
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Business Writing is designed to equip students with the essential skills needed to communicate effectively in professional environments. The course emphasizes clarity, conciseness, and persuasiveness across a variety of business documents, including emails, memos, reports, and proposals. Students will learn to tailor their writing for different audiences and purposes, utilizing proper tone, structure, and formatting. Through practical assignments and peer feedback, the course fosters proficiency in crafting messages that achieve organizational objectives, address workplace challenges, and maintain professionalism.
Recommended Textbook
Business Communication Today 11th Global Edition by Courtland Bovee
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Q1) What is the relationship between Web 2.0 and Business Communication 2.0?
Answer: Web 2.0 refers to second-generation of World Wide Web technologies such as blogs, wikis, and social networks. Business Communication 2.0 is a convenient label for a new, conversational approach to business communication that was inspired and enabled by these social media tools.
Q2) Knowledge workers specialize in acquiring, processing, and communicating information.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Business communication is often more demanding than social communication because communication on the job is affected by
A) the globalization of business.
B) the growing reliance on teamwork in business.
C) the pervasiveness of technology.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Q4) An ethical ________ involves making a clearly unethical choice.
Answer: lapse

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Q1) The primary difference between constructive feedback and destructive feedback is A) constructive feedback can hurt people's feelings.
B) constructive feedback is focused on the people involved.
C) destructive feedback is focused on the process and outcomes of communication .
D) destructive feedback delivers criticism with no guidance for improvement.
Answer: D
Q2) A meeting agenda
A) should be circulated before the meeting, providing participants with enough time to prepare.
B) is only a guideline, and deviations are common and expected.
C) is a formality that most groups skip these days.
D) should be general rather than specific.
Answer: A
Q3) Teams need to learn how to handle ________ : clashes over differences in ideas, opinions, goals, or procedures.
Answer: conflict(s)
Q4) ________ management is a way of involving employees in the company's decision making.
Answer: Participative
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Q1) Distinguish between "formal" and "informal" cultural rules. Then briefly describe three areas in which differing informal rules can become evident during intercultural communication.
Answer: Formal rules (such as table manners) are specifically articulated. Informal rules are learned over time by watching others' behavior. Differences in informal rules can affect a number of areas, including attitudes toward work and success, social roles, status, manners, and time.
Q2) When communicating with people from other cultures, it is best to apologize when you make a mistake.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) In ________-context cultures, people rely less on verbal communication and more on the context of nonverbal actions and environmental setting to convey meaning.
Answer: high
Q4) One important social difference among cultures is that of ________ orientation: some cultures emphasize planning and investing while others do not.
Answer: future
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Q1) How can your audience's level of understanding help you determine the appropriate amount of information to include in a business message?
Q2) The three primary steps involved in preparing a business message are
A) planning, writing, and completing.
B) defining the purpose, the main idea, and the topic.
C) informing, persuading, and collaborating.
D) satisfying the audience's informational, motivational, and practical needs.
Q3) If you provide inaccurate information in a business message, the best course of action is to say nothing and hope that no one notices.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A knowledge-management system
A) is a tool for creating a bibliography when writing long reports.
B) helps companies limit the amount of information employees store on the network.
C) enables organizations to test employees periodically to ensure they are doing adequate research.
D) is a centralized database of experiences and insights of employees throughout an organization.
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Q1) Give the definition of a complex sentence, then provide an example of one.
Q2) List at least two types of biased language and explain how to avoid each type.
Q3) Briefly explain the difference between tone and style in business writing.
Q4) Clichés are a valuable tool in business writing, as readers find such words and phrases to be comfortable and familiar.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Using the passive voice makes sense when
A) you want your sentence to be easier to understand.
B) you need to make your sentences shorter.
C) you want to emphasize the subject.
D) you want to be diplomatic in pointing out a problem or error.
Q6) To emphasize a dependent clause, it is better to place it at the end of a sentence rather than in the middle.
A)True
B)False
Q7) ________ sentences express two or more independent but related thoughts of equal importance.
Q8) A(n) ________ is a cluster of sentences related to the same general topic.
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Q1) Items in a list do not need to have parallel construction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) You should strive for a sixth-grade reading level for most business messages.
A)True
B)False
Q3) "Environmental impact consultant study results" is an example of A) a dangling modifier.
B) a dependent clause.
C) a long noun sequence.
D) redundancy.
Q4) Starting a sentence with "It is" or "There are" is A) a sign that you are using passive voice.
B) perfectly acceptable, and you need not try to rewrite the sentence.
C) usually a sign that the sentence could be shorter and more active.
D) a sign that you are using active voice.
Q5) Explain the importance and process of proofreading. Why does it matter and what should you look for?
Q6) Conclusions should accomplish what two tasks?
Q7) Explain at least three of the steps involved in editing documents for clarity.
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Q1) If your company's social media content draws criticism, it is best to respond promptly and honestly.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One important element of basic email etiquette is to
A) use bullets and lists.
B) respect the chain of command.
C) include headings on all emails.
D) capture your readers' attention.
Q3) Because each electronic medium has unique requirements, basic communication skills do not usually transfer from one system to another.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The completing step is where podcasting differs most dramatically from written communication.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________ have become a popular medium for customer support-enabling employees to answer questions and offer tips and advice.
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Q1) The best opening for a positive message includes the single most important information you need to give the audience.
A)True B)False
Q2) A(n) ________ ________ is a specialized document used to share relevant information with the local or national news media.
Q3) You're preparing an internal blog posting providing information on this year's annual company picnic. The message is generally positive, but you need to say that--unlike past picnics--the event will not be catered. What approach is best for conveying mildly disappointing information such as this in the context of a positive message?
Q4) Goodwill messages were once common in business, but are now mostly regarded as a waste of time.
A)True B)False
Q5) In most cases, when making routine requests you should assume that the audience will not comply.
A)True B)False
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Q1) You are faced with informing your supervisor about massive production delays. Company policy dictates that you must provide this information in writing. What questions should you consider when deciding between the direct and indirect approaches for your message?
Q2) You can help establish the right tone in a negative message by using positive words rather than negative, counterproductive ones.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To avoid legal problems, businesses should delay communicating with the media in the aftermath of a crisis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) For particularly difficult situations, it is best to place the buffer at the end of the negative message.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly describe the elements of a negative message that uses the indirect approach.
Q6) A primary goal of negative messages is to gain ________ of the bad news.
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Q1) Because promotional messages are not legally binding contracts in most states, it is usually acceptable to imply offers or promises you cannot deliver.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Personality, lifestyle, and attitudes are assessed through A) demographic surveys.
B) psychographic studies.
C) examinations of census data.
D) inkblot tests.
Q3) In marketing and sales messages, the best way to handle potential objections is to A) explain why the objections aren't really important.
B) avoid mentioning them.
C) suggest that anyone who has them simply needs to do more research.
D) identify them up front and try to address as many as you can.
Q4) If you possess little authority in your organization, the direct approach will generally be best for the persuasive messages you send to colleagues.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) An example of a recommendation would be "Given the state of the economy, now is a good time to invest in precious metals."
A)True
B)False
Q2) "Do you think the styling of the new Mini Cooper is a departure from previous styling?" is an example of an open-ended question.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Observations, surveys, and experiments are all considered secondary sources of information.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ________ law covers printed materials, audiovisual material, many forms of artistic expression, computer programs, maps, mailing lists, and even answering-machine messages.
Q5) Surveys conducted over the Internet are more expensive and time-consuming than surveys conducted by traditional methods.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A(n) ________ title calls attention to the conclusion that ought to be drawn from the data.
Q2) List at least five types of visuals commonly used to present data in business documents. Provide an example of a specific task for which one type would be especially useful.
Q3) When creating visuals, it is highly unethical to A) simplify data from other sources.
B) "airbrush" the photos of company executives to make them look more attractive.
C) leave out important information.
D) overload your report with unnecessary tables and charts.
Q4) Because of the costs of reproduction, photographs are usually not used in business reports.
A)True B)False
Q5) Compared to bar charts, pictograms can present a less professional tone. A)True B)False
Q6) In designing visuals for business reports, what tasks are best suited for bar charts? List at least two.
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Q1) When outlining the content of your report
A) keep in mind that you will have to use this same outline for your final report.
B) you should use complex language for all headings.
C) it is preferable to use informative headings as opposed to descriptive ones.
D) do all of the above.
Q2) Briefly explain the primary function of a statement of purpose, then indicate the most useful way to phrase one.
Q3) Operating reports establish expectations and guidelines to direct future action.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Whereas ________ proposals are used to request decisions from managers within an organization, ________ proposals are directed to parties outside the organization.
Q5) Sales call reports are a type of compliance report.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Briefly explain problem factoring.
Q7) Whereas ________ reports focus on facts, ________ reports offer interpretation and can also include recommendations.
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Q1) Files that are ________ in a report are not connected to their original versions and will not be updated automatically.
Q2) In formal proposals, the close should be the longest section.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describing your organization's qualifications in a formal proposal is
A) an essential part of the body.
B) a good idea only when your recommendations are controversial.
C) appropriate, but only in the introduction.
D) considered arrogant and should be avoided.
Q4) The body of a proposal often includes a statement of ________ in which you describe your organization's experience, personnel, and facilities-all in relation to reader needs.
Q5) Your writing approach for a proposal should be similar to that used for persuasive messages.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A file that is ________ to a report will get updated automatically when you or someone else updates the file.
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Q1) A synopsis or executive summary is usually less useful in a formal proposal than in other types of formal reports.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If your report will be posted online, you should be especially careful to make the report easy to skim.
A)True B)False
Q3) All prefatory parts (such as the table of contents) should always start on their own page.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The introduction is a good place to tell readers why they should be concerned with your topic.
A)True B)False
Q5) It is sometimes acceptable for the title page to serve as the report cover. A)True B)False
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Q1) When concluding a presentation, don't bore your audience by restating points you already made in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Simplicity of organization is important only if your speech is short.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Even when you expect your audience to be skeptical, the direct approach is always best for presentations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The purpose of most business presentations is to inform or ________.
Q5) Describe the four steps to organizing a presentation effectively.
Q6) Give an example of one way to arouse audience attention at the beginning of a presentation on your company's new long-term disability insurance.
Q7) What six stages should you go through in preparing an effective outline for a presentation?
Q8) List two goals to achieve in the body of a business presentation.
Q9) List the four steps involved in planning an oral presentation.
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Q1) Using electronic presentation software
A) is too difficult for most speakers.
B) allows you to make each slide much more complicated than you would a visual for a printed report.
C) allows you to incorporate various multimedia elements in your presentations.
D) does all of the above.
Q2) A title slide
A) defines the topic of the presentation and informs the audience why you are speaking on the topic.
B) lists the topics you plan to cover in your presentation.
C) always contains the word "Introduction."
D) is the equivalent of a report's cover and title page.
Q3) You're tired of wasting hours making design changes to one slide at a time in your electronic presentations. What software feature (common in presentation software such as PowerPoint) would be helpful in this situation, and what is its function?
Q4) You can use "moving blueprint slides" at several points in your presentation, but not at the end.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Your work history includes a lengthy gap in employment. How can you handle this challenge when writing a résumé?
Q2) A(n) ________ résumé provides the opportunity to expand on the information contained in your basic résumé with links.
Q3) If you have a personal webpage or e-portfolio, you should list it on your résumé under "Contact Information."
A)True
B)False
Q4) One alternative to putting a Career Objective on your résumé is to include a Summary of ________.
Q5) The most common way to organize a résumé is ________.
Q6) Name at least five types of information that should not be included on résumés when candidates are applying to companies in the U.S.
Q7) All résumés should be organized chronologically.
A)True
B)False
Q8) A(n) ________ résumé includes key features of the chronological and functional approaches.
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Q1) If you are asked back for a final job interview, you should expect the interviewer to focus on
A) selling you on the advantages of joining the organization.
B) checking your references.
C) your previous job experience.
D) your educational background.
Q2) If your application letter and résumé fail to bring a response within a week or so after the position close date,
A) cross this particular job possibility off your list.
B) follow up by email or telephone.
C) call the highest-ranking employee at the company and complain that you are being mistreated.
D) send another copy of your application letter and résumé.
Q3) When resigning from your current job, it is vital to give your employer at least ________ ________ notice.
Q4) Describe the typical sequence of employment interviews, and what employers tend to look for at each stage.
Q5) In ________ interviews, candidates are asked pointed questions designed to upset or unsettle them.
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Q1) The proper sequence for the standard parts of a letter is
A) inside address, heading, date, salutation, body, complimentary close, typewritten name.
B) date, heading, inside address, salutation, body, typewritten name, complimentary close.
C) salutation, date, heading, inside address, body, complimentary close, signature block.
D) heading, date, inside address, salutation, body, complimentary close, signature block.
Q2) The quality of paper is measured by
A) weight and cotton content.
B) length and width.
C) whether or not it is imprinted with the name and address of the company.
D) color and texture.
Q3) Most envelopes used in U.S. businesses are No. 10 that are 8 1/2 inches in length to accommodate standard letters that are 8 1/2 inches wide.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Unlike source notes, content notes may supplement your main text with comments and/or cross-references.
A)True B)False
Q2) If you use MLA style, your in-text citations include the author's last name and a page reference.
A)True B)False
Q3) If a newspaper article doesn't have an author, your citation begins with the title of the newspaper.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When citing journal articles using APA style
A) include only the first page of the article.
B) you do not need to include the volume number.
C) use quotation marks around the title.
D) capitalize only the first word of the title.
Q5) There is difference between endnotes and a bibliography.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The plural of "son-in-law" is "sons-in-law," but the possessive is "son-in-law's."
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a demonstrative pronoun?
A) Who
B) This
C) Anyone
D) He
Q3) Punctuation goes inside quotation marks if the whole sentence is quoted but outside the quotation marks if only the last part of the sentence is a quote.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following punctuation marks is used to separate a dependent clause at the beginning of a sentence from the rest of the sentence?
A) Comma
B) Semicolon
C) Colon
D) Dash
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