Business Information Systems
Test Bank
Course Introduction
Business Information Systems explores how organizations leverage information technology to improve business processes, decision-making, and competitiveness. The course examines the fundamental components of information systems, including hardware, software, data, networks, and people, while analyzing their strategic role in various business functions such as operations, marketing, finance, and human resources. Students will learn about system development, databases, enterprise resource planning, e-business solutions, and the ethical and security challenges associated with managing digital information within today's global business environment.
Recommended Textbook
Experiencing MIS 7th Edition by David M. Kroenke
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Importance of Mis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is abstract reasoning?
Answer: Abstract reasoning is the ability to make and manipulate models.Constructing a model from the five components of an information system is an example of abstract reasoning.
Q2) Which of the following is a critical responsibility of business professionals in using information systems?
A)protecting the security of a system and its data
B)reprogramming a system to meet changing needs
C)creating and modifying a system's databases
D)building and configuring additional networks
Answer: A
Q3) In a job interview, Roy is asked to use a product that he has never used before and is unfamiliar with its functioning.Which of the following skills is the interviewer trying to test?
A)systems thinking
B)abstract reasoning
C)collaboration skills
D)ability to experiment
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Business Processes, Information Systems, and Information
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Q1) The software and procedure components of the information systems framework are
A)actors
B)sets of instructions
C)the outermost components
D)bridges between the human side and the computer side Answer: B
Q2) Creating an abstraction or model of their company's current process helps a team have an informed and better discussion about developing new business processes.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) As long as information is relevant and timely, it need not always be complete. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Organizational Strategy, Information Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A business with a differentiation strategy will add cost to an activity only as long as the activity has a positive margin.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Differentiate between value and margin.
Answer: Porter defined value as the amount of money that a customer is willing to pay for a resource, product, or service.The difference between the value that an activity generates and the cost of the activity is called the margin.A business with a differentiation strategy will add cost to an activity only as long as the activity has a positive margin.
Q3) Enhancing existing products and services is a competitive advantage created by the implementation of business processes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Hardware and Software
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Q1) Magnetic and optical disks are examples of nonvolatile memory.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bits are grouped into 8-bit chunks called ________.
A)bytes
B)kilobytes
C)terabytes
D)megabytes
Q3) Which of the following is an example of nonvolatile memory?
A)cache memory
B)main memory
C)magnetic disk
D)RAM drive
Q4) Which of the following is most likely to be a disadvantage of self-driving cars?
A)There will be more accidents.
B)More parking lots will have to be built.
C)More people will use cars and avoid planes or trains.
D)There will be more stress during commute.
Q5) Differentiate between client and server computers.
Q6) What is firmware?
6
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Chapter 5: Database Processing
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Q1) Conducting training to ensure that users and operations personnel know and understand recovery procedures is a task associated with the DBMS ________.
A)processing
B)administration
C)creation
D)modification
Q2) Which of the following is an open source document-oriented NoSQL DBMS product?
A)Access
B)MongoDB
C)SQL Server
D)DB2
Q3) What is a database application?
Q4) A ________ is a collection of forms, reports, queries, and programs that serves as an intermediary between users and database data.
A)database application
B)metadata table
C)database hierarchy
D)dimension table
Q5) What is a database management system (DBMS)? Explain with suitable examples.
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Chapter 6: The Cloud
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Q1) Telediagnosis uses telecommunications to link surgeons to robotic equipment at distant locations.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Content delivery networks (CDNs)are used to store and deliver content that rarely changes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Content delivery networks (CDNs)increase a Web page's load time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An organization's internal information system that does not provide elasticity is still considered a cloud.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cloud vendors do not benefit from economies of scale.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Why is cloud hosting preferred to in-house hosting?
Q7) What are the factors that have made cloud-based hosting advantageous?
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Chapter 7: Organizations and Information Systems
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Q1) Explain workgroup information systems.
Q2) The last phase of the customer life cycle is relationship management.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Business process reengineering is extremely fast and economical.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are personal information systems?
Q5) Which of the following statements is true of personal information systems?
A)Personal information systems that support a particular department are called workgroup information systems.
B)Adapting to changes in personal information systems is extremely difficult and time consuming.
C)Personal information systems have a single user only, and so the procedures are probably not documented or formalized.
D)The solutions to problems in a personal information system usually involve more than one department.
Q6) What are some of the benefits of enterprise application integration (EAI)?
Q7) How can organizations solve the problems caused by information silos?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Social Media Information Systems
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Q1) Social media communities develop and operate their own custom, proprietary, social networking application software.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A social media information system is an information system that supports the sharing of content among networks of users.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain the procedure component of social media information systems (SMIS)with respect to a user and an organization.
Q4) The first step that any organization should take to manage the risk of employee communication is to develop and publicize a social media policy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Social media users include only individuals and not organizations that use social media sites.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 9: Business Intelligence Systems
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Q1) Data granularity refers to the amount of data represented by data.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of BigData?
A)BigData contains only structured data.
B)BigData has low velocity and is generated slowly.
C)BigData cannot store graphics, audio, and video files.
D)BigData refers to data sets that are at least a petabyte in size.
Q3) With unsupervised data mining, analysts do not create a model or hypothesis before running the analysis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following problems is particularly common for data that have been gathered over time?
A)wrong granularity
B)lack of integration
C)lack of consistency
D)missing values
Q5) How is a data warehouse different from a data mart?
Q6) What is data mining?
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Chapter 10: Information Systems Security
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Q1) Davian, a professional hacker, tries every possible combination of characters to crack his victim's email password.Using this technique, he can crack a six-character password of either upper- or lowercase letters in about ten minutes.Which of the following techniques is used by Davian to obtain access to his victim's email?
A)denial-of-service attack
B)brute force attack
C)pretexting
D)spoofing
Q2) Backup and recovery against computer security threats are ________.
A)technical safeguards
B)data safeguards
C)human safeguards
D)hardware safeguards
Q3) Explain how defining positions in an organization can safeguard against security threats.
Q4) The loss of encryption keys by employees is referred to as key escrow.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe an incident-response plan.
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Chapter 11: Information Systems Management
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Q1) The ________ evaluates new technologies, new ideas, and new capabilities and identifies those that are most relevant to the organization.
A)chief financial officer
B)supply chain manager
C)human resource manager
D)chief technology officer
Q2) The knowledge of responsibilities and duties of an information systems (IS)department helps one become a better consumer of the IS department's services.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are the responsibilities of the technology office of a firm's information systems (IS)department?
Q4) In order to accomplish organizational goals and objectives, an organization's information systems (IS)must be aligned with its ________.
A)reporting structure
B)culture
C)competitive strategy
D)departments
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Chapter 12: Information Systems Development
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of information systems?
A)They are off-the-shelf software without adaptation.
B)They can be adapted to fit business needs.
C)They can be purchased as off-the-shelf software.
D)They cannot be tailor-made.
Q2) Interviews are conducted with system users in the requirements analysis phase of the systems development life cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a ________ installation, a new system runs alongside the old one until the new one has been tested and is fully operational.
A)pilot
B)parallel
C)phased
D)plunge
Q4) What are the five phases of the systems development life cycle (SDLC)?
Q5) Explain the importance of the requirements analysis phase of the systems development life cycle (SDLC).
Q6) What is beta testing?
14
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Chapter 13: Collaboration Information Systems for Decision Making
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Q1) In project management, accomplishing tasks on time is the objective of the ________ phase.
A)finalizing
B)starting
C)doing
D)planning
Q2) Different people usually perceive a problem in the same way.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ is the first and most fundamental collaboration purpose.
A)Decision making
B)Informing
C)Managing projects
D)Experimenting
Q4) Which of the following collaborative activities requires tracking many versions of many documents and other work products?
A)increase in team satisfaction
B)feedback
C)promotion of team growth
D)iteration
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Chapter 14: Collaborative Information Systems for Student Projects
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Q1) While using the Minimal collaboration tool set, it must be ensured that one user's work does not conflict with another's.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In team surveys, one team member creates a list of questions and the other team members respond.
A)True
B)False
Q3) With the ________ collaboration tool set, participants have the ability to conduct multiparty audio and video virtual meetings and the support for concurrent access to document, spreadsheet, and presentation files, but they will have to rely on third-party tools to use surveys, wikis, and blogs.
A)Minimal
B)Optimal
C)Good
D)Comprehensive
Q4) Explain the importance of Microsoft SharePoint in task management.
Q5) Explain synchronous and asynchronous communications in organizations with examples.
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Chapter 15: Mobile Systems
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Q1) Direct interaction is the usage of content to drive application behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A ________ application is a thick-client application that is designed to work with a particular operating system, and sometimes only with a particular mobile device that runs that operating system.
A)native
B)virtual
C)remote
D)browser-based
Q3) ________ data is data that the device requests from the server.
A)Nonlinear
B)Linear
C)Pull
D)Push
Q4) Context-sensitive chrome pops up in the display when appropriate.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Differentiate between native and Web mobile applications.
Q6) Explain the role of feature content in a quality mobile application.
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Chapter 16: Introduction to Microsoft Excel 2013
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Q1) Which of the following is true of the options for modifying rows and columns in Excel?
A)To add a column, click the name of the column before which new columns are needed and select as many columns to the right as required.
B)To increase the size of a column, drag the line between the two columns in the column headings to the left.
C)To insert new rows, click the number of the row below which new rows are needed and select as many rows below as required.
D)To decrease the height of a row, drag the line between the line numbers down.
Q2) Excel lacks features that can add data into a spreadsheet based on a pattern. A)True
B)False
Q3) The tools and selections in the PAGE LAYOUT ribbon determine how a document will be arranged as a printed document.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is a spreadsheet?
Q5) Explain the process of naming the rows, columns, and cells in Microsoft Excel.
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Chapter 17: Database Design
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Q1) While representing the relationship between two entities in an entity-relationship diagram, the N:N notation is used to indicate that the same number of entities are present on each end of the relationship.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In an organization, the administrative department consists of one clerk whose sole responsibility is the management of various administrative functions.The notation that accurately indicates this relationship is ________.
A)1:N
B)N:N
C)1:1
D)N:M
Q3) In an entity-relationship (E-R)diagram, a line is used to represent a relationship between two entities.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How is a data model transformed into a database design?
Q5) Explain the difference between maximum and minimum cardinality.
Q6) What are the different types of relationships represented in a data model?
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Using Microsoft Access 2013
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true about queries in Microsoft Access?
A)Only rows with value matches in all tables are shown by default if more than one table is selected.
B)Only rows having "Number" data type can be used to arrange the results of a query in ascending order.
C)Queries can include fields from only one table.
D)The query design option is present in the Database Tools tab.
Q2) Any text entered as the Description of a field is displayed as help text on forms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Russell works on two tables in Microsoft Access.One is for contractual employees, whereas, the other is for permanent employees.He creates a relationship between the two tables.Which of the following steps should Russell take next?
A)create macros
B)enter data
C)provide table descriptions
D)create queries
Q4) Explain the procedure for creating a new database using Microsoft Access.
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Chapter 19: Using Excel and Access Together
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Q1) Explain the procedure for creating graphs in Microsoft Excel.
Q2) A ________, which is a subset of the cells in a worksheet that has a unique name, enables data to be transferred from Microsoft Excel to Microsoft Access.
A)specified label
B)consolidation table
C)named range
D)calculated column
Q3) What are delimited text files?
Q4) A user can produce two different reports from a single set of Microsoft Excel data, by importing this data into Microsoft Access and using the Access report generator.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Microsoft Excel includes comprehensive tools for graphing data.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Microsoft Access is a database management system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Network and Cloud Technology
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of service-oriented architecture (SOA)?
A)Work is assigned to Web servers based on their geographical proximity to a user.
B)SOA services are used only between the Web server and the users.
C)The number of database servers and Web servers should be in a fixed ratio.
D)JavaScript is written to invoke services defined by a server application.
Q2) ________ is a common TCP/IP application-layer protocol that is used for email transmissions.
A)eXtensible Markup Language
B)Mail Access Protocol
C)File Transfer Protocol
D)Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of digital subscriber lines (DSLs)?
A)They use television lines for data transmission.
B)Their signals do not interfere with voice telephone services.
C)Their operations are independent of voice telephone lines.
D)They do not allow data transmission to occur when telephone conversations occur.
Q4) How does a Web server differ from a commerce server?
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Chapter 21: Enterprise Resource Planning Erpsystems
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Q1) ________ is a suite of applications, a database, and a set of inherent processes for consolidating business operations into a single, consistent computing platform.
A)Enterprise resource planning
B)Customer relationship management
C)Warehouse management system
D)Supply chain management
Q2) An enterprise resource planning (ERP)implementation depends primarily on the backing of a departmental manager.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ activities include payroll, time and attendance, and benefits administration that must be integrated into applications in order to form a true enterprise resource planning (ERP)product.
A)Manufacturing
B)Supply chain
C)Human resource
D)Accounting
Q4) Briefly describe Microsoft's enterprise resource planning (ERP)products.
Q5) Explain enterprise resource planning (ERP)application programs.
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Chapter 22: Supply Chain Management
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Q1) Inter-enterprise information systems are necessary to share consumer-demand information.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Profitability of a supply chain increases if all the organizations in the supply chain operate at their maximum profitability.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following refers to the way organizations share their information?
A)means
B)purpose
C)availability
D)intent
Q4) True demand is the demand from the only party that introduces money into the system.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Information systems do not support just-in-time inventory.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Enterprise Social Networks and Knowledge Management
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Q1) ________ are rule-based systems that encode human knowledge in the form of If/Then rules.
A)Document management systems
B)Expert systems
C)Content management systems
D)Enterprise resource planning systems
Q2) Which of the following is a disadvantage of expert systems?
A)They cannot be updated to meet the changes in technology.
B)They cannot consist of more than one If/Then rule.
C)They are difficult to develop and maintain.
D)The system's knowledge is available only to high-skilled experts.
Q3) What is an enterprise social network (ESN)?
Q4) Software is the only component present in a content management system. A)True
B)False
Q5) Documents in content management systems exist in isolation from each other. A)True
B)False
Q7) What is knowledge management? How does it benefit an organization? Page 25
Q6) Explain briefly how organizations view a social media information system (SMIS).
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Chapter 24: Database Marketing
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Q1) The frequency of customer purchases is not a determining factor for RFM scores.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In market-basket terminology, a conditional probability estimate is referred to as
A)support
B)cohesion
C)confidence
D)chance
Q3) What is a market-basket analysis?
Q4) Describe the process of conducting RFM analysis.
Q5) The RFM score is obtained by ranking customers based on the positive feedback for a product after purchasing it.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Which of the following RFM scores refers to the most valuable customer?
A)111
B)555
C)123
D)333
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Chapter 25: Reporting Systems and Olap
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Q1) A reporting system uses metadata to prepare and deliver reports to proper users on a timely basis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the different types of reports.
Q3) Push reports are generated only on receiving a user request.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In an online analytical processing (OLAP)report, a data item that is to be processed is called a ________.
A)measure
B)dimension
C)cube
D)target
Q5) Explain report authoring, report management, and report delivery.
Q6) Describe online analytical processing (OLAP).
Q7) Reporting systems cannot generate reports that require calculations on data. A)True
B)False
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Q8) What are reporting systems? What are the fundamental operations they perform?
Chapter 26: Data Breaches
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Q1) Data extrusion helps organizations secure their data from possible data breaches.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following regulatory laws requires data protection for financial institutions?
A)the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA)
B)the Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA)
C)the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)
D)the Health Information Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
Q3) Organizations can implement countermeasures that make data breaches impossible to occur.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Each type of data breach is different because hackers are continually developing new tools and techniques that enable them to steal more data.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why should organizations respond quickly to data breaches?
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Chapter 27: International Mis
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Q1) Because of the ________ effect, a dollar spent will contribute two or three dollars of activity to the economy.
A)distribution
B)bullwhip
C)butterfly
D)accelerator
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of functional systems?
A)They facilitate the integration of data across various business functions.
B)Two order-processing functional systems located in two different countries need not accommodate language and culture differences in a single system.
C)They ensure that organizations do not suffer from islands of automation.
D)They solve the problems of data isolation by integrating data into a database that provides a comprehensive and organization-wide view.
Q3) Information systems support just-in-time (JIT)inventory techniques.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the challenges of international information systems (IS)management?
Q5) What are the problems of inherent processes?
Q6) How does the global economy change competitive strategy?
Page 30
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Chapter 28: Systems Development Project Management
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Q1) A ________ defines the boundaries of a system in a work breakdown structure (WBS).
A)trade-off
B)code
C)scope
D)scale
Q2) The smaller and shorter a project, the greater the chance of disruption due to unanticipated events.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is a critical path? How is a critical path analysis done?
Q4) Which of the following statements is true of large-scale systems development projects?
A)They use simple computer programs to ensure consistency and speed in development.
B)They use development teams of less than 20 members to reduce complexity.
C)Their development can involve the integration of services from several companies.
D)Their development is carried out in a single site to ensure consistency.
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Chapter 29: Agile Development
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Q1) "Test as you go" is a principle of the SDLC.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The waterfall model used by the systems development life cycle (SDLC)is suitable for building physical things, such as a runway.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Just-in-time design may lead to substantial revision of the work product produced previously in the project.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is a characteristic that makes agile development a valid systems development process?
A)Team iteration and feedback are used for scheduling and tasking.
B)Process scheduling is performed by the scrum master.
C)Through iteration, team members decide when a project is complete.
D)Once a phase of development is completed, it is not revisited.
Q5) In a scrum, who is a product owner?
Q6) According to the scrum essentials, when is a project said to be done?
Page 32
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Chapter 30: Business Process Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A particular information system cannot be used by multiple single business processes simultaneously.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Every activity of a business process involves an information system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements is true about process problems?
A)The task of solving a process problem is ideally given to systems analysts.
B)An as-is diagram for business processes exists in all organizations.
C)Business analysts prefer to use process schematics instead of Business Process Modeling Notation.
D)When a business process has simply evolved, it is possible that no one knows the entire process.
Q4) Business processes and information systems overlap.
A)True B)False
Q5) Both information systems and business processes can be purchased off-the-shelf. A)True
B)False
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