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Business Marketing explores the strategies and processes organizations use to market products or services to other businesses, governments, and institutions rather than individual consumers. This course covers topics such as buyer behavior in business markets, segmentation, targeting, and positioning, as well as the development of effective business-to-business (B2B) marketing mixes. Students will learn about relationship management, value creation, supply chain integration, and the use of digital platforms in B2B marketing. Real-world case studies and projects enable students to apply theoretical frameworks to contemporary business challenges, preparing them for careers in sales, product management, and marketing within commercial markets.
Recommended Textbook
Marketing 2016 18th Edition by William M. Pride O. C. Ferrell
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Q1) Deciding to add gel insoles to its running shoes would be a change in the ____ element of the marketing mix for Nike.
A)price
B)good
C)product
D)promotion
E)distribution
Answer: C
Q2) Refer to Scenario 1.1. A new website has helped Greensprings' pre-planned funeral business grow. These would come under which of the following marketing mix variables?
A)Product
B)Price
C)Distribution
D)Promotion
E)Promotion and price
Answer: D
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Q1) Marketing objectives state what is to be accomplished through marketing activities. A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q2) A long-term view, or vision, of what the organization wants to become is called a mission proclamation.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q3) A competitive advantage exists when a
A)firm matches a core competency to opportunities it has discovered in the marketplace.
B)firm does marketing better than its competitors.
C)combination of circumstances and timing allow a firm to reach an attractive target market.
D)firm observes a fit between the key requirements of a market and its own capabilities.
E)firm has a strong marketing plan.
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following terms refers to consumers' propensity to buy?
A)Disposable income
B)Discretionary income
C)Buying power index
D)Buying power
E)Willingness to spend
Answer: E
Q2) The Coca-Cola Company has recognized the significant increase in population diversity within the U.S. soft-drink market. Which one of the following best illustrates the company's integration of this knowledge into its marketing strategy?
A)Ads featuring nostalgic Americana
B)Bonus coupons in Coca-Cola twelve-packs
C)Ads featuring Hispanic actors and Tejano music
D)Ads in The New Yorker and Reader's Digest
E)Ads aimed at children
Answer: C
Q3) Personal computers and cellular phones are technology.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Which of the following statements is false?
A)If an ethical or social responsibility issue can withstand open discussion that results in agreement or limited debate, an acceptable solution may exist.
B)A company that supports both socially responsible decisions and adheres to a code of conduct is likely to have a positive impact on society.
C)If other persons in the organization approve of an activity and it is legal and customary within the industry, chances are that the activity is acceptable from both an ethical and social responsibility perspective.
D)Social responsibility and marketing ethics are interrelated.
E)Social responsibility and marketing ethics are the same thing and can be used interchangeably.
Q2) Which of the following is not a dimension of social responsibility and marketing citizenship?
A)Economic
B)Ethical
C)Legal
D)Technological
E)Philanthropic
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Q1) The opportunity to obtain data via the Internet has resulted in more than half of all marketing research coming from secondary sources.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cameras, counting machines, and scanners are used most often in A)surveys.
B)secondary data gathering.
C)field settings.
D)observation.
E)experimentation.
Q3) The first step in launching a research study is problem or issue definition. The first sign of a problem is usually a departure from some normal function, such as a failure to attain objectives.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The in-home (door-to-door) interview is an example of a focus-group interview.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why is ethics an important consideration in marketing research?
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Q1) Trend analysis is a sales forecasting technique that focuses on aggregate sales data over a period of many years to determine general trends in annual sales.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Refer to Scenario 6.2. Currently, GE uses several sales forecasting methods. One method is to sell the different locomotive engines to buyers in different countries, and then measuring the purchasing response in each. In this case, GE Transportation is using the _____ method to forecast future sales.
A)Delphi
B)Market test
C)Regression analysis
D)Volume usage
E)Trend analysis
Q3) The types of surveys used to forecast sales are customer, executive, and competitor surveys.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How do business markets differ from consumer markets?
Q5) What are the major steps of the target market selection process?
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Q1) A major determining factor in deciding which type of decision-making process should be used depends on the individual's intensity of interest in a product and the importance of the product for that person. This is known as an individual's
A)motivational structure.
B)routinized response behavior.
C)level of involvement.
D)cognitive dissonance.
E)evaluative criteria.
Q2) In the consumer buying decision process, the information search stage
A)yields a group of brands that a buyer views as possible alternatives.
B)involves a buyer becoming aware of the need for a product.
C)is not necessary when the buyer is involved in extensive decision making.
D)occurs immediately after evaluation of alternatives.
E)is lengthy for routine response buying behavior.
Q3) Identify and describe the five major categories of situational influences.
Q4) A consumer belongs to only one subculture.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How does an individual's social class influence the products he or she buys?
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Q6) Compare and contrast the three major ethnic subcultures in the United States.
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Q1) Many suppliers and their customers invest time and resources to build and maintain mutually beneficial relationships which are often called
A)partnerships.
B)co-ops.
C)monopolies.
D)reciprocity.
E)alliances.
Q2) How do individual factors affect the business buying decision process?
Q3) Specific details regarding terms, credit arrangements, and technical assistance are worked out during the product specification stage of the buying decision process.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ultimate consumers are generally more rational than business customers. A)True
B)False
Q5) Interpersonal dynamics are easy to observe and simple for the marketer to assess. A)True B)False
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Q1) _____________ are companies that were started with the knowledge and resources to compete in a global marketplace. They are usually small technology companies that quickly establish themselves in international markets. They reach a point where as much as ________ percent of their sales come from locations outside the United States.
A)Multinationals; 80
B)International enterprises; 60
C)Global techs; 50
D)Global tigers; 75
E)Born globals; 70
Q2) Government restrictions on the amount of a particular country's currency that can be bought or sold are known as
A)embargoes.
B)quotas.
C)exchange controls.
D)import controls.
E)balance of trade controls.
Q3) Importing is the sale of products to foreign markets.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Discussion forums are not very popular with the online population.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Anyone who becomes a member of Twitter, Facebook, or other social networking sites is a
A)Collector.
B)Spectator.
C)Joiner.
D)Creator.
E)Critic.
Q3) Podcast listeners have the ability to send comments to the podcaster regarding the material presented in a podcast.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Addressability allows customers to respond to a company's marketing communications by expressing their reactions and desires directly to the company.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the seven segments included in the Social Technographics Profile.
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Q1) Discuss the implications for a firm's marketing strategy of classifying a product as a convenience, shopping, specialty, or unsought item.
Q2) Distribution outlets become more difficult to secure during the growth stage of a product's life cycle because of aggressive competition.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The brands used for co-branding cannot be owned by the same company.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During the maturity stage
A)product modifications are unnecessary.
B)there is less emphasis on changing a product's price.
C)marketing strategies are rarely altered.
D)some competitors are forced out.
E)limited advertising expenditures are required to maintain market share.
Q5) Nutritional information on labels is required by law, though consumers are indifferent to its availability.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Coca-Cola has expanded to Diet Coke, Cherry Coke, and Caffeine-free Coke, to name a few. These are examples of
A)product modifications.
B)functional modifications.
C)aesthetic modifications.
D)line extensions.
E)product lining.
Q2) Clive is an engineer involved in the product development of a new plastic laminate that would be sold to manufacturers of kitchen counter tops. Currently, Clive and his colleagues are considering the potential for profitability of the new product. They are likely in the ____ phase of the new product development process.
A)Idea generation
B)Market testing
C)Business analysis
D)Concept testing
E)Compatibility research
Q3) Relatively few product ideas are put into the product development stage.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Nonprofit organizations usually have more diverse groups to serve than do for-profit organizations.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Troy is a service provider for a low-contact type of service. Which of the services below is Troy most likely to provide?
A)Childcare
B)Website design
C)Health care
D)Auto detailing
E)Personal trainer
Q3) If Best Western bundles its rooms with services such as free local phone calls, cable television, wireless Internet access, and complimentary breakfast, these services are known as ____ services.
A)core
B)supplementary
C)bundled
D)business
E)complimentary
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Q1) Kawasaki places several motorcycles in "pods" in order to load them efficiently using forklifts. This system of materials handling is called
A)warehousing.
B)containerization.
C)group storage.
D)unit loading.
E)mechanized handling.
Q2) Channel power is an ability related to influence goals of other channel members. A)True
B)False
Q3) Supply chain management includes only producers, wholesalers, retailers, and customers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Marketing channels create four types of utility for consumers including A)place, time, possession, and form.
B)location, form, availability, and suitability.
C)form, time, location, and promotion.
D)marketer, retailer, wholesaler, and producer.
E)position, price, possession, and place.
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Q1) Laura and Marie own and operate a small restaurant. On a weekly basis, they go to their local Sam's Wholesale Club to purchase the food items and cleaning supplies they need for their business. With the exception of the volume they purchase and the items' intended use, this grocery shopping trip is identical to a weekly trip by their families to a grocery store. Sam's is serving as a ____ wholesaler for these entrepreneurs.
A)general-line
B)specialty-line
C)full-service merchant
D)truck
E)cash-and-carry
Q2) Refer to Scenario 15.1. The unique dining experiences offered by the Rain Forest Cafe and T-Rex Cafe represent the strategic issue of ____ addressed by the restaurants.
A)retail location
B)product mix
C)retail positioning
D)the wheel of retailing
E)customer segmentation
Q3) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of catalog marketing.
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Q1) _______ offers the potential benefits of cost efficiency, repetition, and adding product value, while _____ is one of its disadvantages.
A)Public relations; uncontrollability
B)Advertising; slow feedback
C)Personal selling; cost
D)Sales promotion; slow feedback
E)Advertising; media cost
Q2) Selective demand is demand for a
A)general type of product.
B)particular brand.
C)new product.
D)competitor's product.
E)service.
Q3) Promotion tends to
A)create needs.
B)capitalize on existing needs.
C)be overly focused on the self-actualization needs.
D)overemphasize physiological and safety needs.
E)avoid focusing on people's needs.
Q4) Discuss the impact that social media has had on the strategy for promotion.
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Q1) The advertising campaign for Crest toothpaste lets consumers know about its newest flavor, and also mentions its history as an established brand. The ad also mentions Crest's advantages and benefits. Crest's advertising would be classified as A)repetitive.
B)reminder.
C)pioneer.
D)competitive.
E)reinforcement.
Q2) Refer to Scenario 17.1. The advertising mentioned above in which Toyota features all brands of the company would be an example of
A)competitive advertising.
B)institutional advertising.
C)comparative advertising.
D)pioneer advertising.
E)product advertising.
Q3) Advertising agencies often have more highly skilled people than the advertising departments of firms.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Aaron Epstein tells his fellow retail salesperson at Zales Jewelers that during the second quarter he is going to sell all the Alance watches he can and use his extra earnings to go to Cancun. He exclaims, "Can you believe the ____ program they have on for this quarter?"
A)buying allowance
B)merchandise allowance
C)push money
D)dealer loader
E)sweepstakes
Q2) Personal selling goals include finding prospects, convincing prospects to buy, and A)monitoring new products being developed.
B)being aware of competitors' sales activities.
C)seeking one-sale customers.
D)avoiding repeat transactions.
E)keeping customers satisfied.
Q3) One objective of consumer sales promotion techniques is to encourage patronage for a specific retail store.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The amount of profit a channel member expects depends on
A)the amount of discounts for large orders provided by the producers.
B)the number of channel support activities provided by the producers.
C)what the intermediary could earn if it were handling a competing product instead.
D)the type of distribution channels involved.
E)the amount of effort required to carry the product.
Q2) Pricing whereby the buyer absorbs all or part of the freight costs is freight absorption pricing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) French Quarter Inns drops the price of a suite from $225 to $195 per night and experiences a reduction in the quantity of rooms demanded of an average of five per night. This is an indication that suites at this hotel are apparently an example of a(n) ____ product.
A)reverse-demand
B)inferior
C)standard
D)secondary-demand
E)prestige
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Q1) An early-bird special offered by a restaurant during off-peak hours is an example of the secondary-market pricing strategy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most pricing objectives based on ____ are achieved by trial and error because not all cost and revenue data are available when prices are set.
A)market share
B)cash flow
C)return on investment
D)survival
E)profit
Q3) If a business decides to reduce its prices once in a while on an unsystematic basis, it is using
A)price reduction planning.
B)random discounting.
C)bait pricing.
D)periodic discounting.
E)penetration pricing.
Q4) Identify and describe the four types of product-line pricing.
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