Brand Management
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Brand Management explores the strategies and processes involved in building, maintaining, and strengthening brands in competitive markets. The course covers foundational concepts such as brand equity, brand positioning, and brand architecture, while also addressing contemporary challenges related to digital branding and global brand stewardship. Students learn to evaluate brand performance, create strategic branding plans, and manage brand communications to foster customer loyalty and long-term business success. Through case studies and practical projects, participants develop skills to manage brands effectively in diverse industries.
Recommended Textbook Framework for Marketing Management 6th Edition by Philip T. Kotler
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18 Chapters
1440 Verified Questions
1440 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Defining Marketing for the New Realities
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80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define internal marketing and its role in the company. Outline how various departments within the company can demonstrate a customer focus.
Answer: Internal marketing is the task of hiring, training, and motivating able employees who want to serve customers well. Internal marketing must take place on two levels. At one level, the various marketing functions must work together. At the second level, other departments must embrace marketing and a "think customer" attitude.
Q2) In an attempt to create greater competition and growth opportunities, countries often ________.
A) increase trade barriers
B) protect industries
C) deregulate industries
D) encourage intermediation
E) reduce privatization
Answer: C
Q3) Attracting tourists to Wisconsin is an example of marketing properties.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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3
Chapter 2: Developing and Implementing Marketing Strategies and Plans
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Sample Questions
Q1) Angelo made the decision to outsource the software components of his consulting company so he could focus on the company's ________, which are sources of competitive advantage, make a contribution to perceived customer benefits, have application in a wide variety of markets, and are difficult to imitate.
A) core competencies
B) infrastructure
C) market-sensing processes
D) fulfillment management processes
E) outbound logistics
Answer: A
Q2) Michael Porter draws a firm distinction between operational effectiveness and a strategy. Briefly describe this distinction, and identify when a company can claim that it has a strategy.
Answer: Competitors can quickly copy the operationally effective company using benchmarking and other tools, thus diminishing the advantage of operational effectiveness. Porter defines strategy as "the creation of a unique and valuable position involving a different set of activities." A company can claim that it has a strategy when its activities differ from those of its rivals or performs similar activities in different ways.
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Capturing Marketing Insights and Forecasting Demand
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because customers are not really concerned with timely delivery, customers are unlikely to differentiate between firms based on their order-to-payment cycles.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) James collected primary data when he distributed a survey to dorm residents to discover their attitudes and opinions on campus life.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) ________ provide diagnostic information about how and why we observe certain effects in the marketplace, and what that means to marketers.
A) Marketing insights
B) Marketing metrics
C) Marketing channels
D) Marketing information systems
E) Marketing-mix models
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Creating Long-Term Loyalty Relationships
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Sample Questions
Q1) A customer's profitability is judged on the basis of the lifetime stream of revenue and cost, not the profit from a particular transaction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ can be defined as a deeply held commitment to rebuy or repatronize a preferred product or service in the future despite situational influences and marketing efforts having the potential to cause switching behavior.
A) Value proposition
B) Loyalty
C) Satisfaction
D) Respect
E) Customer value
Q3) Total customer satisfaction is measured based on the relationship of ________.
A) expected value and total customer benefit
B) perceived performance and expectation
C) advertised outcomes and real outcomes
D) past experience and present experience
E) customer attitude and salesperson's attitude
Q4) According to IBM, what do firms need to do to exploit the power of social media?
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Chapter 5: Analyzing Consumer and Business Markets
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80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is True for business marketers?
A) They deal with more and larger buyers than consumer marketers.
B) They deal with more and smaller buyers than consumer marketers.
C) They deal with fewer and larger buyers than consumer marketers.
D) They deal with fewer and smaller buyers than consumer marketers.
E) They deal with the same kind of buyers as consumer marketers.
Q2) As a consumer gathers information about purchase alternatives, the number of alternatives decreases as he advances through four sets of brands before reaching a decision. What are those four sets?
Q3) The starting point for understanding consumer behavior is the ________ model in which marketing and environmental stimuli enter the consumer's consciousness, and a set of psychological processes combine with certain consumer characteristics to result in decision processes and purchase decisions.
A) self-reliance
B) self-perception
C) psychogenic
D) stimulus-response
E) projective
Q4) List the seven roles of people in a buying center.
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Chapter 6: Identifying Market Segments and Targets
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about Gen Xers is True?
A) Gen Xers are often willing to change brands.
B) Gen Xers are selective, confident, and impatient.
C) Gen Xers are socially conscious and concerned about the environment.
D) Gen Xers prize self-sufficiency and are pragmatic.
E) Technology is a barrier for Gen Xers.
Q2) Demographic variables are popular because they are often associated with consumer needs and wants and they are easy to measure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An attractive niche consists of customers having a distinct set of needs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Briefly describe product specialization and market specialization.
Q5) List the five forces identified by Michael Porter that determine the intrinsic long-run attractiveness of a market or market segment.
Q6) Identify ways in which shopping behaviors differ between men and women.
Q7) Describe the PRIZM method of segmenting consumer markets.
Q8) Briefly describe the characteristics of the Millennials.
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Chapter 7: Crafting the Brand Positioning and Competing
Effectively
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Positioning requires that marketers define and communicate only the differences between their brand and its competitors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Belling is a chain of coffee shops. Give an example of a category point-of-parity and a competitive point-of-parity for the company.
Q3) Perdue's cogent reason why a target market should buy its chicken is "More tender golden chicken at a moderate premium price," also known as its ________.
A) customer-focused value proposition
B) competitive frame of reference
C) points-of-parity
D) straddle positioning
E) perceptual map
Q4) There are three key consumer criteria that determine whether a brand association can truly function as a point-of-difference. When the Westin Stamford hotel in Singapore advertised that it was the world's tallest hotel, it attempted to create a point-of-difference (POD). Discuss whether this attempt to create a POD would be likely to succeed.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Creating Brand Equity and Driving Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) An important part of reinforcing brands is providing uniform and unchanging marketing support.
A)True
B)False
Q2) With respect to powerful brand elements, ________ is an extremely efficient means to build brand equity. This element functions as a useful "hook" to help consumers grasp what the brand is and what makes it special.
A) the tangibility of a product
B) a product's shape
C) a slogan
D) a patent
E) a copyright
Q3) ________ are a means of understanding where, how much, and in what ways brand value is being created to facilitate day-to-day decision making.
A) Internal marketing campaigns
B) Brand portfolio audits
C) Brand value chains
D) Sales cycles
E) Brand-tracking studies
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Setting Product Strategy and Introducing New Offerings
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most closely related with the organic growth of an organization?
A) acquiring a product or service brand
B) entering new market places
C) increasing the operational profitability
D) increasing productivity of employees
E) developing new products from within
Q2) Identify the five main characteristics that affect the diffusion of innovations. Describe each and provide an example.
Q3) Smith & Adams Poultry set up a computer system so that its customers (restaurants and hotels) can directly inform its central supply system about purchase volumes and dates, as well as automatically receive confirmation of orders and shipments. This is an example of a company differentiating its service in terms of ________.
A) customer relationships
B) customer training
C) installation
D) delivery ease
E) ordering ease
Q4) Identify the major reasons why new product failures occur.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Designing and Managing Services
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Sample Questions
Q1) Services high in ________ qualities are those services that have characteristics that the buyer normally finds hard to evaluate even after consumption.
A) trial
B) search
C) experience
D) privacy
E) credence
Q2) The most important determinant of service quality is ________ which refers to the ability to perform the promised service dependably and accurately.
A) empathy
B) assurance
C) responsiveness
D) reliability
E) tangibles
Q3) Value-augmenting services include installation, staff training, maintenance and repair services, and financing.
A)True
B)False
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12
Chapter 11: Developing Pricing Strategies and Programs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Loss leader pricing dilutes a company's brand image.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When consumers examine products, they often compare an observed price to an internal price they remember. This is known as a(n) ________ price.
A) markup
B) reference
C) market-skimming
D) accumulated
E) target
Q3) Prices that end in 9 are most appropriate when ________.
A) customers have substantial knowledge about quality
B) customers process prices right to left
C) there is a mental price break at the lower, rounded price
D) the marketer wants to suggest a discount or bargain
E) the marketer wants to convey a high-price image
Q4) What circumstances lead companies to initiate price cuts, and what are the traps that companies can fall into if they do?
Q5) What are the different types of price discounts and allowances?
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Chapter 12: Designing and Managing Integrated Marketing Channels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the distribution challenges and opportunities that international markets pose.
Q2) Which marketing channel is associated with the highest value added per sale?
A) retail stores
B) sales force
C) distributors
D) Internet
E) telemarketing
Q3) Companies are trying to give their customers more control over their shopping experiences by bringing Web technologies into the store via mobile apps.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a standard that producers would use to evaluate intermediaries' performance?
A) sales-quota attainment
B) average inventory levels
C) modification of channel design
D) customer delivery time
E) cooperation in promotional programs
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Chapter 13: Managing Retailing, Wholesaling, and Logistics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A factory outlet is an example of a(n) ________ retailer.
A) off-price
B) specialty
C) discount
D) department
E) catalog
Q2) An independent retailer using a central buying organization and joint promotion efforts with other retailers is part of a ________.
A) corporate chain store
B) voluntary chain
C) retailer cooperative
D) merchandising conglomerate
E) franchise organization
Q3) "Pop-up" stores let retailers promote brands to seasonal shoppers for a limited time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Differentiate between brokers and agents.
Q5) Describe how retailers and manufacturers are employing shopper marketing.
Q6) What activities are involved in an integrated logistics system?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Designing and Managing Integrated Marketing Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ refer to the marketing communications element that involves company-sponsored activities and programs designed to create daily or special brand-related interactions with consumers.
A) Publicity campaigns
B) Trade promotions
C) Advertisements
D) Public relations
E) Events and experiences
Q2) ________ refers to the means by which firms attempt to inform, persuade, and remind consumers-directly or indirectly-about the products and brands they sell.
A) Human resource development
B) Marketing communications
C) Financial management
D) Operations management
E) Planning
Q3) Provide a general description of the classic response hierarchy models and two alternatives.
Q4) What is integrated marketing communications? What is its significance in the current marketing environment?
Page 16
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Sample Questions
Q1) When Fred sends in the box top from his cereal to receive a free DVD of a cartoon featuring one of his favorite characters, he is responding to a ________.
A) self-liquidating premium
B) with-pack premium
C) reduced-price pack
D) banded pack
E) free in-the-mail premium
Q2) Which of the following types of advertising timing patterns calls for spending all advertising dollars in a single period?
A) frequency capping
B) flighting
C) concentration
D) pulsing
E) continuity
Q3) A public is any group that has an actual or potential interest in or impact on a company's ability to achieve its objectives.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Managing Digital Communications: Online, Social Media, and Mobile
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Sample Questions
Q1) Only four percent of online content cascades to more than one person beyond the initial recipient.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What makes mobile devices important as a communication tool for marketers?
Q3) P&G's Vocalpoint is a group built on the premise that highly engaged individuals do not want to be bothered with learning about products.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A recent Nielsen survey found that online customer reviews were the most trusted source of brand information.
A)True
B)False
Q5) According to researchers, what steps can improve the likelihood of starting positive buzz?
Q6) How should marketers adapt their messages for mobile marketing to make them effective?
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Q7) What is viral marketing? Give an example of a Web site where user-generated content is sometimes shared widely.
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Chapter 17: Managing Personal Communications: Direct and Database Marketing and Personal Selling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Direct mail permits target market selectivity and allows early testing and response measurement.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ helps sales representatives understand how they spend their time and how they might increase their productivity.
A) Time-and-duty analysis
B) A sales quota
C) A feed-forward approach
D) An expense allowance
E) A norm for prospect calls
Q3) Key indicators of sales performance include all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) average number of sales calls per salesperson per day
B) average revenue per sales call
C) advanced marketing cost per sales call
D) average cost per sales call
E) entertainment cost per sales call
Q4) What are the elements of a direct-mail offer?
Q5) What are the five elements of an offer strategy in direct marketing?
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Chapter 18: Tapping Into Global Markets
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Sample Questions
Q1) Companies that produce many products for many markets may adopt a ________ marketing organization.
A) flat
B) brand
C) product
D) matrix
E) top-down
Q2) What are the basic criteria that a country should possess in order to be a viable and attractive investment destination?
Q3) A well-known producer of breakfast cereals has decided to hire producers in different countries so that the cereals marketed under their brand are locally produced in the respective countries. This would not only appeal more to consumers who preferred domestically produced goods, but would also create jobs in the host-country enhancing the brand's image further. This is an example of ________.
A) licensing
B) direct exporting
C) indirect exporting
D) direct investment
E) joint ownership
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