Business Process Management
Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Business Process Management (BPM) is an interdisciplinary course that explores the systematic approach to designing, executing, monitoring, and optimizing organizational processes. Students will learn how to analyze business workflows, identify inefficiencies, and implement process improvements to achieve strategic objectives. The course covers key BPM concepts, tools, and methodologies, including process modeling, performance measurement, automation, and the use of supporting technologies such as workflow management systems. By the end of the course, students will be equipped to drive continuous improvement and innovation in business operations, ensuring alignment of processes with overall business goals.
Recommended Textbook
Project Management Process Technology and Practice 1st Edition by Ganesh Vaidyanathan
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12 Chapters
960 Verified Questions
960 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Projects and Project Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) For each project life span phase,identify one tool that may be used.
Answer: Tools used during the project life span phases include: (1)conceptualizationSWOT analysis; (2)planning - project planning software; (3)design - quality functional deployment; (4)implementation - project management software; (5)closurebrainstorming;and (6)post-implementation - surveys.Table 1-3 provides additional examples.
Q2) The sum of all costs to complete a project best describes A)feasibility costs.
B)total cost of ownership.
C)project budget.
D)project costs.
Answer: D
Q3) The extent to which the items or elements upon which work is performed or the work processes themselves are interrelated best defines A)uncertainty.
B)interdependence.
C)sufficiency.
D)complexity.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Process and Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) CMMI Level 4 objectives include
A)manage measurable metrics and software goals.
B)plan organization-level process development and improvement activities.
C)establish a baseline for software engineering process and management.
D)constantly changing the software process as the project progresses.
Answer: A
Q2) A working prototype that is implemented to design and define various functionalities of the project and show customers the friendly software interface and the story line of functionalities involved in the project best describes the SDLC
A)analysis phase.
B)systems investigation phase.
C)preliminary design phase.
D)testing phase.
Answer: C
Q3) Developing schedules,milestones,and critical paths is associated with the
A)initiating process group and the cost management knowledge area.
B)executing process group and the communications management knowledge area.
C)planning process group and time management knowledge area.
D)executing process group and the risk management knowledge area.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Project Management Tools
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Sample Questions
Q1) Must-have is one of the five project requirements associated with the Kano model.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A graphical representation of a series of ideas or thoughts or decisions of a person or a team best describes
A)nominal group technique.
B)SWOT analysis.
C)QFD.
D)TMAP. Answer: D
Q3) Although popular,the NGT has not been shown to enhance one or more dimensions of effectiveness of decision-making groups.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Project Initiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Project proposals include each of the following <b>except</b>
A)an implementation plan.
B)a statement of work.
C)perceived benefits by year.
D)high-level schedule requests.
Q2) JAD is very effective for large complex projects.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An organization should consider projects only if the NPV is negative.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The construction of a new data center would be categorized as an emergency project.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When recruiting effective project managers,what five challenges might an organization face?
Q6) Observers have neither interest in nor influence on the project.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Project Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Project documents associated with the scope management knowledge area include
A)project charter.
B)project change requests.
C)duration estimates.
D)requirement traceability matrix.
Q2) Which of the following documents how the project scope will be defined,managed,controlled,verified and communicated to stakeholders?
A)configuration management plan
B)scope direction report
C)scope statement
D)scope management plan
Q3) The configuration management plan documents how the project scope will be defined,managed,controlled,verified,and communicated to stakeholders.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Proper planning can guarantee project success.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the WBS dictionary? What does it contain?
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Chapter 6: Risk Management
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Sample
Questions
Q1) A log of identified risks along with its owners,risk scores,RPNs,risk responses,triggers,residual and secondary risks,and contingency plans for cost and schedule best defines
A)risk register.
B)risk charter.
C)risk matrix.
D)contingency plan.
Q2) Risk factor refers to the overall risk or exposure of the project at a particular timeframe.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Risk milestones are indicators that a risk has occurred or is about to occur.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Quantitative risk assessment methods include
A)quantitative risk analysis.
B)data gathering and representation techniques.
C)expert judgment.
D)all of the above.
Q5) Identify five ways that risks associated with resources can be reduced.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Quality, Performance and Value
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Sample Questions
Q1) A process to measure the performance of an organization and compare that measure with other organizations in the same industry to understand industry best practices defines
A)project initiation.
B)project scope planning.
C)benchmarking.
D)contingency planning.
Q2) A review of the quality plan to determine whether the project activities comply with organizational and project policies,processes,and procedures defines
A)quality audit.
B)benchmarking.
C)risk management.
D)configuration management.
Q3) ISO/IEC 9126-1 addresses a framework for software evaluation using the general characteristics of software.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify and describe four control charts.
Q5) What is a project quality plan? What steps are involved?
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Chapter 8: Project Scheduling
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using project management software,what are six factors that drive the calculation of time?
Q2) The amount of time that an activity in a project network can be delayed without causing a delay to subsequent activities or project completion best defines
A)restricted flow.
B)task obstruction.
C)capacity.
D)slack.
Q3) If prototype testing can be started only after the completion of the prototype,then this is an example of a(n)
A)external dependency.
B)discretionary dependency.
C)replicated dependency.
D)mandatory dependency.
Q4) When constructing the PDM,an activity can have
A)predecessors with no successors.
B)successors with no predecessors.
C)both predecessors and successors.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 9: Resources, Costing, and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following provides the efficiency of the utilization of the resources allocated to the project?
A)AHE
B)ROME
C)RUE
D)DE
Q2) In fixed duration,the amount of work is a fixed value.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Estimating is the process of determining the cost of a project.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Any material and labor costs that are necessary to complete a project,but do not become an actual part of the final project defines
A)nonspecific costs.
B)flexible costs.
C)indirect costs.
D)relaxed costs.
Q5) Identify and define five types of project costs.
Q6) Describe three common methods employed in estimating costs.
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Chapter 10: Project Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Barriers to learning from post-project reviews include each of the following <b>except</b>
A)psychological barriers.
B)team-based shortcomings.
C)location barriers.
D)epistemological constraints.
Q2) Which of the following project audit report questions addresses PMBOK's human resources management knowledge area?
A)Are quality metrics developed,measured,and monitored?
B)Are minutes of meetings stored and distributed?
C)Is the project team being recognized and rewarded?
D)Does the project plan consist of a contingency plan?
Q3) Factors signaling early project closure include
A)incomplete requirements.
B)lack of user involvement.
C)lack of resources.
D)all of the above.
Q4) Identify five benefits of project audits.
Q5) What is a post-implementation review? Identify five benefits of a post-implementation review.
12
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Chapter 11: Project Organizational Structures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the department or group that defines and maintains the standards of the process related to project management within the organization?
A)IT Product Office
B)Accounting
C)Human Resources
D)Project Management Office
Q2) Advantages of department structure include
A)due to their focus and close proximity to issues,project teams have better understanding of specific needs.
B)authority,communication,and control are better in these types of organizations.
C)unprofitable products or projects can be easily recognized and eliminated.
D)all of the above.
Q3) A disadvantage of the functional structure is that the barriers due to differences in goals and processes between functions can prevent functions from working together on projects.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe four ways that knowledge transfer occurs in virtual and global teams.
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13
Chapter 12: Project Success
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Sample Questions
Q1) In preparation for a meeting,a project manager should prepare and distribute an agenda.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A quality pyramid is a volunteer group of workers who are trained to identify,analyze,and solve problems and accumulate organizational knowledge.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Project manager activities include each of the following <b>except</b>
A)exchanging information.
B)influencing.
C)sourcing.
D)developing.
Q4) The type of power where the targeted persons comply believing that the project manager has special knowledge is called
A)coercive power.
B)reward power.
C)legitimate power.
D)expert power.
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