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Brand Management explores the strategies and processes involved in building, maintaining, and enhancing strong brands in competitive markets. The course covers key concepts such as brand equity, brand positioning, brand identity, and brand architecture, as well as tactics for brand communication and leveraging digital media. Students will analyze real-world brand case studies, develop brand plans, and learn how brands create value for both businesses and consumers. Emphasis is placed on strategic decision-making and long-term brand sustainability in a global and ever-changing marketplace.
Recommended Textbook
Advertising and Promotion
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Q1) _____ is a promotional mix element that allows for direct contact between a buyer and seller and allows a message to be modified according to the needs or reactions of the customer.
A)Advertising
B)Sales promotion
C)Public relations
D)Publicity
E)Personal selling
Answer: E
Q2) According to Tom Duncan's basic categories of contact or touch points, which of the following best describes interactions that occur with a company or brand during the process of buying or using the product or service?
A)intrinsic touch points
B)company-created touch points
C)unexpected touch points
D)customer-initiated touch points
E)distributive touch points
Answer: A
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Q1) The strong brand images of Apple, Samsung, Nike, BMW, and McDonald's give them a ___________________ in their respective markets.
A)competitive advantage
B)market opportunity
C)micro advantage
D)macro analysis
E)marketing challenge
Answer: A
Q2) Directing a company's efforts toward one or more groups of customers who share common needs is known as
A)cross-merchandising.
B)competitor indexing.
C)mass customization.
D)target marketing.
E)cross-branding.
Answer: D
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Q1) _____ are the individuals in the creative services department of an ad agency who conceive the ideas for the ads and compose the advertising message.
A)Copywriters
B)Art directors
C)Account planners
D)Account executives
E)Media planners
Answer: A
Q2) _____ are agencies that specialize in offering services, such as database management, and the ability to create, produce, and disseminate different types of communications that go straight to target customers.
A)Digital-interactive agencies
B)Sales promotion agencies
C)Direct-marketing agencies
D)Public relations firms
E)Creative boutiques
Answer: C
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Q1) After purchasing a fancy-cut diamond ring for his wife, Jason feels dissatisfied with his purchase as he feels that the ring was overpriced and poorly cut.Moreover, Jason feels that he should have selected the round brilliant-cut diamond rather than the fancy-cut diamond.In this scenario, Jason is experiencing
A)impact bias.
B)cognitive dissonance.
C)psychosocial heurism.
D)belief-bias effect.
E)overregularization.
Q2) With respect to the consumer decision-making process, which of the following stages can be considered as an immediate outcome of the alternative evaluation stage?
A)information search
B)problem recognition
C)purchase decision
D)postpurchase evaluation
E)elaborative rehearsal
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Q1) Research on the elaboration likelihood model (ELM) has shown that
A)celebrities are effective peripheral cues in a high-involvement situation.
B)celebrity endorsers have a significant effect on brand attitudes in low-involvement situations.
C)the quality of message arguments is likely to be very important in low-involvement situations.
D)the quality of message claims is always less likely to be persuasive than the status of celebrity endorsers.
E)peripheral cues are more important than detailed messages in high-involvement situations.
Q2) According to the AIDA model, a prospective consumer first passes through the _____ stage.
A)attention
B)comprehension
C)interest
D)desire
E)action
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Q1) Advertisers can protect themselves against overexposure
A)by hiring more than one celebrity for endorsing a particular brand.
B)with an exclusivity clause limiting the number of products a celebrity can endorse.
C)by attempting to match the characteristics of the target market with the personality of a celebrity.
D)by creating celebrity advertisements that generate counterarguments.
E)by hiring common consumers instead of celebrities to feature in their commercials.
Q2) A magazine advertisement reads, "Is it just forgetfulness or Alzheimer's disease?" and then lists the warning signs of Alzheimer's, stating its strongest point first to gain reader attention on a subject that most people would rather not consider.The rest of the ad describes a new prescription medicine to treat mild and moderate cases of Alzheimer's.The advertisement uses a _____ to arouse interest.
A)primacy effect
B)recency effect
C)sleeper effect
D)credibility effect
E)compliance hierarchy
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Q1) To set an advertising budget, a marketer of filing cabinets examines advertising-to-sales ratios published in trade magazines and then allocates a percentage of sales dollars to the advertising effort.Which two budgeting methods are being employed?
A)competitive parity and percentage-of-sales methods
B)competitive parity and payout planning methods
C)payout planning and percentage-of-sales methods
D)percentage-of-sales and objective and task methods
E)payout planning and arbitrary allocation methods
Q2) In the social consumer decision journey, the final objective, amplification, deals with designing the communications program, particularly as it relates to social media, to take the consumer to long-term behavioral changes.
A)True B)False
Q3) The competitive parity method takes advantage of the collective wisdom of the industry.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the relevance of ads is true?
A)Brand-to-consumer relevance refers to situations in which the ad contains execution elements that are meaningful to consumers.
B)Ad-to-consumer relevance refers to situations in which the advertised brand of a product or service is of personal interest to consumers.
C)Brand-to-consumer relevance could be achieved through making use of celebrities with whom consumers identify.
D)Relevance reflects the degree to which an advertisement provides information or an image that is pertinent to the brand.
E)Relevance is best defined as the extent to which an ad contains elements that are novel, different, or unusual.
Q2) Ads for products such as fashionable clothing, jewelry, and liquor often provide specific product information rather than relying on visual images to deliver their message.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) _____ is an advertising execution technique often used for emotional appeals.It offers viewers a form of mental escape and/or an opportunity to envision themselves in a certain situation.
A)Imagery
B)Demonstration
C)Slice of life
D)Animation
E)Comparative advertising
Q2) Subway Restaurant's "Five-dollar foot-long" catchy song, or _____________, has been an integral part of one of the most effective promotional campaigns ever developed in the fast-food industry.
A)jingle
B)script
C)storyboard
D)layout
E)animatic
Q3) Only 20 percent of readers go beyond an ad's headline and read the body copy.
A)True
B)False
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Questions
Q1) The category development index is similar to the brand development index (BDI) except that it
A)uses information about a product category.
B)categorizes consumers according to their demographic characteristics.
C)is concerned with companies and not with products.
D)is tied to an economic index.
E)categorizes consumers according to their psychographic characteristics.
Q2) _____ is a summary measure that combines a program rating and the average number of times a home is reached during this period.
A)Brand development index
B)Program rating
C)Category development index
D)Target ratings points
E)Gross ratings points
Q3) Which of the following is an advantage associated with newspaper advertising?
A)longer life
B)short lead time for placing ads
C)high reproduction quality
D)wide reader exposure
E)lack of clutter
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Q1) Nielsen-owned RADAR National Network Ratings uses measurements from a probability sample of 200,000 respondents age 12 and older who live in telephone households.
A)True B)False
Q2) Most advertisers prefer buying their network advertising time as participation over sponsorships because
A)they want long-term commitment to a program.
B)they want greater financial responsibility for production of a program.
C)they want greater flexibility than sole sponsorship permits.
D)they want a greater concentrate for their advertising budget.
E)they want greater control over the placement of ads.
Q3) The interaction of sight and sound in TV commercials offers creative flexibility.
A)True B)False
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Q1) When publications fix advertising rates based on a set average circulation figure that is nearly always below the actual circulation delivered by a given issue but carries no guarantee, they are using
A)ancillary circulation rates.
B)a circulation verification system.
C)pass-along circulation rate scale.
D)a circulation rate base system.
E)a rebate system.
Q2) Which of the following is true of magazine advertising?
A)It offers limited geographic selectivity.
B)It is typically considered to lack permanence.
C)It tends to extend the prestige associated with the magazine to the product.
D)It is generally considered unsuitable for inexpensive consumer products.
E)It is typically used only for B2B marketing.
Q3) Newspapers and magazines are referred to as low-involvement media.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The increase in the number of women in the work force has led to the increased popularity of transit media.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of movie theater advertising?
A)Absolute and relative costs per exposure are quite high in movie theater advertising.
B)Movie theater ads offer low emotional attachment to moviegoers.
C)Movie theater advertising does not provide demographic segmentation.
D)Advertising in movie theaters offers lack of clutter as the number of ads is limited.
E)CPM in movie theater advertising is lower than that of any other media.
Q3) Support media cannot be used as a sole medium for advertising.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) _____ is a simple formula that is used to assist marketers in determining the dollar value associated with a long-term relationship with a customer, thus evaluating his or her worth.
A) Cost per thousand
B) Consumer worth evaluation
C) Customer lifetime value
D) Customer profitability estimation
E) Breakeven point
Q2) Which of the following is true of repetitive person-to-person selling?
A)It involves the sale of frequently purchased products.
B)It is not a useful method for selling durables.
C)It is not considered suitable for selling services.
D)It involves selling products that are considered to be seasonal.
E)It involves selling products through home or office parties.
Q3) Direct mail is often called "junk mail"-the unsolicited mail you receive.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The Internet allows a user to both purchase and sell products through e-commerce.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Clement Network, a satellite television channel that broadcasts weather forecasts, pays money in return for its name association with Nahla.com, an Internet portal.The Clement Network also provides weather information for the site.Which of the following methods of advertising on the Internet is Clement Network using?
A)interstitials
B)regular sponsorship
C)push technology
D)pop-unders
E)content sponsorship
Q3) Web 1.0 ended with the "bursting of the dot-com bubble."
A)True B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Coupons, bonus packs, premiums, and samples are promotional offers that are targeted toward A)end users.
B)retailers.
C)wholesalers.
D)salespeople.
E)employees.
Q2) Sweepstakes and contests
A)are used to move consumers to the conviction stage of the hierarchy of effects model.
B)can be used to generate excitement and involvement with a popular and timely event.
C)contribute minimally to consumer franchise building.
D)do not distract from consumer franchise-building activities.
E)are synonymous to each other.
Q3) Sampling is generally considered the least effective way to generate trial.
A)True B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Projected spending on sports event sponsorships in 2016 is
A)$2 billion
B)$2.22 billion
C)$970 million
D)$878 million
E)$15.74 billion
Q2) Many companies are attracted to event sponsorships because
A)they help build equity and gain affinity with target audiences.
B)they help in segmenting the target market.
C)they are less expensive than traditional forms of advertising.
D)they help in elucidating controversial issues of public importance.
E)they explain management's position on social issues.
Q3) One of the most critical external publics is the _____, which determine what a person will read in newspapers or online, or see on TV, and how this news will be presented.
A)supplier
B)customer
C)government
D)media
E)investor

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Q1) One of the flaws associated with the consumer jury method of pretesting an ad is
A)the high cost of making the required changes.
B)the potential for ad erosion.
C)the potential for the halo effect.
D)the groupthink phenomenon.
E)the lack of control by researchers.
Q2) Which of the following is a pretest method for measuring advertising effectiveness that is conducted in a laboratory setting?
A)recognition tests
B)single-source systems
C)association measures
D)physiological measures
E)inquiry tests
Q3) While it is important that marketers' attempts to measure effectiveness be guided by all of the principles of PACT, the research should be guided by a model of human response to communications that encompasses reception, comprehension, and behavioral response.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) If advertisers use a _____, they should know that humorous advertising appeals are popular in the United Kingdom, but that German consumers do not respond well to them.
A)global marketing strategy
B)sales promotion tactic
C)global public relations strategy
D)localized advertising strategy
E)centralized marketing strategy
Q2) Which of the following factors is responsible for driving U.S.companies to focus on international markets?
A)rapid population growth
B)saturation in domestic markets for many products and services
C)low competition from domestic companies
D)low competition from foreign companies
E)favorable marketing environment within the country
Q3) Product standardization results in higher production costs.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ empowered the Federal Trade Commission to regulate unfair or deceptive practices in commerce including those in advertising.
A)Lanham Amendment
B)Sherman and Clayton Antitrust Act
C)Wheeler-Lea Amendment
D)Food and Drug Administration Act
E)Consumer Protection Act
Q2) If a participant is required to give up something of value in order to participate in a game or sweepstakes, then _____ is present, and the promotion is considered a lottery.
A)misrepresentation
B)consideration
C)deception
D)enticement
E)remuneration
Q3) A promotion is not considered a lottery if a prize is offered.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research has shown that nonverbal behaviors involving _____ are associated more with boys than girls.
A)passivity and knowledge
B)dominance and control
C)aggression and lack of credibility
D)passivity and trustworthiness
E)aggression and lack of knowledge
Q2) Critics say that by surrounding consumers with images of extravagant lifestyles and by showing products as symbols of status and success, advertising is likely to A)promote a sense of patriotism.
B)initiate positive consumer socialization.
C)raise awareness against stereotypes.
D)reduce people's needs and wants.
E)encourage materialism.
Q3) It is illegal for tobacco companies to target advertising and promotion for new brands to African Americans.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Personal selling offers the opportunity to assess the sales situation and to adapt the sales message accordingly.This is called a
A)missionary sale.
B) cross sale.
C)one-way communication process.
D)secondary response system.
E)direct feedback network.
Q2) When a new product is being introduced and the seller needs to reach as many people in the target market as quickly and as cost effectively as possible, personal selling combined with _____ is likely to be most effective.
A)public relations efforts
B)advertising
C)direct marketing
D)missionary selling
E)word-of-mouth communication
Q3) Walk-in salespeople are typically respected and well received by customers.
A)True
B)False
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