Business Information Systems
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Business Information Systems explores the role of information technology in modern organizations, focusing on how information systems support business processes, decision-making, and competitive advantage. Students will learn about the design, implementation, and management of information systems, as well as topics such as enterprise systems, database management, e-commerce, cybersecurity, and the ethical considerations of IT in business. The course provides practical insights into aligning technology with business strategy to enhance organizational performance.
Recommended Textbook
Information Technology Project Management Revised 7th Edition by Kathy Schwalbe
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13 Chapters
1057 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Project Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Team building exercises and motivation techniques are tools used in _____ management.
A) procurement
B) scope
C) human resource
D) cost
Answer: C
Q2) Project procurement management primarily involves identifying stakeholder needs while managing their engagement throughout the life of the project.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Opponents of a project do not belong to the category of stakeholders.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Project management _____ describe the key competencies that project managers must develop.
Answer: knowledge areas
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Chapter 2: The Project Management and Information Technology Context
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ frame of an organization relates to the company's culture.
Answer: symbolic
Q2) The three spheres of systems management are business, organization, and _____.
Answer: technology
Q3) Which of the following is true of a matrix organizational structure?
A) In a matrix organizational structure, employees are organized into departments according to their skills, and there is little interaction between employees from different departments.
B) Project managers in matrix organizations have staff from only a single functional area working On their projects.
C) In a strong matrix organizational structure, the project manager controls the project budget and has moderate to high authority.
D) A matrix organizational structure is hierarchical, but instead of functional Managers reporting to the CEO, program managers report to the CEO.
Answer: C
Q4) _____ refers to the degree to which rules, policies, and direct supervision are used to oversee employee behavior.
Answer: Control
4
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Chapter 3: The Project Management Process Groups: a Case Study
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Sample Questions
Q1) Details of kick-off meetings and the stakeholder details are usually recorded in a Word document.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A(n) _____ is the person responsible for the business value of the project and for deciding what work to do and in what order when using a Scrum method.
Answer: product owner
Q3) Initiating processes are not required to end a project.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The project integration management knowledge area maps to the _____ process group through the activities of developing project charters.
A) initiating
B) planning
C) executing
D) monitoring and controlling
Answer: A
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Project Integration Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the _____ stage of selecting information technology projects, organizations select information technology projects.
A) project planning
B) business area analysis
C) resource allocation
D) information technology strategy planning
Q2) _____ refer to chances to improve the organization.
Q3) _____ are new requirements imposed by management, government, or some external influence.
Q4) What is a weighted scoring model? How is it created?
Q5) The number of interfaces in a single project is limited, and does not depend on the number of people involved in the project.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A positive NPV means the return from a project exceeds the _____, the return available by investing the capital elsewhere.
Q7) _____ involves identifying, evaluating, and managing changes throughout the project life cycle.
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Q8) A(n) _____ is the approved project management plan plus approved changes.
Chapter 5: Project Scope Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main technique used in creating a WBS is _____, which involves subdividing project deliverables into smaller pieces.
A) conglomeration
B) accumulation
C) decomposition
D) catalyzation
Q2) _____ uses highly organized and intensive workshops to bring together project stakeholders-the sponsor, users, business analysts, programmers, and so on-to jointly define and design information systems.
A) Prototyping
B) JAD
C) RAD
D) Use case modeling
Q3) The _____ approach for constructing a WBS starts with the largest items of the project and breaks them into subordinate items.
A) analogy
B) bottom-up
C) top-down
D) mind mapping
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Project Time Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) In project time management, which of the following processes involve analyzing activity sequences, activity resource estimates, and activity duration estimates to create the project schedule?
A) Planning schedule management
B) Developing the schedule
C) Controlling the schedule
D) Defining activities
Q2) A difference between the Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) and critical path method (CPM) is that:
A) CPM addresses the risk associated with duration estimates whereas PERT does not.
B) unlike CPM, PERT estimates only when there is no risk of uncertainty.
C) CPM involves more work than PERT because it requires several duration estimates.
D) PERT uses different duration estimates whereas CPM uses one specific duration estimate.
Q3) A(n) _____ determines the early start and early finish dates for each activity in a project.
Q4) _____ is the number of workdays or work hours required to complete a task.
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8
Chapter 7: Project Cost Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Schedule variance is:
A) the earned value minus the planned value.
B) the earned value minus the actual cost.
C) the planned value plus the earned value.
D) the planned value plus the rate of performance.
Q2) What are tangible and intangible costs? Distinguish between direct and indirect costs and give examples of each.
Q3) Describe three tools used in developing a good cost estimate.
Q4) If the cost estimate for a project is a basis for contract awards and performance reporting, it should be a(n) _____ estimate and as accurate as possible.
A) budgetary
B) definitive
C) rough order of magnitude
D) analogous
Q5) Project costs, like project schedules, grow out of the basic documents that initiate a project, like the _____.
Q6) _____ are revenues minus expenditures.
Q7) A cost management plan is a subsidiary of the _____ plan.
Q8) List and briefly describe the four project cost management processes.
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Chapter 8: Project Quality Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A _____ is a graphic display of data that illustrates the results of a process over time.
A) statistical sampling chart
B) Pareto chart
C) Six Sigma chart
D) control chart
Q2) Products that are accepted by project stakeholders are considered to be validated deliverables.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The _____ is a measure of quality control equal to 1 fault in 1 million opportunities problems.
A) ISO 9000
B) six 9s of quality rule
C) seven run rule
D) Six Sigma rule
Q4) What are the five phases in the DMAIC process? Briefly describe each one.
Q5) What are the three main outcomes of quality control? Briefly describe each.
Q6) _____ measures how much variation exists in a distribution of data.
Q7) In the DMAIC process, the letter "C" stands for _____.
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Chapter 9: Project Human Resource Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The highest level of needs in Maslow's structure is referred to as a _____ need.
A) deficiency
B) growth
C) safety
D) physiological
Q2) _____ is the potential ability to influence behavior to get people to do things they would not otherwise do.
Q3) _____ involves assigning the needed personnel to work on the project.
A) Planning human resource management
B) Developing the project team
C) Acquiring the project team
D) Managing the project team
Q4) A staffing management plan describes when and how people will be added to and taken off the project team.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Covey, like Maslow, believes that people have the ability to be _____ and choose their responses to different situations.
Q6) In the DISC profile, the letter "S" represents _____.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Project Communications Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microsoft Office Enterprise Project Management Solution has a(n) _____ tool that provides a centralized and consolidated view of programs and projects.
Q2) Which of the following is true of a project communications plan?
A) The communications plan within an organization does not vary from project to project.
B) The communications plan should be part of the overall project management plan.
C) The communications plan should never be part of the team contract, but should always be a separate document.
D) The communications plan should include project forecasts and other technical information.
Q3) While trying to assess commitment of project stakeholders, a(n) _____ meeting or a Web conference might be the most appropriate medium to use.
Q4) _____ communication happens when two or more people to exchange information via meetings, phone calls, or video conferencing.
Q5) A(n) _____ forces meeting organizers to plan the meeting and gives potential participants the chance to decide whether they need to attend.
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Chapter 11: Project Risk Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ are indicators or symptoms of actual risk events.
Q2) The Microsoft Solution Framework (MSF) includes a risk management model that includes developing and monitoring a top-ten master list of risks.
A)True B)False
Q3) Risks can have both negative and positive effects on meeting project objectives. A)True B)False
Q4) Unknown risks can be managed proactively. A)True B)False
Q5) The psychology literature shows that individuals, working alone, produce fewer ideas than the same individuals produce through brainstorming in small, face-to-face groups. A)True B)False
Q6) Potential problems that might occur on the project and how they might impede project success are _____ risks.
Q7) A(n) _____ is a hierarchy of potential risk categories for a project.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Project Procurement Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) In project procurement management, a main output of the controlling process is a source selection criteria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Three types of cost-reimbursable contracts include cost plus incentive fee, cost plus fixed fee, and _____.
Q3) In project procurement management, which of the following is an output of the executing process?
A) Make-or-buy decisions
B) Statements of work
C) Source selection criteria
D) Resource calendars
Q4) Which of the following is true of lump-sum contracts?
A) They incur a high degree of risk for the buyer.
B) They involve a fixed total price for a well-defined product or service.
C) They consist of a fee based on the satisfaction of subjective performance criteria.
D) They are also known as cost-reimbursable contracts.
Q5) A(n) _____ contract has the least amount of risk for the buyer.
Q6) Procurement statements of work are an output of the _____ process.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Project Stakeholder Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stakeholder management plan should not be accessible to all stakeholders.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A(n) _____ is a tool that helps clarify expectations and lists project measures of success as well as priorities, expectations, and guidelines related to each measure.
Q3) _____ is the new knowledge area identified by the Project Management Institute.
A) Project stakeholder management
B) Project communication management
C) Project risk management
D) Project procurement management
Q4) The _____ is a formal or informal document that helps project teams to effectively engage stakeholders and make sure that good decisions are made through out the life of the project.
Q5) Though stakeholders cannot be controlled, their level of engagement can be controlled.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A(n) _____ stakeholder is one who is aware of the project and is neither supportive nor resistant.
Page 15
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