Business Administration
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Business Administration encompasses the principles, practices, and tools required to effectively manage organizations and drive business success. This course introduces students to core concepts such as management, marketing, finance, accounting, and operations, while also exploring strategy, leadership, and organizational behavior. Through real-world case studies and hands-on projects, students develop critical thinking and problem-solving skills essential for decision-making in complex, dynamic environments. By the end of the course, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how various business functions interact and are prepared to pursue further specialization or enter the workforce with foundational managerial competencies.
Recommended Textbook
Project Management Achieving Competitive Advantage 4th Edition by Jeffrey K. Pinto
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14 Chapters
1421 Verified Questions
1421 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction: Why Project Management?
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103 Verified Questions
103 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/7271
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these is NOT characteristic of a project?
A) Projects are responsible for the newest and most improved products, services, and organizational processes.
B) Projects are ad hoc endeavors with a clear life cycle.
C) Projects provide a philosophy and strategy for the management of change.
D) Traditional process management functions of planning, organizing, and controlling do not apply to project management.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of these factors are essentially complete opposites from an intensity perspective across the project life cycle?
A) Client Interest and Uncertainty
B) Creativity and Resources
C) Uncertainty and Project Stake
D) Project Stake and Client Interest
Answer: C
Q3) Product life cycles are longer now than twenty years ago.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Organizational Context:
Strategy,Structure,and Culture
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103 Verified Questions
103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Creating action plans to address the needs of various stakeholder groups is part of the ________ step of Block's framework for stakeholder management.
A) define the problem
B) test and refine the solutions
C) develop solutions
D) identify the goals of the principal actors
Answer: C
Q2) The PMO is used to protect and support the skill of project management under the:
A) Resource pool model.
B) Weather station model.
C) Control tower model.
D) Project model.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is an external stakeholder group?
A) Project team members
B) Top management
C) Internal accountants
D) Environmental groups
Answer: D
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Project Selection and Portfolio Management
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99 Verified Questions
99 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Souder's model selection criterion that encourages ease of adaptation to changes in tax laws,building codes,among others,is called:
A) Ease of use.
B) Cost.
C) Capability.
D) Flexibility.
Answer: D
Q2) An expert's opinion on an issue may be subjective but very accurate.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The pairwise comparison approach:
A) Is a method to split the weights assigned to subcriteria.
B) Is a method to compare pairs of hierarchies prior to any further analysis.
C) Is a means of achieving all project objectives within the allocated time frame.
D) May be used instead of AHP if time is limited.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Leadership and the Project Manager
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101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A project manager may also be the project champion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One way to distinguish the two roles is to realize that leaders aim for efficiency while managers aim for effectiveness.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The number one flaw that makes a project manager a poor leader is setting a bad example.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Projects are often underfunded in the concept stage because:
A) The project requirements were deliberately understated.
B) There is complete trust in project managers by top management so more resources can be asked for at any time.
C) The project's goals are too clearly defined.
D) The project's top management sponsor is too influential.
Q5) What can a project manager do to motivate project team members?
Q6) Why are projects often underfunded in the concept stage?
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Chapter 5: Scope Management
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103 Verified Questions
103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What takes place at the project closeout step?
Q2) Systems for monitoring the project's scope,schedule,and costs during the design stage fall under the heading of:
A) Configuration control.
B) Acquisition control.
C) Design control.
D) Specification control.
Q3) When a supporting document functions as a project control device throughout the project's development,it is NOT prepared in advance:
A) Due to time constraints.
B) As it is a dynamic document.
C) Since micromanaging can occur.
D) Because control devices are left to project completion.
Q4) What are three common elements in most work authorization contracts?
Q5) The highest level of work breakdown structure is the:
A) Project.
B) Deliverable.
C) Subdeliverable.
D) Work package.
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Chapter 6: Project Team Building,Conflict,and Negotiation
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) High turnover among project team members is a key element of success since new team members will bring fresh perspectives and ideas to the group.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are the stages in group development and what project management behaviors are exhibited in each stage?
Q3) The BEST source of troubleshooting for problems is the:
A) Project team.
B) Project manager.
C) Project customer.
D) Project champion.
Q4) During the two hours before their 7:30 p.m.appointments on Wednesday evenings,the operations team had a weekly gripe session during which everyone gleefully unloaded on the powers that controlled their miserable lives.This session was valuable since it:
A) Allowed them to feel like real men, if only for a little while.
B) Rewarded good behavior.
C) Established a sense of security and consistency.
D) Created a clear process for addressing conflict and group norms.
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Chapter 7: Risk Management
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A project team assigns probabilities of 0.1,0.2,and 0.4 respectively to the maturity,complexity,and dependency categories.The probability of failure can be calculated as:
A) 0.23.
B) 0.33.
C) 0.65.
D) 0.70.
Q2) Which of these statements about the project risk analysis and management program is BEST?
A) Risk management is best handled using an ad hoc approach.
B) If a choice between accepting and transferring risk presents itself, risk should be transferred.
C) The project manager should choose a small subset of all risk management tools.
D) Multiple approaches to risk management should be integrated into a coherent, synthesized approach.
Q3) There are four alternatives a project organization can adopt in deciding how to address their risks.Develop four different scenarios,one each for which each of the alternatives would be appropriate.Justify your selections.
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9
Chapter 8: Cost Estimation and Budgeting
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) It took 44 hours of analysis to complete the first phase,but the second phase was done in 42 hours.If this learning rate continues,then the 8th analysis should take a mere:
A) 36 hours and 26 minutes, give or take.
B) 37 hours and 36 minutes, give or take.
C) 38 hours and 16 minutes, give or take.
D) 39 hours and 6 minutes, give or take.
Q2) What are four major categories of costs? Provide descriptions for each category.
Q3) A systems analyst is paid at the rate of $50/hour and will be needed for 40 hours.Her employer uses an overhead multiplier of 60% and does not factor in personal time.Her total direct labor cost should be billed at:
A) $2,000.
B) $3,200.
C) $1,250.
D) $4,500.
Q4) Which of these estimates should be the most accurate?
A) Parametric
B) Definitive
C) Comparative
D) Order of magnitude
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Chapter 9: Project Scheduling: Networks,Duration
Estimation,and Critical Path
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Use the network diagram and activity lengths in the nodes to determine the early finish time for activity G.
A) 26
B) 25
C) 24
D) 23
Q2) What are three methods of duration estimation for project activities and what are the advantages and disadvantages of each method?
Q3) Discuss any five approaches to reducing the critical path.Which is the most effective and which is the most difficult to achieve? Why?
Q4) What is the background of CPM and PERT? What are the differences between the two techniques?
Q5) Activity float is the difference between the late finish and early finish for the activity in question.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What are hammock activities and when should they be used?
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Project Scheduling: Lagging, Crashing, and Activity Networks
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96 Verified Questions
96 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Networks are adaptable and useful for all scheduling challenges that an organization faces.
A)True
B)False
Q2) For large projects,network diagrams are more useful if they are completely detailed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are the three principal methods for accelerating a project and under what circumstances might these methods yield little gain?
Q4) The process of accelerating a project is referred to as:
A) Streamlining.
B) Expediting.
C) Rushing.
D) Crashing.
Q5) Which of these approaches will NOT accelerate the completion of a project?
A) Improve the productivity of existing project resources.
B) Increase the bureaucratic oversight.
C) Improve the working method.
D) Increase the quantity of personnel and equipment.
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Chapter 11: Advanced Topics in Planning and Scheduling:
Agile and Critical Chain
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101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A feeder buffer is a buffer that is created for a non-critical path activity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which statement about critical chain methodology is BEST?
A) Activity durations estimated at a 50% level of successful completion are shorter than those estimated at a 90% level of successful completion.
B) Aggregated activity durations at a 90% level of successful completion are shorter than aggregated activity durations at a 50% level of successful completion.
C) The total safety buffer for aggregated activity durations is smaller than the sum of safety buffers for individual activity durations at any likely level estimate.
D) None of these statements is correct.
Q3) In Agile Project Management,a sprint backlog is essentially a:
A) Period of time.
B) Punch list.
C) Forecast.
D) Meeting.
Q4) What are the formal steps to apply CCPM to multiple project portfolios?
Q5) Compose a haiku using three or more of the key terms in Agile PM.
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Chapter 12: Resource Management
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99 Verified Questions
99 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consider the project that is neatly summarized in this table.What are the top two priority activities when using the smallest duration leveling heuristic? \[\begin{array} { | l | l | l | l | }
\hline \text { Activity } & \text { Duration } & \text { Predecessors } & \text { Workers Required } \\
\hline \text { A } & 2 & - & 3 \\
\hline \text { B } & 4 & \text { A } & 4 \\
\hline \text { D } & 6 & \text { A } & 2 \\
\hline \text { E } & 7 & \text { B } & 5 \\
\hline
\end{array}\]
A) B and C
B) A and B
C) C and E
D) A and E
Q2) What is mathematical programming,how can it be applied to resource decisions,and what are the advantages and disadvantages of doing so?
Q3) Describe resource leveling; its objectives and the basic five-step technique to perform it.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Project Evaluation and Control
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Use the S-curve to choose the BEST statement about the project it describes.The horizontal axis is in weeks.
A) The total project costs in week 10 are less than budgeted.
B) The total project costs in week 10 exceed the budgeted cost.
C) The project cost more from weeks 25 through 30 than it did in weeks 10 through 15.
D) The total amount spent on the project at the end of the 20th week is approximately $30,000.
Q2) Your organization is in the midst of a project in uncharted waters; nothing you have attempted before comes close to many of the activities that are necessary to bring this project to completion.Your earned value management should probably be tracked closely with a percentage complete rule in increments of 5 to 10 percent.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A project manager needs the work breakdown structure and a time-phased project budget to establish the project baseline.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Project Closeout and Termination
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101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What purpose does a final project report serve? What are the major elements of the final project report and what information should be contained in each one?
Q2) A mainframe computer company decided to enter the personal computer market with its Floridian Project,but subsequently decided to leave the market to focus on the mainframe business.The decision rule that they probably applied was to get out:
A) When the project no longer meets strategic fit criteria.
B) When deadlines continue to be missed.
C) When project personnel turn over too rapidly.
D) When technology evolves beyond the project's scope.
Q3) What is the difference between natural termination and unnatural termination of a project? Provide an example of each.
Q4) What are any four items that prevent effective project closeouts and how can each be avoided?
Q5) What are the four major categories in the work breakdown structure for project termination? Provide examples of specific tasks within each of these four categories.
Q6) Review the project sign-off documents contained in Appendix 14.1.How can these forms be improved?
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Page 16