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Calculus-Based Physics I provides an in-depth introduction to the fundamental principles of physics, using calculus to describe and analyze physical phenomena. The course covers topics such as kinematics, Newtons laws of motion, work and energy, conservation laws, rotational dynamics, oscillations, and gravitation. Designed for science and engineering majors, students will develop problem-solving skills through quantitative reasoning, laboratory experiments, and mathematical modeling, laying a strong foundation for advanced study in physics and related fields.
Recommended Textbook Physics for Scientists and Engineers Technology Update 9th Edition Raymond A. Serway
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Q1) The density of an object is defined as:
A)the volume occupied by each unit of mass.
B)the amount of mass for each unit of volume.
C)the weight of each unit of volume.
D)the amount of the substance that has unit volume and unit mass.
E)the amount of the substance that contains as many particles as 12 grams of the carbon-12 isotope.
Answer: B
Q2) One U.S.fluid gallon contains a volume of 231 cubic inches.How many liters of gasoline would you have to buy in Canada to fill a 14-gallon tank? (Note: 1L = 10<sup>+3</sup> cm<sup>3</sup>. )
A)53
B)21
C)14
D)8.0
E)4.0

Answer: A
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Q1) The position of a particle as it moves along the x axis is given by x = 15e <sup>2</sup><sup>t</sup> m,where t is in s.What is the acceleration of the particle at t = 1.0 s?
A)22 m/s
B)60 m/s
C)8.1 m/s
D)15 m/s
E)35 m/s

Answer: C
Q2) A juggler throws two balls to the same height so that one is at the halfway point going up when the other is at the halfway point coming down.At that point:
A)Their velocities and accelerations are equal.
B)Their velocities are equal but their accelerations are equal and opposite.
C)Their accelerations are equal but their velocities are equal and opposite.
D)Their velocities and accelerations are both equal and opposite.
E)Their velocities are equal to their accelerations.
Answer: C
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Q1) Refer to Exhibit 3-2.What is the child's distance from her starting position?
A)2.8 m
B)3.5 m
C)6.0 m
D)6.9 m
E)12.0 m
Answer: B
Q2) Refer to Exhibit 3-4.The total distance it travels is
A)1000 m.
B)1732 m.
C)2000 m.
D)6298 m.
E)8000 m.

Answer: E
Q3) A vector starts at coordinate (3.0,4.0)and ends at coordinate ( 2.0,16.0).What are the magnitude and direction of this vector?
Answer: 13.0 m,113°.
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Q1) A car is driven 1200 m north at 20.0 m/s and then driven 1600 m east at 25.0 m/s.What are the magnitude and direction of the displacement for this trip?
A)1400 m,northeast
B)2000 m,36.9° north of east
C)2000 m,53.1° north of east
D)2800 m,36.9° east of north
E)2800 m,53.1° east of north
Q2) A baseball is hit at ground level.The ball is observed to reach its maximum height above ground level 3.0 s after being hit.And 2.5 s after reaching this maximum height,the ball is observed to barely clear a fence that is 97.5 m from where it was hit.How high is the fence?
A)8.2 m
B)15.8 m
C)13.5 m
D)11.0 m
E)4.9 m
Q3) A rifle is aimed horizontally toward the center of a target 0.10 km away,but the bullet strikes 10 cm below the center.Calculate the velocity of the bullet just as it emerges from the rifle.
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Q1) The only two forces acting on a body have magnitudes of 20 N and 35 N and directions that differ by 80°.The resulting acceleration has a magnitude of 20 m/s<sup>2</sup>.What is the mass of the body?
A)2.4 kg
B)2.2 kg
C)2.7 kg
D)3.1 kg
E)1.5 kg
Q2) A person weighing 0.70 kN rides in an elevator that has an upward acceleration of 1.5 m/s<sup>2</sup>.What is the magnitude of the force of the elevator floor on the person?
A)0.11 kN
B)0.81 kN
C)0.70 kN
D)0.59 kN
E)0.64 kN
Q3) A 2000-kg sailboat experiences an eastward force of 3000 N by the ocean tide and a wind force against its sails of magnitude 6000 N directed toward the northwest (45° N of W).What is the magnitude and direction of the resultant acceleration?
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Q1) If a dense 20.0-kg object is falling in air at half its terminal velocity,what is the drag force on the object at this moment?
A)24.5 N
B)49.0 N
C)69.3 N
D)98.0 N
E)139 N
Q2) An airplane pilot experiences weightlessness as she passes over the top of a loop-the-loop maneuver.If her speed is 200 m/s at the time,find the radius of the loop.
Q3) An airplane moves 140 m/s as it travels around a vertical circular loop which has a 1.0-km radius.What is the magnitude of the resultant force on the 70-kg pilot of this plane at the bottom of this loop?
A)2.1 kN
B)1.4 kN
C)0.69 kN
D)1.5 kN
E)1.3 kN
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Q1) How much work is done by a person lifting a 2.0-kg object from the bottom of a well at a constant speed of 2.0 m/s for 5.0 s?
A)0.22 kJ
B)0.20 kJ
C)0.24 kJ
D)0.27 kJ
E)0.31 kJ
Q2) When a crate of mass m is dragged a distance d along a surface with coefficient of kinetic friction <sub>k</sub>,then dragged back along the same path to its original position,the work done by friction is A)0.
B) <sub>k</sub>mgd.
C)+ <sub>k</sub>mgd.
D) 2 <sub>k</sub>mgd.
E)+2 <sub>k</sub>mgd.
Q3) A baseball outfielder throws a baseball of mass 0.15 kg at a speed of 40 m/s and initial angle of 30°.What is the kinetic energy of the baseball at the highest point of the trajectory?
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Q1) A 2.0-kg mass swings at the end of a light string (length = 3.0 m).Its speed at the lowest point on its circular path is 6.0 m/s.What is its kinetic energy at an instant when the string makes an angle of 50° with the vertical?
A)21 J
B)15 J
C)28 J
D)36 J
E)23 J
Q2) A pendulum is made by letting a 2.0-kg object swing at the end of a string that has a length of 1.5 m.The maximum angle the string makes with the vertical as the pendulum swings is 30°.What is the speed of the object at the lowest point in its trajectory?
A)2.0 m/s
B)2.2 m/s
C)2.5 m/s
D)2.7 m/s
E)3.1 m/s
Q3) A 70-kg high jumper leaves the ground with a vertical velocity of 6.0 m/s.How high can he jump?
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Q1) A 1.2-kg object moving with a speed of 8.0 m/s collides perpendicularly with a wall and emerges with a speed of 6.0 m/s in the opposite direction.If the object is in contact with the wall for 2.0 ms,what is the magnitude of the average force on the object by the wall?
A)9.8 kN
B)8.4 kN
C)7.7 kN
D)9.1 kN
E)1.2 kN
Q2) If you know the impulse that has acted on a body of mass m you can calculate
A)its initial velocity.
B)its final velocity.
C)its final momentum.
D)the change in its velocity.
E)its acceleration during the impulse.
Q3) A U-238 nucleus (mass = 238 units)decays,transforming into an alpha particle (mass = 4.00 units)and a residual thorium nucleus (mass = 234 units).If the uranium nucleus was at rest,and the alpha particle has a speed of 1.50 × 10<sup>7</sup> m/s,determine the recoil speed of the thorium nucleus.
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Q1) A wheel rotating about a fixed axis has an angular position given by = 3.0 2.0t<sup>3</sup>,where is measured in radians and t in seconds.What is the angular acceleration of the wheel at t = 2.0 s?
A) 1.0 rad/s<sup>2</sup>
B) 24 rad/s<sup>2</sup>
C) 2.0 rad/s<sup>2</sup>
D) 4.0 rad/s<sup>2</sup>
E) 3.5 rad/s<sup>2</sup>
Q2) A wheel rotating about a fixed axis with a constant angular acceleration of 2.0 rad/s<sup>2</sup> turns through 2.4 revolutions during a 2.0-s time interval.What is the angular velocity at the end of this time interval?
A)9.5 rad/s
B)9.7 rad/s
C)9.3 rad/s
D)9.1 rad/s
E)8.8 rad/s
Q3) A uniform solid sphere rolls without slipping along a horizontal surface.What fraction of its total kinetic energy is in the form of rotational kinetic energy about the CM?
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Q1) What is the angular momentum of the moon about the Earth? The mass of the moon is 7.35 × 10<sup>22</sup> kg,the center-to-center separation of the Earth and the moon is 3.84 × 10<sup>5</sup> km,and the orbital period of the moon is 27.3 days.Ignore the small offset of the center of mass of the system from the center of the Earth in your calculation.
Q2) Halley's comet moves about the sun in an elliptical orbit with its closest approach to the sun being 0.59 A.U.and its furthest distance being 35 A.U.[1 Astronomical Unit (A.U. )is the Earth-sun distance.] If the comet's speed at closest approach is 54 km/s,what is its speed when it is farthest from the sun?
Q3) A torque can be exerted on a body with a fixed axis of rotation
A)only by a centripetal force.
B)only by a force directed radially outwards.
C)only by a tangential force.
D)only by a force with a component directed radially outwards.
E)by any force not pointing directly toward or away from the axis of rotation.
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Q1) A horizontal uniform meter stick supported at the 50-cm mark has a mass of 0.50 kg hanging from it at the 20-cm mark and a 0.30 kg mass hanging from it at the 60-cm mark.Determine the position on the meter stick at which one would hang a third mass of 0.60 kg to keep the meter stick balanced.
A)74 cm
B)70 cm
C)65 cm
D)86 cm
E)62 cm
Q2) The 1 560 kg solid steel door to a bank vault is 2.00 m high,1.00 m wide and 10 cm thick.One hinge is 60.0 cm down from the top on the left hand side of the door.The other hinge is 30.0 cm up from the bottom.What horizontal force,in what direction,does the door exert on the upper hinge?
A)6 950 N,left
B)6 950 N,right
C)7 640 N,left
D)7 640 N,right
E)15 300 N,left
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Q1) In an isolated system of two bodies that exert gravitational forces on one another,the quantity (quantities)that remain(s)constant is(are)
A)the total energy of the system.
B)the total angular momentum of the system.
C)the angular positions of the two bodies.
D)all of the above.
E)only (a)and (b)above.
Q2) Planet Zero has a mass of 4.0 × 10<sup>23</sup> kg and a radius of 2.0 × 10<sup>6</sup> m.A 10-kg space probe is launched vertically from the surface of Zero with an initial kinetic energy of 8.0 × 10<sup>7</sup> J.What maximum distance from the center of Zero is achieved by the probe?
A)3.2 × 10<sup>6</sup> m
B)4.0 × 10<sup>6</sup> m
C)6.0 × 10<sup>6</sup> m
D)5.0 × 10<sup>6</sup> m
E)2.5 × 10<sup>6</sup> m
Q3) What is the period of revolution of a planet in circular orbit around a star of 4.0 solar masses if it is at a distance from the star equal to that of the Earth from the Sun?
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Q1) A Boeing 737 airliner has a mass of 20 000 kg and the total area of both wings (top or bottom)is 100 m<sup>2</sup>.What is the pressure difference between the top and bottom surface of each wing when the airplane is in flight at a constant altitude?
A)1 960 N/m<sup>2</sup>
B)3 920 N/m<sup>2</sup>
C)7 840 N/m<sup>2</sup>
D)4 560 N/m<sup>2</sup>
E)3 070 N/m<sup>2</sup>
Q2) Find the pressure in atmospheres in the water at the base of Dworshak Dam if the water in the reservoir is 200 meters deep.(1.01 × 10<sup>5</sup> N/m<sup>2</sup> = 1 ATM. )
A)20.4 ATM
B)24.7 ATM
C)29.4 ATM
D)194 ATM
E)75 ATM
Q3) A natural gas pipeline with a diameter 0.250 m delivers 1.55 cubic meters of gas per second.What is the flow speed of the gas in the pipeline?
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Q1) A body oscillates with simple harmonic motion along the x axis.Its displacement varies with time according to the equation x = 5.0 cos ( t).The magnitude of the acceleration (in m/s<sup>2</sup>)of the body at t = 1.0 s is approximately
A)3.5

Q2) Refer to Exhibit 15-1.The point at which the object has zero velocity and negative acceleration is A)A B)B C)C D)D
E)E
Q3) An automobile (m = 1.00 × 10<sup>3</sup> kg)is driven into a brick wall in a safety test.The bumper behaves like a spring (k = 5.00 × 10<sup>6</sup> N/m),and is observed to compress a distance of 3.16 cm as the car is brought to rest.What was the initial speed of the automobile?
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Q1) Transverse waves are traveling on a 1.00-m long piano string at 500 m/s.If the points of zero vibration occur at one-half wavelength (where the string is fastened at both ends),find the frequency of vibration.
A)250 Hz
B)500 Hz
C)1 000 Hz
D)2 000 Hz
E)2 500 Hz
Q2) If y = 0.02 sin (30x 400t)(SI units),the angular frequency of the wave is
A)30 rad/s
B)30/2 rad/s
C)400/2 rad/s
D)400 rad/s
E)40/3 rad/s
Q3) Bats can detect small objects such as insects that are of a size approximately that of one wavelength.If bats emit a chirp at a frequency of 60 kHz,and the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s,what is the smallest size insect they can detect?
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Q1) (Do not try the following: it could kill you.This question is only about a hypothetical possibility. )If you were standing below an object emitting a fixed frequency sound falling at terminal velocity,as it approached you,you would hear the sound
A)drop in frequency.
B)stay at the same frequency.
C)increase in frequency.
D)decrease in loudness.
E)stay at the same loudness.
Q2) A source of sound waves is placed at the center of a very large sound-reflecting wall.The source emits 0.500 W of power.Two meters from the source the intensity in W/m<sup>2</sup> is
A)9.95 × 10 <sup>3</sup>.
B)1.99 × 10 <sup>2</sup>.
C)0.313.
D)0.399.
E)0.625.
Q3) The intensity level of an orchestra is 85 dB.A single violin achieves a level of 70 dB.How does the intensity of the sound of the full orchestra compare with that of the violin?
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Q1) Superposition of waves can occur
A)in transverse waves.
B)in longitudinal waves.
C)in sinusoidal waves.
D)in all of the above.
E)only in (a)and (c)above.
Q2) Which of the following frequencies could NOT be present as a standing wave in a 2m long organ pipe open at both ends? The fundamental frequency is 85 Hz.
A)85 Hz.
B)170 Hz.
C)255 Hz.
D)340 Hz.
E)382 Hz.
Q3) A steel wire in a piano has a length of 0.700 m and a mass of 4.30 grams.To what tension must this wire be stretched to make the fundamental frequency correspond to middle C, (f<sub>c</sub> = 261.6 Hz)?
Q4) Find the frequencies of the first three harmonics of a 1.0-m long string which has a mass per unit length of 2.0 × 10 <sup>3</sup> kg/m and a tension of 80 N when both ends are fixed in place.
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Q1) Two identical containers,A and B,hold equal amounts of the same ideal gas at the same P<sub>o</sub>,V<sub>o</sub> and T<sub>o</sub>.The pressure of A then decreases by a half while its volume doubles;the pressure of B doubles while its volume decreases by a half.Which statement correctly describes the temperatures of the gases after the changes?
A)T<sub>A</sub> = 0.5T<sub>B</sub> = T<sub>o</sub>.
B)T<sub>B</sub> = 0.5T<sub>A</sub> = T<sub>o</sub>.
C)T<sub>B</sub> = T<sub>A</sub> = T<sub>o</sub>.
D)T<sub>A</sub> = 2T<sub>B</sub> = T<sub>o</sub>.
E)T<sub>B</sub> = 2T<sub>A</sub> = T<sub>o</sub>.
Q2) One mole of an ideal gas has a temperature of 25°C.If the volume is held constant and the pressure is doubled,the final temperature (in °C)will be
A)174
B)596
C)50
D)323
E)25
Q3) At what Fahrenheit temperature are the Kelvin and Fahrenheit temperatures numerically equal?
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Q1) If an object feels cold to the touch,the only statement that you can make that must be correct is that
A)the object has a smaller coefficient of thermal conductivity than your hand.
B)the volume of the object will increase while it is in contact with your hand.
C)the object contains less thermal energy than your hand.
D)the object is at a lower temperature than your hand.
E)the object cannot be a liquid.
Q2) For an astronaut working outside a spaceship,the greatest loss of heat would occur by means of
A)conduction.
B)convection.
C)radiation.
D)conduction and convection.
E)conduction and radiation.
Q3) Star A has a radius of 200 000 km and a surface temperature of 6 000 K.Star B has a radius of 400 000 km and a surface temperature of 3 000 K.The emissivity of both stars is the same.What is the ratio of the rate of energy radiated by Star A to that of Star B?
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Q1) If C<sub>P</sub> for an ideal gas is 35.4 J/mol K,which of the following is C<sub>V</sub> for this gas?
A)12.5 J/mol K
B)20.8 J/mol K
C)29.1 J/mol K
D)27.1 J/mol K
E)43.4 J/mol K
Q2) A 50-gram sample of dry ice (solid CO<sub>2</sub>)is placed in a 4-liter container.The system is sealed and allowed to reach room temperature (20°C).By approximately how much does the pressure inside the container increase when the dry ice turns to gas? (Ignore the initial volume of the sample. )
Q3) A container having a volume of 1.0 m<sup>3</sup> holds 5.0 moles of helium gas at 50°C.If the helium behaves like an ideal gas,the average kinetic energy per molecule is
A)6.7 × 10 <sup>20</sup> J.
B)1.0 × 10 <sup>21</sup> J.
C)1.0 × 10 <sup>20</sup> J.
D)6.7 × 10 <sup>21</sup> J.
E)1.3 × 10 <sup>20</sup> J.
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Q1) A refrigerator has a coefficient of performance of 4.If the refrigerator absorbs 30 cal of heat from the cold reservoir in each cycle,the heat expelled (in cal)into the heat reservoir is
A)40.5
B)37.5
C)36.5
D)34.5
E)22.5
Q2) When water of mass m and specific heat c is heated from absolute temperature T<sub>1</sub> to absolute temperature T<sub>2</sub>,its change in entropy is
A)cm ln(T<sub>2</sub>/T<sub>1</sub>)
B)cm (T<sub>2</sub>/T<sub>1</sub>)
C)cm (T<sub>2</sub> T<sub>1</sub>)/T<sub>1</sub>
D)cm (T<sub>2</sub> T<sub>1</sub>)/T<sub>2</sub>
E)cm (T<sub>2</sub> T<sub>1</sub>)/(T<sub>2</sub> + T<sub>1</sub>)
Q3) Every second at Niagara Falls,some 5000 m<sup>3</sup> of water falls a distance of 50 m.What is the increase in entropy per second due to the falling water? (Assume a 20°C environment).
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Q1) A particle (mass = 5.0 g,charge = 40 mC)moves in a region of space where the electric field is uniform and is given by E<sub>x</sub> = 5.5 N/C,E<sub>y</sub> = E<sub>z</sub> = 0.If the position and velocity of the particle at t = 0 are given by x = y = z = 0 and v<sub>x</sub> = 50 m/s,v<sub>y</sub> = v<sub>z</sub> = 0,what is the distance from the origin to the particle at t = 2.0 s?
A)60 m
B)28 m
C)44 m
D)12 m
E)88 m
Q2) A +2.0-nC point charge is placed at one corner of a square (1.5 m on a side),and a 3.0-nC charge is placed on a corner diagonally away from the first charge.What is the magnitude of the electric field at either of the two unoccupied corners?
A)20 N/C
B)14 N/C
C)4.0 N/C
D)12 N/C
E)8.0 N/C
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Q1) A point charge of 6.0 nC is placed at the center of a hollow spherical conductor (inner radius = 1.0 cm,outer radius = 2.0 cm)which has a net charge of 4.0 nC.Determine the resulting charge density on the inner surface of the conducting sphere.
A)+4.8 C/m<sup>2</sup>
B) 4.8 C/m<sup>2</sup>
C) 9.5 C/m<sup>2</sup>
D)+9.5 C/m<sup>2</sup>
E) 8.0 C/m<sup>2</sup>
Q2) A 4.0-pC point charge is placed at the center of a hollow (inner radius = 2.0 cm,outer radius = 4.0 cm)conducting sphere which has a net charge of 4.0 pC.Determine the magnitude of the electric field at a point which is 6.0 cm from the point charge.
A)35 N/C
B)25 N/C
C)30 N/C
D)20 N/C
E)10 N/C
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Q1) A charge of +3.0 C is distributed uniformly along the circumference of a circle with a radius of 20 cm.How much external energy is required to bring a charge of 25 C from infinity to the center of the circle?
A)5.4 J
B)3.4 J
C)4.3 J
D)2.7 J
E)6.8 J
Q2) Point charges of equal magnitudes (25 nC)and opposite signs are placed on (diagonally)opposite corners of a 60-cm × 80-cm rectangle.If point A is the corner of this rectangle nearest the positive charge and point B is located at the intersection of the diagonals of the rectangle,determine the potential difference,V<sub>B</sub> V<sub>A</sub>.
A) 47 V
B)+94 V
C)zero
D) 94 V
E)+47 V
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Q1) An electron is released from rest at the negative plate of a parallel plate capacitor.If the distance between the plates is 5 mm and the potential difference across the plates is 5 V,with what velocity does the electron hit the positive plate? (m<sub>e</sub> = 9.1 × 10 <sup>31</sup> kg,q<sub>e</sub> = 1.6 × 10 <sup>19</sup> C. )
Q2) A 20- F capacitor charged to 2.0 kV and a 40- F capacitor charged to 3.0 kV are connected to each other,with the positive plate of each connected to the negative plate of the other.What is the final charge on the 20- F capacitor after the two are so connected?
A)53 mC
B)27 mC
C)40 mC
D)80 mC
E)39 mC
Q3) Is it feasible to construct an air-filled parallel-plate capacitor that has its two plates separated by 0.10 mm and has a capacitance of 1.0 F? Why or why not?
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Q1) A 4.0- resistor has a current of 3.0 A in it for 5.0 min.How many electrons pass through the resistor during this time interval?
A)7.5 × 10<sup>21</sup>
B)5.6 × 10<sup>21</sup>
C)6.6 × 10<sup>21</sup>
D)8.4 × 10<sup>21</sup>
E)2.1 × 10<sup>21</sup>
Q2) Jadeen says that you can increase the resistance of a copper wire by hammering the wire to make it narrower and longer.Arnell says that you can increase its resistance by heating the wire.Which one,if either,is correct,and why?
A)Arnell,because the resistivity of the wire increases when it is heated.
B)Arnell,because the resistivity of the wire decreases when it is heated.
C)Jadeen,because the resistivity of a wire is inversely proportional to its area and directly proportional to its length.
D)Jadeen,because the resistivity of a copper wire does not decrease when it is hammered.
E)Both are correct because (a)and (d)are both correct.
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Q1) A capacitor in a single-loop RC circuit is charged to 85% of its final potential difference in 2.4 s.What is the time constant for this circuit?
A)1.5 s
B)1.3 s
C)1.7 s
D)1.9 s
E)2.9 s
Q2) In an RC circuit,what fraction of the final energy is stored in an initially uncharged capacitor after it has been charging for 3.0 time constants?
A)0.84
B)0.90
C)0.75
D)0.60
E)0.03
Q3) An initially uncharged 10- F capacitor is charged by a 10-V battery through a resistance R.The capacitor reaches a potential difference of 4 V in a period of 3 s after the charging began.Find the value of R.
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Q1) An electron follows a circular path (radius = 15 cm)in a uniform magnetic field (magnitude = 3.0 G).What is the period of this motion?
A)0.12 s
B)1.2 ms
C)0.18 s
D)1.8 ms
E)1.8 s
Q2) A proton moves around a circular path (radius = 2.0 mm)in a uniform 0.25-T magnetic field.What total distance does this proton travel during a 1.0-s time interval? (m = 1.67 × 10 <sup>27</sup> kg,q = 1.6 × 10 <sup>19</sup> C)
A)82 km
B)59 km
C)71 km
D)48 km
E)7.5 km
Q3) A thin ribbon of a silver alloy 2.00-cm wide and 0.015 0-mm thick carries a current of 6.98 A perpendicular to a magnetic field.The Hall voltage is found to be 1.24 × 10 <sup>4</sup> V when the magnetic field is 2.50 T.Calculate n,the number of charge carriers per cubic meter.
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Q1) The magnetic field at (?3 m,0,0)is in the negative y direction.
Q2) The field at (1.0 m,0,0)is zero.
Q3) A long solenoid (1000 turns/m)carries a current of 25 mA and has an inside radius of 2.0 cm.A long wire which is parallel to and 4.0 cm from the axis of the solenoid carries a current of 6.0 A.What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at a point on the axis of the solenoid?
A)51 T
B)61 T
C)43 T
D)81 T
E)1.4 T
Q4) A segment of wire of total length 3.0 m carries a 15-A current and is formed into a semicircle.Determine the magnitude of the magnetic field at the center of the circle along which the wire is placed.
A)1.6 T
B)4.9 T
C)1.0 T
D)9.8 T
E)15 T
Q5) The field at (0,1.0 m,0)is in the negative y direction.
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Q1) A conducting rod (length = 2.0 m)spins at a constant rate of 2.0 revolutions per second about an axis that is perpendicular to the rod and through its center.A uniform magnetic field (magnitude = 8.0 mT)is directed perpendicularly to the plane of rotation.What is the magnitude of the potential difference between the center of the rod and either of its ends?
A)16 mV
B)50 mV
C)8.0 mV
D)0.10 mV
E)100 mV
Q2) A long solenoid (n = 1 500 turns/m)has a cross-sectional area of 0.40 m<sup>2</sup> and a current given by I = (4.0 + 3.0t<sup>2</sup>)A,where t is in seconds.A flat circular coil (N = 300 turns)with a cross-sectional area of 0.15 m<sup>2</sup> is inside and coaxial with the solenoid.What is the magnitude of the emf induced in the coil at t = 2.0 s?
A)2.7 V
B)1.0 V
C)6.8 V
D)0.68 V
E)1.4 V
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Q1) An RLC circuit has L = 250 mH,C = 0.200 F,and R = 2.00 k .What is the angular frequency of its damped oscillations?
Q2) When a switch is closed to complete a DC series RL circuit,
A)the electric field in the wires increases to a maximum value.
B)the magnetic field outside the wires increases to a maximum value.
C)the rate of change of the electric and magnetic fields is greatest at the instant when the switch is closed.
D)all of the above are true.
E)only (a)and (c)above are true.
Q3) A series LC circuit contains a 100 mH inductor,a 36.0 mF capacitor and a 12 V battery.The frequency of the electromagnetic oscillations in the circuit is
A)5.73 × 10 <sup>4</sup> Hz.
B)9.55 × 10 <sup>3</sup> Hz.
C)0.442 Hz.
D)2.65 Hz.
E)44.0 Hz.
Q4) The magnetic field in a superconducting solenoid is 3.0 T.How much energy per unit volume is stored in the solenoid,in J/m<sup>3</sup>? <sub>0</sub> = 4 × 10 <sup>7</sup> T A/m
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Q1) A 230000 V-rms powerline carries an average power P<sub>avg</sub> = 250 MW a distance of 200 km.If the total resistance of the cables is 10 ohms,what is the resistive power loss?
A)1.0 MW
B)2.5 MW
C)5.4 MW
D)12 MW
E)10 kW
Q2) A primary current of 6.0 A exists in an ideal iron-core transformer at a primary voltage of 100 volts.If the current in the secondary is 0.75 A,calculate the output voltage. A)12.5 V
B)40 V
C)400 V
D)800 V
E)200 V
Q3) A 10.0- resistor,10.0-mH inductor,and 10.0- F capacitor are connected in series with a 10.0-kHz voltage source.The rms current through the circuit is 0.200 A.Find the rms voltage drop across each of the 3 elements.
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Q1) What is the maximum radiation pressure exerted by sunlight in space (S = 1350 W/m<sup>2</sup>)on a flat black surface?
A)2.25 × 10 <sup>5</sup> Pa
B)0.06 Pa
C)7 × 10 <sup>4</sup> Pa
D)4.5 × 10 <sup>6</sup> Pa
E)9.0 × 10 <sup>6</sup> Pa
Q2) An open circuit consists of a 12 F parallel plate capacitor charged to 200 V and a 10 resistor.At the instant when a switch closes the circuit (with no battery in it)the displacement current between the plates of the capacitor is A)1.2 A.
B)2.4 × 10 <sup>4</sup> A.
C)2.4 mA.
D)10 A.
E)20 A.
Q3) Near the surface of the planet,the Earth's magnetic field is about 0.50 × 10 <sup>4</sup> T.How much energy is stored in 1.0 m<sup>3</sup> of the atmosphere because of this field?
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Q1) The speed of light changes when it goes from ethyl alcohol (n = 1.36)to carbon tetrachloride (n = 1.46).The ratio of the speed in carbon tetrachloride to the speed in ethyl alcohol,v<sub>2</sub>/v<sub>1</sub>,is
A)1.99
B)1.07
C)0.932
D)0.511
E)0.760
Q2) Two mirrors are at right angles to one another.A light ray is incident on the first at an angle of 30° with respect to the normal to the surface.What is the angle of reflection from the second surface?
A)30°
B)60°
C)45°
D)53°
E)75°
Q3) A laser beam is incident from the air at an angle of 30.00° to the vertical onto a solution of Karo syrup in water.If the beam is refracted to 19.24° to the vertical,what is the index of refraction of the syrup solution?
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Q1) A concave mirror has a focal length of 20 cm.What is the magnification if the object and image distances are 10 cm and 20 cm respectively?
A)1
B)2
C)1/2
D)1/4
E) 1/2
Q2) If a convex lens were made out of very thin clear plastic filled with air,and were then placed underwater where n = 1.33 and where the lens would have an effective index of refraction n = 1,the lens would act in the same way
A)as a concave mirror in air.
B)as a concave lens in air.
C)as a convex lens in air.
D)as a flat refracting surface between water and air as seen from the water side.
E)as the glasses worn by a farsighted person.
Q3) A magnifying glass has a convex lens of focal length 15 cm.At what distance from a postage stamp should you hold this lens to get a magnification of +2.0?
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Q1) In a Newton's rings apparatus,find the phase difference (in radians)when an air wedge of 500 nm thickness is illuminated with red light ( = 640 nm).
A)13
B)11
C)9
D)7
E)3
Q2) A soap bubble (n = 1.35)is floating in air.If the thickness of the bubble wall is 115 nm,what visible light wavelength is most strongly reflected?
Q3) Two slits separated by 0.050 mm are illuminated with green light ( = 540 nm).How many bands of bright lines are there between the central maximum and the 12-cm position? (The distance between the double slits and the screen is 1.0 m. )
A)1111
B)111
C)11
D)1
E)11111
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Q1) When you look at a single slit diffraction pattern produced on a screen by light of a single wavelength,you see a bright central maximum and a number of maxima on either side,their intensity decreasing with distance from the central maximum.If the wavelength of the light is increased,
A)the pattern shrinks in size.(central maximum less wide;other maxima in closer to it)
B)the pattern increases in size.(central maximum wider;other maxima farther from it)
C)it does not affect the size of the pattern.
D)the width of the central maximum increases,but the other maxima do not change in position or width.
E)the width of the central maximum decreases,but the other maxima do not change in position or width.
Q2) Light strikes a flat water surface (n = 1.333)at the Brewster angle.Calculate the angle between the reflected and the refracted ray.
Q3) The spacing between reflecting planes in a crystal is 2.82 × 10 <sup>10</sup> m.A beam of X-rays is strongly reflected at an angle of 160° with the crystal face.What is the wavelength of the X-rays?
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Q1) When at rest,a spacecraft has the same height as length.When moving at relativistic speeds in the direction of its length,which one of the following describes its length and height to an observer at rest?
A)Its length is decreased and its height is increased.
B)Its length is decreased and its height is decreased.
C)Its length is decreased and its height is unchanged.
D)Its length is unchanged and its height is increased.
E)Its length is increased and its height is decreased.
Q2) A proton has a total energy of 2.5 × 10 <sup>10</sup> J.How fast is it moving? (M = 1.67 × 10 <sup>27</sup> kg)
A)0.90 c
B)0.80 c
C)0.70 c
D)0.60 c
E)0.40 c
Q3) When 1.0 gram of hydrogen combines with 8.0 grams of oxygen,9.0 grams of water is formed.But is this true? During the reaction 2.86 × 10<sup>5</sup> J of energy is released.How much mass is actually lost in this reaction?
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Q1) Photoelectrons are ejected when monochromatic light shines on a freshly-prepared (oxide-free)sodium surface.In order to obtain the maximum increase in the number of electrons ejected per second,the experimenter needs to
A)increase the frequency of the light.
B)increase the intensity of the light.
C)increase the area illuminated by the light.
D)do all of the above.
E)do only (b)and (c)above.
Q2) A neutron has a mass of 1.67 × 10 <sup>27</sup> kg.Its de Broglie wavelength is 1.4 × 10 <sup>10</sup> m.What temperature would it correspond to if we had a monatomic gas having the same average kinetic energy (in °C)?
A)273
B)25
C)36
D)309
E)51
Q3) What is the energy in eV of a photon of yellow light? = 500 nm.
Q4) What is the shortest x-ray wavelength that can be produced in a 12-keV x-ray machine?
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Q1) Quantum tunneling occurs in
A)nuclear fusion.
B)radioactive decay by emission of alpha particles.
C)the scanning tunneling microscope.
D)all of the above.
E)only (b)and (c)above.
Q2) If the interaction of a particle with its environment restricts the particle to a finite region of space,the result is the quantization of ____ of the particle.
A)the momentum
B)the energy
C)the velocity
D)all of the above properties
E)only properties (a)and (b)
Q3) A physically reasonable wave function, (x),for a one-dimensional system must
A)be defined at all points in space.
B)be continuous at all points in space.
C)be single-valued.
D)obey all the constraints listed above.
E)obey only (b)and (c)above.
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Q1) For the following allowed transitions,which photon would have the largest wavelength when an electron "jumps" from one energy level,characterized by the quantum number n,to another?
A)n = 2 to n = 1
B)n = 3 to n = 2
C)n = 3 to n = 1
D)n = 1 to n = 3
E)n = 4 to n = 1
Q2) Aline says that the magnetic moment of an atom originates in the orbital angular momentum of the electron.Bevis says that it comes from the electron spin.Which one,if either,is correct,and why?
A)Aline,because only atoms,not electrons,can have angular momentum.
B)Bevis,because only atoms,not electrons,can have angular momentum.
C)Neither,because electron spin and orbital angular momentum always cancel exactly.
D)Neither,because the magnetic moment of an atom comes only from the spin of the nucleus.
E)Both,because both the orbital angular momentum and the spins of the electrons contribute to the magnetic moment of an atom.
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Q1) If an electric field is applied to a metal
A)very few electrons are excited into the conduction band.
B)electrons having energies near the Fermi energy require only a small amount of additional energy from the applied field to reach nearby empty energy states.
C)electrons having energies near the bottom of the band require only a small amount of additional energy from the applied field to reach nearby empty energy states.
D)the principal mode of conduction is through the motion of holes in the filled part of the band.
E)the Fermi energy E<sub>f</sub> becomes equal to the applied electric field E.
Q2) The frequency of a microwave absorbed by a molecule when changing from the J = 3 to J = 4 rotation energy state is 4.61 × 10<sup>11</sup> Hz.The moment of inertia of the molecule (in kg m<sup>2</sup>)is
A)5.70 × 10 <sup>45</sup>
B)1.45 × 10 <sup>46</sup>
C)1.12 × 10 <sup>44</sup>
D)2.91 × 10 <sup>46</sup>
E)9.11 × 10 <sup>46</sup>
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Q1) Rutherford's experiment,in which he fired alpha particles of 7.7 MeV kinetic energy at a thin gold foil,showed that nuclei were very much smaller than the size of an atom because
A)some alpha particles passed through the foil undeflected.
B)some alpha particles were deflected backwards.
C)some alpha particles were captured by the gold nuclei.
D)the alpha particles could not get closer than 10 <sup>10</sup> m to the gold nuclei.
E)the alpha particles split into deuterium nuclei when they encountered the gold nuclei.
Q2) It is often possible to use the atomic masses when calculating the binding energy of a nucleus.The reason for this is
A)the electron masses do not cancel.
B)the electron masses cancel.
C)tables of nuclear masses are usually not available.
D)the mass of the electron can usually be neglected when compared to the mass of the neutron.
E)the atomic masses are the same as the nuclear masses.
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Q1) A nuclear reactor is said to be critical when the average number of neutrons from each fission event that cause(s)another fission event is
A)<1.
B)1.
C)>1.
D)any of the above.
E)only (b)or (c)above.
Q2) A beam of high-energy -particles is incident upon a person and deposits 0.35 J of energy in 0.80 kg of tissue.What dose in rads and what equivalent dose in rems does the individual receive? [RBE = 20]
Q3) Calculate the half-value thickness (in mm)of lead if it reduces the intensity of a beam of x-rays whose wavelength is 10 pm by a factor of two.(Assume the linear absorption coefficient of lead is 43 cm <sup>1</sup> for x-rays of wavelength 10 × 10 <sup>12</sup> m. )
A)0.24
B)0.20
C)0.12
D)0.16
E)0.18
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Q1) A proton and an antiproton each with total energy of 400 GeV collide head-on.What is the total energy (particles + energy)released?
A)zero
B)400 Gev
C)800 GeV
D)1 600 GeV
E)2 400 GeV
Q2) Particles composed of quarks are A)photons.
B)leptons.
C)neutrinos.
D)W and Z bosons.
E)baryons and mesons.
Q3) A <sup>+</sup> particle,composed of uus quarks,has the same ____ as a proton.
A)baryon number and charm.
B)baryon number and electric charge.
C)baryon number and strangeness.
D)baryon number,electric charge,and charm.
E)electric charge and strangeness.
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