10¹⁸ Hz

B)3 × 10¹⁰ MHz

C)6 × 10⁹ Hz

D)3 × 10⁸ Hz

E)3 × 10²⁰ Hz

Q3) At a distance of 10 km from a radio transmitter,the amplitude of the E-field is 0.20 volts/meter.What is the total power emitted by the radio transmitter?

A)10 kW

B)67 kW

C)140 kW

D)245 kW

E)21 kW

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Page 36

Chapter 35: The Nature of Light and the Principles of Ray Optics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A layer of ethyl alcohol (n = 1.361)is on top of water (n = 1.333).To the nearest degree,at what angle relative to the normal to the interface of the two liquids is light totally reflected?

A)78°

B)88°

C)68°

D)49°

E)the critical angle is undefined

Q2) A layer of kerosene (n = 1.45)is floating on water (n = 1.33).For what angles of incidence at the kerosene-water interface will light be totally internally reflected within the kerosene?

Q3) Light strikes a diamond (n = 2.42)at an angle of 60° relative to the normal to the surface.What is the angle of refraction?

A)21°

B)30°

C)38°

D)69°

E)71°

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Chapter 36: Image Formation

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Sample Questions

Q1) An object 15 cm high is placed 15 cm in front of a convex mirror with a focal length of 10 cm.What is the image height (in cm)?

A)2

B)4

C)6

D)8

E)30

Q2) A concave mirror has a focal length of 20 cm.What is the magnification if the object's distance is 100 cm?

A)1/2

B)1/4

C) 2

D)4

E) 1/4

Q3) A magnifying glass has a convex lens of focal length 15 cm.At what distance from a postage stamp should you hold this lens to get a magnification of +2.0?

Q4) A concave mirror with a radius of curvature of 1.0 m is illuminated by a candle located on the symmetry axis 3.0 m from the mirror.Where is the image of the candle?

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Chapter 37: Wave Optics

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Sample Questions

Q1) The light reflected from a soap bubble (n = 1.40)appears red ( = 640 nm)at its center.What is the minimum thickness (in nm)?

A)124

B)104

C)114

D)134

E)234

Q2) In a double-slit experiment using light of wavelength 486 nm,the slit spacing is 0.600 mm and the screen is 2.00 m from the slits.Find the distance along the screen between adjacent bright fringes.

Q3) Two slits separated by 0.10 mm are illuminated with green light ( = 540 nm).Calculate the distance (in cm)from the central bright-region to the fifth bright band if the screen is 1.0 m away.

A)2.3

B)2.5

C)2.7

D)2.1

E)2.0

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Chapter 38: Diffraction Patterns and Polarization

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Sample Questions

Q1) Helium-neon laser light ( = 6.33 × 10 ⁷ m)is sent through a 0.30 mm-wide single slit.What is the width of the central maximum on a screen 1.0 m from the slit?

A)2.0 cm

B)4.2 mm

C)1.1 cm

D)2.0 mm

E)0.70 mm

Q2) Scattered light in the atmosphere is often partially polarized.The best way to determine whether or not light from a particular direction in the sky shows polarization is to

A)diffract the light through a single slit.

B)squint while looking in that direction.

C)rotate a piece of polaroid film about an axis parallel to the ray while looking through it in that sky direction.

D)rotate a piece of polaroid film about an axis perpendicular to the ray while looking through it in that sky direction.

E)reflect the rays from that direction on a shiny metal surface.

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Chapter 39: Relativity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Fireworks go off at the same time according to Earth clocks in two cities,Alum and Boron,that are 300 km apart.The people in a spaceship that is flying in a straight line from Alum to Boron at 0.80 c also observe the fireworks.Do they see the fireworks in the two cities simultaneously? If the people in the spaceship say the fireworks were not simultaneous in Alum and Boron,how long before or after the fireworks flashed at Alum did the fireworks flash at Boron according to their calculations? (The spaceship is directly over Alum when the fireworks flash. )

A)Yes;0

B)Before;1.0 × 10 ³ s

C)After;1.0 × 10 ³ s

D)Before;1.3 × 10 ³ s

E)After;1.3 × 10 ³ s

Q2) A supertrain (rest-length = 100 m)travels at a speed of 0.950 c as it passes through a tunnel (rest-length 50.0 m).As seen by a trackside observer,is the train ever completely within the tunnel? If so,by how much?

Q3) When 1.0 gram of hydrogen combines with 8.0 grams of oxygen,9.0 grams of water is formed.But is this true? During the reaction 2.86 × 10⁵ J of energy is released.How much mass is actually lost in this reaction?

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Chapter 40: Introduction to Quantum Physics

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Sample Questions

Q1) The "seeing ability" or resolution of radiation is determined by its wavelength.If an atom is approximately 10 ¹⁰ m in diameter,how fast must an electron travel to have a wavelength smaller than the size of an atom?

Q2) Film behind a double slit is exposed to light in the following way: First one slit is opened and light is allowed to go through that slit for time t.Then it is closed and the other slit is opened and light is allowed to go through that slit for the same time t.When the film is developed the pattern will be

A)one single slit pattern.

B)two superimposed single slit patterns,their centers displaced from each other by the distance between the two slits.

C)one double slit pattern.

D)two double slit patterns,their centers displaced from each other by the distance between the two slits.

E)random darkening of the film.(no pattern at all)

Q3) On a bright and sunny day,the intensity of solar radiation on the Earth's surface is 1 000 W/m².If the average wavelength of the sunlight is 500 nm,how many photons are incident on a square meter of the Earth's surface per second?

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Chapter 41: Quantum Mechanics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A physically reasonable wave function, (x),for a one-dimensional system must

A)be defined at all points in space.

B)be continuous at all points in space.

C)be single-valued.

D)obey all the constraints listed above.

E)obey only (b)and (c)above.

Q2) When a particle approaching a potential step has a total energy that is greater than the potential step,what is the probability that the particle will be reflected?

A)P < 0.

B)P = 0.

C)P = 1.

D)P > 0.

E)P = .

Q3) Quantum tunneling occurs in

A)nuclear fusion.

B)radioactive decay by emission of alpha particles.

C)the scanning tunneling microscope.

D)all of the above.

E)only (b)and (c)above.

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Page 43

Chapter 42: Atomic Physics

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Q1) In the operation of a laser

A)stimulated emission occurs.

B)there is a population inversion.

C)the excited state will tend to be metastable.

D)the photons emitted will have transitioned to the ground state.

E)For the answers (a), (b), (c),and (d),three are correct and one is incorrect.

Q2) An energy of 13.6 eV is needed to ionize an electron from the ground state of a hydrogen atom.Selecting the longest wavelength that will work from the those given below,what wavelength is needed if a photon accomplishes this task?

A)60 nm

B)80 nm

C)70 nm

D)90 nm

E)40 nm

Q3) The energy difference between the upper and lower levels in a certain laser is 1.9593 eV.What is the wavelength of the light emitted by the laser?

Q4) A hydrogen atom emits a photon of wavelength 657.7 nm.From what energy state to what lower energy state did the electron jump?

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Page 44

Chapter 43: Molecules and Solids

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Q1) Assume a diatomic molecule can be considered to be two point masses separated by a distance r.The center of mass of the system is located a distance x from m₁,equal to A)m₁r/(m₁ + m₂) B)m₂r/(m₁ + m₂) C)(m₁ + m₂)r/m₁ D)(m₁ + m₂)r/m₂ E)r(m₂/m₁)

Q2) The energy of a molecule can normally be divided into the following categories:

A)rotational and vibrational

B)translational,rotational and vibrational

C)electronic,translational,rotational,and vibrational

D)rotational

E)electronic

Q3) The Fermi energy corresponds to

A)the maximum energy electrons can have in a metal at T = 0 K.

B)the maximum energy electrons can have in a metal at T = 0 C.

C)the minimum energy electrons can have in a metal at T = 0 K.

D)the number of electrons per unit volume between E and E + dE.

E)the minimum energy electrons can have in a metal at T = 0 C.

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Chapter 44: Nuclear Structure

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Q1) Naturally radioactive nuclei can decay spontaneously by emitting the following particles:

A)helium nuclei,electrons,photons

B)electrons,neutrons,protons

C)helium nuclei,electrons,protons

D)electrons,neutrons,photons

E)quarks and leptons

Q2) In nuclear magnetic resonance,nuclei absorb energy when flipping between nuclear A)mass states.

B)spin states.

C)charge states.

D)decay states.

E)isotope states.

Q3) The isotope,tritium,has a half-life of 12.3 years.Assume we have 10 kg of the substance.How much tritium will be left after 30 years?

A)0.20 kg

B)1.8 kg

C)0.18 kg

D)1.7 kg

E)4.1 kg

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Chapter 45: Applications of Nuclear Physics

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Q1) The theory of nuclear astrophysics is that all the heavy elements like uranium are formed in the interior of massive stars.These stars eventually explode,releasing these elements into space.If we assume that at the time of the explosion there were equal amount of U-235 and U-238,how long ago did the star(s)explode that released the elements that formed our Earth? The present U-235/U-238 ratio is 0.0070.[The half-lives of U-235 and U-238 are 0.7 × 10⁹ yr and 4.47 × 10⁹ yr.]

Q2) What energy is needed (in MeV)so two deuterium atoms moving together will reach the necessary 10 ¹⁴ m for fusion?

A)0.511

B)0.14

Q3) A rem (roentgen equivalent in man)is defined as (the product of)

A)the dose in RBE.

B)the dose in roentgen and the RBE factor.

C)the dose in rad times the dose in roentgen.

D)the dose in rad and the RBE factor.

E)the dose in rad and energy of radiation.

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Page 47

Chapter 46: Particle Physics and Cosmology

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Q1) The minimum energy needed to produce a positron is

A)3 MeV

B)2 MeV

C)1 MeV

D)4 MeV

E)0.51 MeV

Q2) A proton and an antiproton each with total energy of 400 GeV collide head-on.What is the total energy (particles + energy)released?

A)zero

B)400 Gev

C)800 GeV

D)1 600 GeV

E)2 400 GeV

Q3) Calculate the range of the force that might be produced by the virtual exchange of a proton.(m_p = 1.67 × 10 ²⁷ kg,h = 6.626 × 10 ³⁴ J s)

Q4) Name at least one conservation law that prevents each of the following reactions:

A)  + p ⁺ + °

B)p ⁺ + ⁺ + 

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