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Business Communication explores the principles and practices essential for effective communication within and between organizations. The course covers various modes of business communication, including written, verbal, and nonverbal methods, and emphasizes the importance of cultural awareness, professional tone, and clarity. Students will develop skills in crafting business documents such as emails, memos, reports, and presentations, and will learn how to adapt messages for different audiences and purposes. The course also addresses strategies for interpersonal communication, conflict resolution, and the use of digital communication tools in today's business environment, preparing students to navigate and lead in diverse professional settings.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Business 12th Edition by William G Nickels
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7272 Verified Questions
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315 Verified Questions
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Q1) Tyler Brown recently noticed that he was seeing more Facebook advertisements than he had in the past even though he had not requested any of them. Which of the following best explains why this is happening?
A) Tyrell was a victim of identity theft.
B) Tyrell gave his personal information to a business, which then traded it to other companies, and these companies then began targeting their advertisements.
C) All businesses routinely have all customers' personal information.
D) Tyrell's accountant gave his information to the marketers.
Answer: B
Q2) While the proportion of workers employed in agriculture has remained relatively constant, the average size of farms has steadily decreased over the past century.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Demographic changes create new business opportunities.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) Incentive to own and operate businesses is high in nations whose governments are proponents of socialistic practices.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) ________ unemployment results when the demand for labor varies during the year.
A) Frictional
B) Structural
C) Cyclical
D) Seasonal
Answer: D
Q3) Senator Spendital recently made a speech condemning the continuous deficits in the federal budget. He is now proposing an increase in tax rates to raise more revenue for the government and thus gradually reduce the size of the national debt over a period of several years. The strategy Senator Spendital is proposing is a common type of monetary policy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False

Page 4
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Sample Questions
Q1) American businesspeople often fail to adapt to foreign markets because they feel that the American culture is superior to other cultures in the world.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) U.S. exports boost the U.S. economy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The nation of Taubestan requires that all imported beverages be contained in clear, well-labeled recyclable glass bottles. Several international beverage manufacturers refuse to trade with the country because the cost of glass bottles cuts into their profits to the point where it just isn't worth it. Taubestan has created a nontariff barrier.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Ethical behavior at work is learned by
A) attending corporate responsibility seminars.
B) tracking the failures of those who are caught in business scandals.
C) reading about why others were fired from the job.
D) observing the actions of others.
Q2) "Actions speak louder than words!" is an old saying that refers to the fact that people's actions-how they act as opposed to what they say-are often testament to their true ethical values.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Determining what is involved for a firm to be socially responsible
A) is easy.
B) varies even among those who are interested in corporate responsibility.
C) helps government officials develop appropriate legislation.
D) varies from industry to industry due to different laws.
Q4) Explain the difference between a compliance-based ethics code and an integrity-based ethics code.
Q5) Laws that protect us from fraud, theft, and violence determine ethical behavior.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rafael is a limited partner in an online clothing company. As a limited partner, Rafael can be involved with the company for a maximum of five years.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Public utilities, like electricity and water, are examples of quasi-public corporations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Beau has agreed to invest $19,000 in a partnership with his brother and sister-in-law. Not being in the same line of work as them, Beau does not intend to actively work in the partnership. He also does not want to risk any of his own assets other than the $19,000 investment. The partnership has agreed to permit him to share in the profits. As an expert on forms of business ownership, you know that Beau is a ________ in this partnership.
A) general partner
B) preferred stockholder
C) secondary partner
D) limited partner
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Sample Questions
Q1) Independence, challenge, and opportunity are among the key reasons given by those who assume the risks of entrepreneurship.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An entrepreneurial team consists of
A) managers with similar skills, abilities, and interests.
B) experienced professionals from different areas of business.
C) a group of wealthy investors who share a vision for a product.
D) representatives from management, labor, and the government who work together to solve a company's problems in a creative way.
Q3) The Small Business Administration's microloan program awards loans to entrepreneurs based primarily on their
A) collateral.
B) credit history.
C) previous business success.
D) integrity and sound business idea.
Q4) Discuss the benefits exporting offers to small businesses. Given these benefits, why don't more small firms sell in international markets?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following activities is part of the planning function of management?
A) Assigning a particular worker to do a specific task
B) Looking at market forecasts to identify future business opportunities and challenges
C) Praising a sales representative who has far exceeded her monthly sales objectives
D) Conducting a job interview with a potential new employee
Q2) Although top managers most often possess these skills, they usually make less use of ________ skills than supervisory managers.
A) technical
B) conceptual
C) human relations
D) empirical
Q3) The best way to get people to do what a manager wants is for the manager to reprimand those who don't do things correctly.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify and define the four key functions of management.
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Q1) Organizational culture refers to the widely shared values within a corporation that foster unity and cooperation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Josie recently took a job in the marketing department for Beachside Bagels and Bakery. After just a few days on the job, Josie learned that the company has many layers of management, and seems to have a rule to cover almost every situation. These conditions suggest that Beachside Bagels and Bakery is a(n)
A) cross-functional organization.
B) decentralized organization.
C) oligopolistic organization.
D) bureaucratic organization.
Q3) Fayol's principle of esprit de corps says that employees should be divided into small groups that can be directed efficiently by a single manager.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe two major issues that are important in organizational design.
Q5) Discuss Max Weber's views on organization theory.
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Q1) The value added by the creation of finished goods and services from inputs is called ownership utility.
A)True
B)False
Q2) American companies, like IBM, prefer to stay the course and continue to compete by selling products instead of services.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Milan is a production and operations manager for a fashion company. Lately, he has been researching a system that will allow his company to take precise measurements from a customer and program machines to design and produce custom-cut clothes at little additional cost. This type of system is an example of the benefits of A) mass production.
B) just-in-time production systems.
C) the PERT method.
D) CAD/CAM.
Q4) What are the ISO 9001 and ISO 14001 standards? Why are they important?
Q5) How are MRP and ERP similar? How do they differ?
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Q1) Herzberg's research found that improvements in the work environment were a more effective way to motivate employees than improvements in job content.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Often we hear that teenagers have unmet social needs. According to Maslow, their desire to become socially accepted will consume them, at the expense of reaching for higher goals, such as developing to their fullest potential.
A)True
B)False
Q3) List the generations in the workplace today, and provide at least two characteristics of each generation that affect their motivation.
Q4) Nash works for a landscaping business. His employer asked if he could work overtime this weekend to finish a job for a significant client. According to expectancy theory, Nash will want to compare the compensation or other rewards offered by his employer to the extra effort involved before he decides whether to agree to the job.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Though controversial, it is not uncommon for companies today to test their employees and job applicants for drug use.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to the Reaching Beyond Our Borders box, companies must consider a number of compensation-related issues for employees who work abroad. These may include currency conversion issues, special concessions such as travel and housing allowances, differences in health care standards in different countries, and even vacation benefits.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Computer and robotics training is sometimes performed in a nearby classroom-type setting. We refer to this near-the-job-training as
A) vestibule training.
B) orienteering.
C) apprenticeship training.
D) mentoring.
Q4) What is the purpose of a performance appraisal? What are the major steps involved in the performance appraisal process?
Page 13
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Q1) Small firms often offer innovative child care programs as a way of competing for qualified employees.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The process of bringing in an impartial third party to render a binding decision in a labor dispute is referred to as
A) resolution.
B) mediation.
C) arbitration.
D) confirmation.
Q3) In its early years, the AFL's strategy was to
A) grow as rapidly as possible by allowing people from all professions and walks of life to join.
B) limit its membership to skilled craftspeople.
C) limit its membership to unskilled and semiskilled workers.
D) form one big craft union which everyone could join; but it later split into several smaller organizations.
Q4) Identify and discuss three controversial employee-management issues.
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Q1) A focus group consists of a small group of people who meet, under the direction of a discussion leader, to communicate their opinions about an organization, its products, or other issues.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When Briana wants to obtain information to research changes in her market or determine what her customers are likely to want in the future, she relies on the articles and data available in trade journals, feedback from surveys, and personal interviews of her customers. Which of the following statements about Briana's sources of information is most accurate?
A) Briana is relying entirely on primary data for her research needs.
B) Briana is relying entirely on secondary data for her research.
C) The surveys and personal observations provide primary data, while the journals provide secondary data.
D) The surveys and personal observations provide secondary data, while the journals provide primary data.
Q3) A phone or online survey is an example of primary data collection.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) While the time in each stage may vary, all products progress through each stage of the product life cycle.
A)True B)False
Q2) Firms use brand managers or brand teams to give them greater control over both new-product development and product promotion.
A)True B)False
Q3) The image created by advertising is part of the total product offer of a product. A)True B)False
Q4) The apple is Apple Computer's A) generic name. B) label.
C) trademark. D) brand.
Q5) The critical component of a total product offer is always a low price. A)True B)False
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Q1) Which of the following activities would drop shippers be most likely to perform?
A) provide delivery services from a wholesaler's warehouse to a retailer's store
B) solicit orders from a retailer and arrange for the producer to make the deliveries
C) manage a large stock of items in a single product category, and make large volume shipments to other intermediaries using rail or truck
D) provide brokerage services by helping other wholesalers negotiate deals
Q2) Form utility has become the most important utility provided by retailers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ are limited-function wholesalers who furnish shelves full of merchandise to retailers who sell these items on consignment.
A) Cash-and-carry wholesalers
B) Rack jobbers
C) Merchandise forwarders
D) Consignment agents
Q4) Discount stores compete in the retail market mainly on the basis of price.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The primary purpose of a push strategy is to
A) push products on consumers and convince them that they need the products.
B) rush the production schedule for products and beat competitors to the market.
C) push the product down the distribution channel to retail stores.
D) push products away from traditional channels of distribution to save costs.
Q2) Global advertising can save companies money in research and ad design.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Direct mail, television, and newspapers are the top three advertising media when ranked by total expenditures.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Firms with a very limited advertising budget would be very unlikely to use ________ advertising.
A) Internet
B) radio
C) outdoor
D) television
Q5) Explain the difference between viral marketing, social networking, and podcasting.
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Q1) The job of reviewing and evaluating the information used to prepare a company's financial statements is referred to as auditing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Expenses a firm incurs for insurance, office salaries, and rent are classified as
A) selling expenses on an income statement.
B) general expenses on an income statement.
C) current liabilities on a balance sheet.
D) general expenses on a cash flow statement.
Q3) The most liquid asset is A) sales.
B) cash.
C) accounts payable.
D) owners' equity.
Q4) An independent audit is an evaluation and unbiased opinion about the accuracy of a company's financial statements.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A firm will choose to seek debt financing only for the purpose of paying for short-term operating needs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) There is actually a stronger relationship between finance and marketing than there is between finance and accounting.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Capital expenditures are major investments in long-term assets such as property and equipment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Forecasting means determining how closely the actual revenue and expense results matched up with the predicted revenues and expenses.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Budgets are prepared after the financial forecasts are developed.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Which of the following federal government agencies has responsibility for regulating the various stock exchanges in the U.S.?
A) SEC
B) NASDAQ
C) FCC
D) ICC
Q2) Issuing stock is considered equity financing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following securities are historically considered high quality and usually pay dividends?
A) dollar stocks
B) growth stocks
C) preferred stocks
D) blue chip stocks
Q4) One of the criticisms of the Dow Jones Industrial Average is that it does not include enough stocks to provide a good representation of the entire stock market.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The reserve requirement represents the Fed's most powerful tool for conducting monetary policy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During Red's time as head of the Bank of Bramblewood, the bank offered three services: time deposits, demand deposits, and home and business loans. Under Patty's leadership, the bank offers those same services, a variety of investment opportunities such as mutual funds and bonds, and ________ through the Internet, which supports a number of services such as paying bills directly from customers' accounts, direct deposit, and transferring money.
A) demand deposits
B) online banking
C) passbook banking
D) composite banking
Q3) The ________ insures deposits held in credit unions.
A) Federal Credit Insurance Agency (FCIA)
B) Credit Union Insurance Fund (CUIF)
C) Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC)
D) National Credit Union Administration (NCUA)
Q4) Identify and discuss the tools and products that electronically transfer funds.
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Q1) If Fairfield University violates its housing contract with a student, the student is prohibited from suing the university for damages because the contract was for the delivery of services rather than the delivery of goods.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Traditionally, taxes have been used as a source of funding for government operations and programs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Trademarks generally belong to the owner forever, as long as they are properly registered and renewed every 10 years.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The executive branch of the government is responsible for overseeing the legal system.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the difference between statutory law, common law, and business law.
Q6) Describe bankruptcy and three sections of the Bankruptcy Code.
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Q1) Over time, business technology has become much more sophisticated, but its basic application has remained to support the existing operations of businesses by providing key financial information.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A major problem with the rapid expansion in the amount of information available to managers is that
A) managers can become overwhelmed with too much information.
B) information costs are skyrocketing.
C) the capacities of computer hard drives and other storage media are no longer sufficient to store the huge volume of information being generated.
D) the need to gather this information has resulted in greater levels of bureaucracy.
Q3) Information is data that has been processed and organized so that it can be used for managerial decision making.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the four characteristics of useful information?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Brad has decided to increase the size of his auto repair business, although he realizes that this decision brings added risk. This is an example of ________ risk.
A) speculative
B) pure
C) insurable
D) managed
Q2) Liability losses result from property damage or injuries suffered by others for which the policyholder is held responsible.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An example of an uninsurable risk would be the potential losses suffered by Patrick's Pizza Pies resulting from a popular new product from Paulie's Pizza Palace.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Health savings accounts are managed care plans that have a high deductible.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain what makes the acceptance of risk possible for insurance companies.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Quinn is excited about getting her first credit card. However, she should be aware of the fact that
A) credit cards are no longer accepted in many places as a valid source of credit.
B) credit cards require that at least 25% of the balance be paid each month.
C) there will be a finance charge even if Hannah pays her entire credit card balance in full and on time.
D) the convenience of credit cards can lead to excessive debt.
Q2) Historically, the best place to invest has been in U.S. government savings bonds.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ insurance provides protection from the cost of medical care for illnesses and injuries.
A) Term
B) Health
C) Renters
D) Homeowner's
Q4) What are the advantages of investing in a home?
Q5) Compare the basic features of the traditional IRA and Roth IRA.
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