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Business Management is an interdisciplinary course that introduces students to the fundamental concepts, principles, and practices of managing organizations effectively. The course covers key topics such as organizational structure, leadership, strategic planning, human resource management, marketing, finance, and operations. Emphasis is placed on decision-making processes, problem-solving, and the development of managerial skills necessary for success in a dynamic business environment. Through case studies, group projects, and real-world examples, students learn how to analyze business situations, develop strategies, and lead teams to achieve organizational goals. This course lays the foundation for a wide range of careers in business, entrepreneurship, and management.
Recommended Textbook
Management 8th Edition by Richard L. Daft
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Q1) Before becoming a manager, FedEx often has would-be managers consider which of the following parts of a manager's experience:
A) time for the increased workload
B) the unrelenting sense of obligation
C) the responsibility of managing others
D) the position of always being in the middle
E) all of these
Answer: E
Q2) In the new world of work, managers need a new approach that relies less on command and control and more on communication and coordination.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Conceptual skills are especially important for ____________________ managers.
Answer: Top
Q4) ____________________ is the management function concerned with monitoring employees' activities, keeping the organization on track toward its goals, and making corrections as needed.
Answer: Controlling

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Q1) Mary Parker Follett thought of leadership as __________, rather than techniques.
A) systems
B) top managers
C) people
D) efficiencies
E) floor managers
Answer: C
Q2) Maslow's hierarchy of needs started with which of these needs?
A) Esteem
B) Love
C) Safety
D) Physiological
E) Belongingness
Answer: D
Q3) Max Weber emphasized efficiency instead of effectiveness in organizations through his bureaucratic model.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) The international dimension of the external environment represents events originating in foreign countries as well as opportunities for U.S. companies in other countries.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) It appears that one of the problems that Holly faced was the presence of a __________ gap.
A) culture
B) logic
C) generation
D) transformation
E) symbolic
Answer: A
Q3) The bureaucratic culture has an external focus and a consistency orientation for a dynamic environment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) ______________________________ means engaging in the international division of labor so that manufacturing can be done in countries with the cheapest sources of labor and supplies.
Q2) Collectivism means a preference for a tightly knit social framework in which individuals look after one another and organizations protect their members' interests.
A)True
B)False
Q3) As the number of stateless corporations increases, the awareness of national borders increases as well.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In international operations, the economic environment includes A) shared knowledge, beliefs and values.
B) political risks.
C) social organizations.
D) infrastructure.
E) tariffs, quotas, and taxes.
Q5) The risk of loss due to actions by host country governments is known as
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Q1) A(n) _________________________ is a formal statement of the company's values concerning ethics and social issues; it communicates to employees what the company stands for.
Q2) The decision by the CSX to downsize and reduce its labor force is in the A) domain of codified law.
B) domain of free choice.
C) domain of ethics.
D) social responsibility.
E) none of these.
Q3) The moral rights approach that deals with individuals refraining from carrying out any order that violates their moral or religious norms is the
A) right of free consent.
B) right to privacy.
C) right of freedom of conscience.
D) right of free speech.
E) right of due process.
Q4) What is social responsibility? Why is it considered a difficult concept to grasp?
Q5) List three examples of primary stakeholders.
Q6) List the four responsibilities of corporate social performance.
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Q1) A(n) ____________________ locus of control is the belief by individuals that their future is not within their control but rather is influenced by external forces.
Q2) Every time Patricia Fuller does poorly on an exam and blames some outside factor, she can be described as having an external locus of control.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An attractive innovation for entrepreneurs who want to start a business from scratch is to join a business incubator.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All of these are entrepreneurial characteristics EXCEPT
A) self-confidence.
B) tolerance for ambiguity.
C) external locus of control.
D) high energy level.
E) awareness of passing time.
Q5) Identify and describe the reasons why small business is such a dynamic part of today's economy.
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Q1) The XYZ Corporation should create a crisis management group that is not cross-functional, but does work together well under pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of these represent the broad statements of where the organization wants to be in the future?
A) Operational goals
B) Tactical goals,
C) Strategic goals.
D) Operational goals,.
E) Tactical plans
Q3) Compare the four levels of goals and plans.
Q4) The planning process begins with which of these?
A) The development of operational goals
B) The development of a mission statement
C) Communication of goals to the rest of the organization
D) A company-wide meeting
E) Brainstorming
Q5) In what ways do plans and goals benefit an organization?
Q6) Describe the purposes of goals and plans.
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Q1) Mingles, Inc. concentrates its efforts on its target market of 18 to 25 year olds. It is using a(n) __________ strategy.
A) focus
B) differentiation
C) overall cost leadership
D) multidomestic
E) universal strategy
Q2) One of Porter's five competitive forces is bargaining power of customers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Information and control systems include reward systems, pay incentives, budgets for allocating resources, information technology systems, and the organization's rules.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In strategy implementation, human resources are the ability to influence people to adopt the new behaviors need.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the three global corporate strategies.
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Q1) Two employees in Jessie's department quit. She is faced with the decision to fill these positions. This would be considered a nonprogrammed decision.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Choosing between a differentiation strategy and an overall cost leadership strategy is an example of A) a plan.
B) an objective.
C) an alternative.
D) a decision.
E) a strategy.
Q3) The Vroom-Jago model helps a manager gauge the appropriate amount of participation by decision makers in making a specific decision.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The administrative model is considered to be normative.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare decision conditions of certainty, risk, uncertainty, and ambiguity.
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Q1) A visual representation of an organization's structure, showing communication and lines of power is called a structure graph.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The degree to which organizational tasks are subdivided into individual jobs is called
Q3) Coordination is defined as
A) the ability of the organization to produce timely products.
B) the quality of collaboration across departments.
C) differentiation.
D) the quantity of goods produced by the organization.
E) all of these.
Q4) The organization chart
A) shows the characteristics of the organization's vertical structure.
B) is a visual representation of the organization's structure.
C) details the formal reporting relationships that exist within an organization.
D) all of these.
E) both shows the characteristics of the organization's vertical structure and is a visual representation of the organization's structure.
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Q1) The ______________________________ model is an approach to product change that emphasizes shared development of innovations among several departments.
Q2) What is organizational change and what are two major areas of change in organizations?
Q3) Culture change refers to a major shift in the norms, values, attitudes, and mindset of the entire organization.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The __________ is a unit separate from the rest of the organization responsible for the development of a major innovation.
A) new product group
B) matrix group
C) new-venture team
D) vertical group
E) change team
Q5) An _________________________ is an in-house program that provides a safe harbor where ideas from employees throughout the organization can be developed without interference from company bureaucracy or politics.
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Q1) One of the most dangerous performance evaluation errors is ___________, which places an employee into a class or category based on one or a few traits or characteristics.
A) homogeneity
B) the halo effect
C) stereotyping
D) diversion
E) leniency
Q2) Describe how to maintain an effective workforce.
Q3) Vocational Rehabilitation Act provides for possible compensatory and punitive damages plus traditional back pay for cases of intentional discrimination.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Telecommuting means using computers and telephones at the office.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the four steps in attracting an effective workforce.
Q6) The relationship between an applicant's score on a selection device and his or her future job performance is known as ____________________.
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Q1) Primary dimension of diversity can be acquired or changed throughout one's lifetime.
A)True
B)False
Q2) By the year 2008, it is estimated that __________ percent of entrants to the labor force in the U.S. will be women and people of color.
A) 15
B) 45
C) 50
D) 70
E) 85
Q3) __________ is the belief that groups are inherently equal.
A) Ethnorealtivism
B) Ethnocentrism
C) Pluralism
D) Geocentricism
E) Monoculture
Q4) What is the difference between ethnocentrism and ethnorelativism?
Q5) Identify and briefly describe the highest and lowest levels of diversity awareness.
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Q1) When the level of stress is high relative to a person's coping resources, stress can be a positive force, stimulating desirable change and achievement.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is the process by which individuals screen and select the various objects and stimuli that vie for their attention?
A) Person-job fit
B) Perceptual selectivity
C) Organizational citizenry
D) Projection
E) Perceptual grouping
Q3) Which of the following describes the last step in the perception process?
A) Observing information
B) Screening the information
C) Selecting what to process
D) Organizing the selected data into patterns
E) Transmitting the observed information
Q4) A(n) ____________________ is an evaluation that predisposes a person to act in a certain way.
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Q1) A substitute counteracts the leadership style and prevents the leader from displaying certain behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Power that stems from a leader's special knowledge is known as A) reward power.
B) referent power.
C) legitimate power.
D) coercive power.
E) none of these.
Q3) Leadership is reciprocal, according to your text. This means
A) it is dynamic.
B) it is a problem-solving activity.
C) it occurs between people.
D) redundant.
E) it always creates conflict.
Q4) Management and leadership reflect the same sets of qualities and skills that frequently overlap within a single individual.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A motivation theory based on the relationship between a given behavior and its consequences is called the ______________________________.
Q2) The motivator factors, or satisfiers, that Odysess can change and influence include all of the following EXCEPT
A) recognition.
B) growth opportunities.
C) achievement.
D) salary.
E) all are motivator factors.
Q3) A job design that incorporates achievement, recognition, and other high-level motivators into the work is referred to as
A) job simplification.
B) job rotation.
C) job enlargement.
D) job enrichment.
E) none of these.
Q4) The perceived value of a reward or outcome is valence.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Routine messages typically are ambiguous, concern novel events and impose great potential for misunderstanding.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of these mediums for communication does not focus on a single receiver, uses limited information cues, and does not permit feedback?
A) Bulletins
B) Telephone conversations
C) Video conference
D) Face to face contact
E) A personal memo
Q3) Communication apprehension is an individual's level of fear or anxiety associated with interpersonal communications.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ___________________________________ refers to the messages and information sent from top management down to subordinates.
Q5) Describe the difference between centralized networks and decentralized networks.
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Q1) Team performance: Research findings are mixed. First, in a cohesive team, members' productivity tends to be more uniform. Cohesive teams have the potential to be productive, but the degree of productivity depends on the relationship between management and the working team.
Q2) Once some teams have evolved to the __________ stage of team development, task performance is no longer the top priority.
A) performing
B) storming
C) adjourning
D) norming
E) achieving
Q3) As a common way group norms develop, critical events are norms the team brings from the outside.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The quality and quantity of task outputs as defined by team goals is known as ____________________________.
Q5) The manager to whom a team and team leaders report is referred to as the ____________________ leader.
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Q1) A budget that plans and reports investments in major assets to be depreciated over several years is called a balance sheet budget.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Technology and quality control departments are typically associated with bureaucratic control.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ____________________ can focus on events before, during, or after the process.
Q4) __________ is the process of measuring your organizational process against the best in the industry.
A) Outsourcing
B) Continuous improvement
C) Environmental analysis
D) Benchmarking
E) Competitive measurement
Q5) ______________________________ focuses on the organization's outputs.
Q6) The continuous process of measuring products, services, and practices against major competitors or industry leaders is called ____________________.
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Q1) It is expected that, in a few years, knowledge resources will be the primary way in which businesses will compete.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of these is NOT an e-business strategy for integrating bricks and clicks?
A) Market experience
B) In-house internet division
C) Cost-efficiency
D) Spin-off
E) All of these are e-business strategies for integrating bricks and clicks
Q3) The biggest boom in e-commerce is in C2C transactions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A key aspect in the success of Wal-Mart is updating the information technology infrastructure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly explain the management implications of information technology.
Q6) Discuss how organizations can blend their traditional operations with an Internet initiative.
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Q1) Under lean manufacturing, employees are discouraged to participate in the improvement of quality.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Increased managerial productivity means having workers produce more output in the same time period.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The __________ is the heart of the organization's production of its product or service.
A) manufacturing department
B) technical core
C) technological environment
D) production sector
E) output
Q4) The fixed-position layout is one in which the equipment remains in one location and the products are brought to it.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ____________________ is the moving of finished products out to customers.
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