
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Business Communication explores the principles and practices of effective communication in a business context, emphasizing both written and oral skills essential for professional success. The course covers topics such as message development, audience analysis, report and proposal writing, persuasive communication, digital and social media, presentations, intercultural communication, and the dynamics of teamwork. By engaging in practical exercises and case studies, students develop the ability to convey ideas clearly, adapt to diverse audiences, manage conflict, and employ professional etiquette, all of which are critical for navigating the modern workplace and advancing in managerial roles.
Recommended Textbook
ORGB 5th Edition by Debra
L. Nelson
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18 Chapters
1128 Verified Questions
1128 Flashcards
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Q1) Which of the following organizational variables affects human behavior at work?
A)Performance appraisal
B)Technology utilization
C)Data interpretation
D)Objective knowledge
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following disciplines has shifted to issues involved in occupational health and well-being?
A)Medicine
B)Psychology
C)Sociology
D)Engineering
Answer: A
Q3) The study of organizational behavior is only concerned with the psychosocial dynamics in organizations.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Procedural justice concerns:
A)creativity and innovation.
B)organizational flexibility.
C)the fairness of the process by which outcomes are allocated.
D)the fairness of outcomes individuals receive.
Answer: C
Q2) _____ involves unwanted touching or repeated pressures for dates.
A)Sexual coercion
B)Unwanted sexual attention
C)Gender harassment
D)Sexual abuse
Answer: B
Q3) The _____ eliminated many of the tariffs, such as the heavy tariffs Mexico placed on U.S.exports, and provided that the remaining tariffs be phased out over time.
A)G-3 Free Trade Agreement
B)General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
C)North American Free Trade Agreement
D)ASEAN Free Trade Area
Answer: C
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Q1) Perceivers prefer flexible and spontaneous lives and like to keep options open.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Identify the basic propositions of interactional psychology.
Answer: Answers will vary.There are four basic propositions of interactional psychology: (1)Behavior is a function of a continuous, multidirectional interaction between the person and the situation.(2)The person is active in this process, both changing situations and being changed by them.(3)People vary in many characteristics, including cognitive, affective, motivational, and ability factors.(4)Two aspects of a situation are important: the objective situation and the person's subjective view of the situation.Please see the section "Individual Differences and Organizational Behavior" for more information.
Q3) Primacy effect occurs when we observe a very brief bit of a person's behavior in our first encounter and infer that this behavior reflects what the person is really like.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Individuals with high self-esteem are more likely to change their attitudes in response to persuasion than are individuals with low self-esteem.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Unlike the baby boomers, the baby busters:
A)value family life and time off from work.
B)have a work-oriented value system.
C)place a huge emphasis on achievement values at work.
D)embrace a live-to-work approach.
Q3) _____ motivates individuals to change either their attitudes or their behavior to maintain consistency.
A)Dissonance
B)Competence
C)Consonance
D)Cognition
Q4) Substantial social learning occurs through cognitive dissonance.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the three major characteristics of the source affect persuasion?
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Q1) Adams's theory of inequity suggests that people are motivated when they:
A)find themselves in situations of equity.
B)have a very high need for socialized power as opposed to personalized power.
C)satisfy organizational demands through a range of contributions.
D)find themselves in situations of unfairness.
Q2) In the context of Herzberg's two-factor theory, which of the following is true of hygiene factors?
A)They relate to job satisfaction.
B)They directly affect a person's drive to do a good job.
C)They challenge people to grow and invest themselves in an organization.
D)They are important to a certain level but unimportant beyond that threshold.
Q3) _____ organizes human needs into three basic categories: existence, relatedness, and growth.
A)The ERG theory of motivation
B)Expectancy theory
C)The two-Factor theory
D)McClelland's need theory
Q4) Briefly explain McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y.
Q5) What are some of the characteristics of high achievers?
Q6) Briefly identify and explain the two new ideas in motivation.
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Q1) In the context of rewarding performance, reward allocation:
A)involves sequential decisions about which people to reward, how to reward them, and when to reward them.
B)can bring about negative psychological, emotional, performance, or behavioral consequences, especially when applied too often.
C)provides opportunities for feedback about goal progress.
D)focuses attention on exactly what people have accomplished and how to reward them.
Q2) Briefly describe individual reward systems and team reward systems.
Q3) _____ employs three types of consequences: financial reinforcement, nonfinancial reinforcement, and social reinforcement to shape behavior in a variety of organizations.
A)Organizational citizenship behavior
B)Task-specific self-efficacy
C)Management by exception
D)Organizational behavior modification
Q4) Success in the mentoring relationship depends on openness and trust.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Role ambiguity is:
A)caused by opposing expectations related to a single role.
B)results from inconsistent or incompatible expectations.
C)concerned with the social psychology of stress.
D)the confusion a person experiences in relation to the expectations of others.
Q2) The final result of the role negotiation process should be a clear, well-defined focal role with which the incumbent and organizational members are all comfortable.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Males are more vulnerable at an earlier age to:
A)sexual harassment in the workplace.
B)fatal health problems such as cardiovascular disorders.
C)nonfatal but long-term health issues.
D)post-traumatic stress disorder.
Q4) Interrole conflict is caused by opposing expectations related to a single role. A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly describe the psychophysiology of the stress response.
Q6) Briefly describe the phenomenon of stress with respect to the workplace.
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Q1) An effect of computer-mediated communication is that:
A)the verbal cues that help to decipher a message are absent.
B)interpersonal skills tend to be less blunt.
C)the likelihood to flame, or make rude comments, is increased.
D)polyphasic activity is discouraged.
Q2) Polyphasic activity is:
A)the study of space in nonverbal communication.
B)the study of seating arrangements.
C)conducting face-to-face conversations with at least two people.
D)doing more than one thing at a time, or multitasking.
Q3) Two-way communication is faster than one-way communication and should be used in an emergency situation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n)_____ is an example of computer-mediated communication.
A)policy manual
B)e-mail
C)operation manual
D)form
Q5) Explain how language is a potential barrier to communication.
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Q1) According to the group development model proposed by Warren Bennis and Herbert Shepard, the task issues that are addressed by a group include:
A)decisions about who is in charge.
B)matters of trust.
C)the mission of the group.
D)matters of security.
Q2) Identify and briefly discuss the four distinguishing characteristics of a mature (well-functioning)group.
Q3) Different task functions vary in importance throughout the life cycle of a group. A)True B)False
Q4) Psychological intimacy is closeness achieved through tasks and activities. A)True B)False
Q5) Team members might exercise care in timing the insertion of their novel ideas into the team process so as to maximize the positive impact and benefits. A)True B)False
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Q1) Bounded rationality assumes that managers _____ because the costs of optimizing in terms of time and effort are too great.
A)satisfice
B)optimize
C)examine facts and details
D)reject heuristics
Q2) Time orientation does not affect the frame of reference of a decision.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Individuals with higher self-esteem and those who are given an opportunity to affirm an important value are less likely to de-escalate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Alex, a manager at WizzWare Inc., is in charge of making a decision about merging with another company.This decision is a _____.
A)programmed decision
B)simple decision
C)routine decision
D)nonprogrammed decision
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Q1) In the context of positive versus negative power, which of the following is true of dissenters?
A)They can serve as checks on powerful people outside an organization.
B)They can prevent the exposure of wrongdoings within an organization.
C)They can sway employees in favor of an organization.
D)They can create a climate conducive to the ethical use of power.
Q2) Which of the following is a guideline for the ethical use of legitimate power?
A)Managers should act confident and decisive.
B)Managers should fit punishment to the infraction.
C)Managers should enforce compliance.
D)Managers should be oblivious to subordinates' concerns.
Q3) Anne, a manager, increases the salary of Susan, one of her employees, by 30 percent because she likes Susan.But for the others, she increases the salary by only 20 percent.In this scenario, Anne's behavior is unethical as it violates the criteria of:
A)individual rights.
B)utilitarian outcomes.
C)distributive justice.
D)principled dissent.
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Q1) What are the characteristics of an effective follower?
Q2) _____ in organizations is the process of guiding and directing the behavior of people in the work environment.
A)Principled dissent
B)Strategic contingency
C)Management
D)Leadership
Q3) With regard to leader _____, attention has been devoted to such constructs as social skills, intelligence, scholarship, speech fluency, cooperativeness, and insight.
A)personalities
B)abilities
C)relationships
D)attitudes
Q4) Which of the following is true of women managers?
A)They are less likely to use a people-oriented style.
B)They are dependent on position power to be effective leaders.
C)They make poor decisions and lose their effectiveness in stressful situations.
D)They tend to use a more people-oriented style that is inclusive and empowering.
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Q1) Conflict between groups leads to decreased competition.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the context of intrapersonal conflicts, the individuals who place expectations on a person are _____.
A)role producers
B)role delegators
C)role incumbents
D)role senders
Q3) Which of the following is a cause of conflict related to an organization's structure?
A)Authority relations
B)Skills and abilities
C)Values and ethics
D)Perceptions
Q4) Administrative orbiting and secrecy are very effective conflict reduction techniques.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly explain the types of intrapersonal conflict.
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Q1) The _____ to job design emphasizes a person's interaction with physical aspects of the work environment and is concerned with the amount of physical exertion required.
A)biological approach
B)scientific management approach
C)job enlargement approach
D)motivational approach
Q2) Identify a true statement about job sharing.
A)It is common among senior executives.
B)It enables employees to set their own daily work schedules.
C)It is a way of addressing demographic and labor pool concerns.
D)It helps ease traffic and commuting pressures.
Q3) According to the Job Characteristics Model, _____ is the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work.
A)autonomy
B)task significance
C)feedback
D)task identity
Q4) Identify and briefly describe a few recently developed alternative work patterns.
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Q1) As the level of formalization increases in an organization, the probability of _____ also increases.
A)environmental uncertainty and risk
B)strategic moves being incremental and precise
C)the decision process being goal-oriented and rational
D)the strategic process being constrained by the limitations of top managers
Q2) To meet the conflicting demands of efficiency and customization, organizations need to:
A)strategically choose one or the other.
B)adopt a tall organizational structure.
C)minimize routineness.
D)become dynamically stable.
Q3) Besides the obvious geographic differences associated with globalization, there may be deep cultural and value-system differences between the various countries that an organization operates in.
A)True
B)False
Q4) As an organization's size increases, its complexity decreases.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Identify a true statement about strong cultures.
A)Strong cultures typically lead a firm down the wrong path.
B)Strong cultures are deeply held and widely shared.
C)Strong cultures provide control with the oppressive effects of a bureaucracy.
D)Strong cultures create a low level of motivation among employees.
Q2) Norms that guide behavior are part of culture.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ involve the expectations placed on newcomers in an organization.
A)Role demands
B)Rituals
C)Rites of passage
D)Task analyses
Q4) The strong-culture perspective states that organizations with strong cultures:
A)promote different individual goals for each employee.
B)have low turnover.
C)facilitate performance.
D)tend to be bureaucratic.
Q5) List a few ways how leaders deal with crises.
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Q1) During the _____, one's own mortality becomes a major concern, and the loss of family members and friends becomes more frequent.
A)adulthood transition
B)late adulthood transition
C)elderly transition
D)age-fifty transition
Q2) The Age Discrimination in Employment Act prohibits:
A)discrimination against workers under twenty-years of age.
B)discrimination against workers under thirty-years of age.
C)discrimination against new entrants.
D)discrimination against older workers.
Q3) Why is it important to know one's career anchor?
Q4) Levinson's life stages are characterized by:
A)a continuous stage of stagnancy.
B)a continuous stage of stability in career.
C)an alternating pattern of stability and transition.
D)the study of child psychology.
Q5) Briefly discuss the differences between the new and old meaning of career.
Q6) How can the stress and strains of a dual-career situation be reduced?
Q7) How are career anchors modified?
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Q1) Health promotion programs are a group-focused technique for organization development intervention.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Kurt Lewin's change model is based on the idea of diagnosis and needs analysis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The protesting of a work group against an increase in working hours is an internal force for change.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify a group-focused technique for organization development intervention.
A)Leadership training and development programs
B)Product and service quality programs
C)Health promotion programs
D)Career-planning activities
Q5) Why is management by objectives (MBO)considered a valuable intervention?
Q6) Coaching is always done in a one-on-one manner.
A)True
B)False

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