
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Business English is designed to develop students' proficiency in the use of English within professional and corporate contexts. The course focuses on practical language skills essential for business communication, including writing effective emails and reports, participating in meetings, making presentations, negotiating, and telephone etiquette. Emphasis is placed on expanding business-related vocabulary, improving clarity and conciseness, and understanding cultural nuances in global business environments. Through interactive activities, case studies, and simulations, students gain confidence in articulating ideas, collaborating with colleagues, and navigating diverse business scenarios using appropriate English language conventions.
Recommended Textbook
Business Communication Today 11th Global Edition by Courtland Bovee
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Q1) "Business Communication 2.0" refers to
A) high-level correspondence as opposed to routine documents.
B) specialized software that enables professionals to create impressive documents easily and efficiently.
C) a new approach to business communication, emphasizing interaction and conversation rather than one-way publication.
D) none of the above.
Answer: C
Q2) Communication is the process of
A) listening actively.
B) writing messages.
C) transferring information and meaning.
D) none of the above.
Answer: C
Q3) Within organizations, formal communication is upward and downward, while informal communication is always horizontal.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False

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Q1) When receiving business-related phone calls,
A) it is perfectly acceptable to put the caller on hold without explanation.
B) you should use frequent verbal responses (such as, "I see") to show that you are listening.
C) it is impolite to say things such as, "I understand" while the other person is speaking.
D) do none of the above.
Answer: B
Q2) When composing collaborative messages, the best strategy is to
A) begin by letting all members "do their own thing" and then seeing what they all produce.
B) avoid writing as a group.
C) make the team as large as possible so that every possible area of expertise will be covered.
D) let all members use their own preferred software.
Answer: B
Q3) The use of time and space can send powerful nonverbal signals.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Asking a colleague "How was your weekend?" is
A) accepted in the U.S., but considered intrusive in some cultures.
B) grounds for a lawsuit.
C) an effective greeting in any culture.
D) never acceptable in a business environment.
Answer: A
Q2) How can cultural differences affect communication styles? What general approach should Americans take when writing intercultural correspondence?
Answer: Audiences in various cultures often have widely differing ideas of appropriate communication styles. These expectations dictate factors such as how direct one can be, whether heated debates and confrontations are acceptable, and whether written or oral communication is generally preferred. In general, American businesspeople need to be more formal in their international correspondence than they are when writing to people in their own country.
Q3) A group of men and women of various ages working together is an example of cultural diversity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Storytelling is
A) an effective way to organize messages in a surprising number of business communication scenarios.
B) inappropriate for professional communication.
C) acceptable in business, but only for messages organized in the direct approach.
D) none of the above.
Q2) Briefly describe how to meet an unfamiliar audience's informational needs.
Q3) Leaner media are best used for messages that
A) require feedback.
B) are highly emotional.
C) are nonroutine.
D) are routine.
Q4) In high-context cultures, ________ media are often more effective than ________ ones.
A) leaner, richer
B) foreign, domestic
C) oral, written
D) none of the above
Q5) Explain each phase of the three-step writing process.
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Q1) List three situations in which the passive voice can help you demonstrate the "you" attitude.
Q2) ________ words express a concept or quality, not a tangible object.
Q3) Good business letters use language that is as formal as possible and use proven terminology such as "please be advised that" and "attached please find."
A)True
B)False
Q4) Plain language is a style of writing
A) aimed primarily at readers for whom English is a second language.
B) inappropriate for business communication.
C) designed to make complex materials more understandable to the audience.
D) used only for casual correspondence.
Q5) Explain what it means to "emphasize the positive" in business messages, and describe at least three techniques for doing so.
Q6) Briefly explain the difference between the active voice and the passive voice. Include an example of each one.
Q7) The rules of grammar and usage do not change over time.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following sentences contains a camouflaged verb?
A) He slowly, deliberately added the numbers.
B) She is a marketing manager but also serves as ad manager.
C) The recommendation of the committee is to proceed as planned.
D) Some do; others don't.
Q2) "Three AM in the morning" is an example of a redundancy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Although readability formulas are easy to apply, they ignore some factors that contribute to reading ease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) "If the figures are in by the end of the month we will hopefully be able to begin planning for the upcoming year's budget, but if they are not then the planning process will most definitely have to wait until later" is an example of
A) an indefinite pronoun starter.
B) a comma splice.
C) an overly long sentence.
D) an awkward pointer.
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Q1) Briefly explain the differences among user-generated content sites, community Q&A sites, and community participation websites.
Q2) Spelling, punctuation, and grammar do not matter in email; getting your message out quickly should be your only concern.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Email messages
A) should always be less formal in business than messages in other media.
B) generally require less care than other messages, since email is temporary and easily deleted.
C) should be written with the assumption that they will be stored forever.
D) none of the above.
Q4) In business communication, email is often being replaced by other tools that provide better support for instant communication and real-time collaboration.
A)True B)False
Q5) What are seven guidelines to keep in mind when creating content for business-related social media?
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Q1) There is no reason to state how complying to a request will benefit the target of the request.
A)True
B)False
Q2) You're preparing an internal blog posting providing information on this year's annual company picnic. The message is generally positive, but you need to say that--unlike past picnics--the event will not be catered. What approach is best for conveying mildly disappointing information such as this in the context of a positive message?
Q3) If a customer requesting an adjustment is at fault for the problem, the one thing you should not do is
A) refuse the claim, and politely point out the customer's mistake.
B) refuse the claim.
C) honor the claim, and politely point out the customer's mistake.
D) honor the claim grudgingly and show your resentment
Q4) When making complex routine requests to company outsiders, you rarely need to explain how responding to the request will benefit the reader.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) List at least three guidelines that can help you avoid being accused of defamation.
Q2) If you must give an employee a negative performance review,
A) do so by email or fax.
B) limit your discussion to the areas where the employee needs improvement.
C) support your claims with careful documentation.
D) do all of the above.
Q3) When rejecting a job applicant, you can soften the blow by
A) telling the applicant how many others he or she was competing against.
B) mentioning the qualifications of the person who was hired.
C) expressing appreciation for his or her application.
D) apologizing for wasting the person's time.
Q4) A poorly written buffer
A) shows appreciation or empathy to the audience.
B) may mislead the reader into thinking good news follows.
C) is specifically related to the topic of the message.
D) opens your message in a neutral manner.
Q5) Explain how an effective buffer differs from one that is poorly written. Provide an example of a buffer that would be inappropriate for a message explaining that a student's grade appeal has been denied.
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Q1) Using the AIDA approach with social media
A) requires a different, more interactive approach.
B) requires a more rigid approach.
C) does not work at all.
D) requires the same steps as the AIDA approach with conventional media.
Q2) Persuasive messages often follow a specialized four-phase format called the ________ model.
Q3) Successful marketing and sales messages match the product's selling points to the audience's primary needs or emotional concerns.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ________ are the particular advantages that readers will realize from the features of a product or idea.
Q5) The purpose of the interest section of a persuasive message is to A) capture attention.
B) increase the audience's desire to take the action recommended in the message.
C) show that your product is well-suited to your audience.
D) get the reader to act immediately.
Q6) When is it a good idea to use the direct approach for persuasive messages?
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Q1) Briefly explain the difference between primary research and secondary research.
Q2) According to the fair use doctrine
A) plagiarism is not an issue in the business world-it is a problem only in schools and academic circles.
B) once material is made public, it no longer belongs to the author.
C) you can use other people's work only if you don't prevent them from benefiting as a result.
D) crediting sources is all that is necessary to avoid legal problems.
Q3) You can narrow or broaden an Internet search by using ________ operators such as AND, OR, and NOT.
Q4) The recommendations you make in a report should be
A) the same as the conclusions.
B) what the audience wants to hear.
C) practical and offer clear guidance on next steps.
D) easy to implement.
Q5) An example of a recommendation would be "Given the state of the economy, now is a good time to invest in precious metals."
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A(n) ________ is a type of chart that uses symbols instead of words or numbers to portray data.
Q2) A segmented or stacked bar chart
A) compares quantities that require different intervals.
B) shows the correlation between two items.
C) shows how individual components contribute to a total number.
D) identifies positive and negative values.
Q3) Define and explain the "visual evolution in business communication."
Q4) A(n) ________ ________ chart shows how much time is needed to complete each task in a given project.
Q5) When it comes to using photographs in business communication, learning basic functions such as how to crop an image is
A) helpful, since it can improve the effectiveness of your messages.
B) too difficult for most people.
C) best left to professional designers.
D) worthwhile only if you tend to rely more heavily on images than on text.
Q6) Bars in a bar chart should always be aligned horizontally.
A)True
B)False
Q7) What is "chartjunk"?
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Q1) A formal invitation to bid on a contract is called a ________ for ________, or RFP.
Q2) Reports that examine the financial aspects of a proposed decision, such as acquiring another company, are called due diligence reports.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Information architecture refers to the structure and navigational flow of all parts of a website.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The primary purpose of an internal proposal is either to request funds and management support for new projects or to obtain permission to take action on specific projects.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly explain the primary function of a statement of purpose, then indicate the most useful way to phrase one.
Q6) List three types of reports commonly used to monitor and control operations in business.
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Q1) Documenting your sources is important for reports you write in school, but it is not necessary in business reports.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If your proposal involves providing replacement machine parts that your company regularly stocks, it is not necessary in the Work Plan section to describe how you'll accomplish what must be done.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a basic proposal, you should define the problem and summarize the solution you propose.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Generally speaking, an effective proposal can
A) be as vague as possible.
B) follow the AIDA model.
C) follow the plan for good-news messages.
D) avoid the "you" attitude.
Q5) Briefly explain how to write effective links in online content.
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Q1) Explain why it is generally best to prepare the prefatory parts of your report after you've written the text.
Q2) An executive summary
A) gives a fully developed "mini" version of the report.
B) is unnecessary if the report is not intended for executives.
C) is shorter than a synopsis.
D) provides additional information (not covered in the report) that executives will need.
Q3) Describe the primary function of the letter of transmittal.
Q4) In a formal proposal, how do you determine the organizational approach to use in the letter of transmittal?
Q5) The best way to decide what to include in an introduction is to
A) put in as many standard topics as you can cover in 10 pages or less.
B) consult with more-experienced report writers.
C) focus on the information that will most help your readers follow and comprehend the report.
D) do a quick survey of potential readers.
Q6) What is one advantage of starting each section of your report on a separate page?
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Q1) As a speaker, how you go about establishing credibility depends in part on A) how you are dressed.
B) what time of day you deliver your remarks.
C) the size of your audience.
D) whether or not you are a well-known expert in the subject.
Q2) The ________ to your presentation aims to capture the audience's attention.
Q3) Longer speeches and presentations are organized like A) memos.
B) reports.
C) email messages.
D) letters.
Q4) Offer some practical suggestions for overcoming anxiety related to public speaking.
Q5) When discussing topics of profound importance to your audience, you can usually count on having their attention as soon as you introduce your main idea.
A)True
B)False
Q6) For a large audience and an important event, you will generally need to establish a(n) ________ atmosphere and to deliver your remarks on a stage or platform.
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Q1) ________ enable you to make individual elements on a slide appear one at a time rather than all at once.
Q2) Describe at least two advantages of using color in business presentations.
Q3) The predefined layouts in presentation software
A) allow you to automate your slide show.
B) let you see an entire batch of slides at once.
C) contain placeholders for specific slide elements such as titles and bulleted text.
D) allow you to add hyperlinks to your presentation.
Q4) ________ ________ are preprogrammed hyperlink icons available in presentation software.
Q5) Describe the eight factors you should consider when completing slides and other visuals.
Q6) A disadvantage of electronic presentations is
A) they are difficult to store or transport.
B) programs require expertise and can malfunction.
C) they can only be prepared by expert designers.
D) they cannot be customized to different audiences.
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Q7) ________ slides tell your audience where you've been and where you're going in your presentation.
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Q1) The most common way to organize a résumé is ________.
Q2) The ________ ________ section of a résumé states what you wish to accomplish in your work.
Q3) When listing work experience on a résumé, you should emphasize significant achievements in each job.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If you choose not to list your GPA in the "Education" section of your résumé,
A) employers will generally respect you for being modest and not boasting about your record.
B) you should be prepared to answer questions about it during the interview.
C) most employers will not consider you for an interview.
D) you should always state it in your application letter.
Q5) When it comes to functional résumés, many employers
A) are suspicious of them.
B) don't know what they are.
C) strongly prefer them to chronological résumés.
D) view them as a sign of strong communication skills.
Q6) List at least seven of the nine most common problems with résumés.
Q7) A(n) ________ is a persuasive message designed to get you an interview.
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Q1) You should prepare for a video interview in much the same way you would prepare for an in-person interview.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In application letters it is acceptable to mention that you will follow up with a phone call in a few days.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If you haven't heard from an employer by the promised date or within two weeks after an interview, you should send a message of ________.
Q4) Your goal in the initial screening interview is to
A) clinch the deal.
B) distinguish yourself from other candidates.
C) explain your greatest strengths in depth.
D) show the interviewer that your personality fits well with the job.
Q5) Briefly explain the difference between a structured interview and an open-ended interview.
Q6) A letter declining a job offer follows the organizational model for ________ messages.
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Q1) If you include an attention line in a business letter, you should place it
A) two lines below the complimentary close.
B) below the salutation.
C) at the top of the page, centered under the letterhead.
D) on the first line of the inside address.
Q2) In formal business reports, every page should have a page number printed at the top.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The proper sequence for the standard parts of a letter is
A) inside address, heading, date, salutation, body, complimentary close, typewritten name.
B) date, heading, inside address, salutation, body, typewritten name, complimentary close.
C) salutation, date, heading, inside address, body, complimentary close, signature block.
D) heading, date, inside address, salutation, body, complimentary close, signature block.
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Q1) When citing journal articles using APA style
A) include only the first page of the article.
B) you do not need to include the volume number.
C) use quotation marks around the title.
D) capitalize only the first word of the title.
Q2) In APA style, titles of articles are put in quotation marks and all important words are capitalized.
A)True
B)False
Q3) With Chicago humanities style, you use
A) footnotes or endnotes.
B) the author-date system.
C) full citations within the text itself.
D) the author-page number system.
Q4) The American Psychological Association style uses the author-date system. A)True
B)False
Q5) There is difference between endnotes and a bibliography.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The difference between "lie" and "lay" is that "lie" is an intransitive verb and "lay" is a transitive verb.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The pronoun "who" is in the nominative case; the pronoun "whom" is in the objective case.
A)True B)False
Q3) What is the tense of the verb in this sentence? "We had given Tim the money a week before he arrived."
A) Past B) Future C) Present D) Past perfect
Q4) A linking verb is always followed by a noun, pronoun, or adjective. A)True B)False
Q5) You should include a comma when a date consists only of the month and year. A)True B)False
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