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Brain and Behavior explores the intricate relationship between the nervous system and human actions, emotions, and cognition. Through an interdisciplinary approach, this course examines how brain structures and neural processes underlie behaviors ranging from basic physiological responses to complex psychological phenomena such as perception, learning, memory, and decision-making. Students will gain an understanding of neuroanatomy, neurotransmission, and the biological bases of mental health and disorders, while critically analyzing contemporary research and ethical issues in neuroscience.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Psychology 11th Edition by James W. Kalat
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15 Chapters
3327 Verified Questions
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Q1) Which statement about most psychological experiments using nonhuman animals is correct?
A) Animals are given intense, repeated, inescapable shocks in many experiments.
B) Extreme pain and stress are inflicted in attempts to drive the animals insane.
C) The research leads to no useful discoveries.
D) The research is regulated by animal care committees.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following theories would support the idea that by taking out a peoples' wisdom teeth, eventually fewer people will be born with them?
A) Lamarckian evolution
B) Darwinism
C) Natural selection
D) Artificial selection
Answer: A
Q3) List the two major categories of careers related to biological psychology. Answer: research and therapy
Q4) List the four biological explanations of behavior.
Answer: physiological, ontogenetic, evolutionary, and functional
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Q1) The difference in voltage in a resting neuron is called the resting potential.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) What structure is composed of two layers of fat molecules that are free to flow around one another?
A) the endoplasmic reticulum
B) a ribosome
C) a mitochondrion
D) the membrane
Answer: D
Q3) In a myelinated axon, sodium channels are absent in the nodes of Ranvier.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The blood-brain barrier is made up of closely packed glial cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) The key into a lock analogy best describes:
A) a drug's efficacy
B) a drug's affinity for a receptor
C) breakdown at a receptor site
D) a drug's reuptake
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following neurotransmitters is released by active neurons to dilate the blood vessels and increase blood flow?
A) endorphins
B) glycine
C) nitric oxide
D) acetylcholine
Answer: C
Q3) If a drug has high affinity and high efficacy, what effect does it have on the postsynaptic neuron?
A) antagonistic
B) agonistic
C) proactive
D) destructive
Answer: B
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Q1) Researchers using a biochemical method to direct a mutation to a particular gene are using the ____ approach.
A) sham lesion
B) gene-splicing
C) lesion
D) gene-knockout
Q2) In which area of the brain would one find the tectum, tegmentum, superior and inferior colliculi, and substantia nigra?
A) Midbrain
B) Hindbrain
C) Reticular formation
D) Forebrain
Q3) If you fell asleep on a sunny beach lying on your stomach, then your dorsal side would likely be sunburned.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the main differences between basal ganglia and cerebellum function.
Q5) Briefly describe some of the gender differences found in human brains.
Q6) Briefly describe the main categories of methods for studying brain function.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who is most likely to assess the abilities of someone who has recently had brain damage?
A) Neurosurgeon
B) Physical therapist
C) Occupational therapist
D) Neuropsychologist
Q2) In humans, myelination first occurs in the:
A) spinal cord.
B) hindbrain.
C) midbrain.
D) forebrain.
Q3) An axon in the peripheral nervous system is more likely to recover after being cut than if it is crushed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Damage to some of the axons that innervate a given structure may give rise to:
A) collateral sprouting, but not denervation supersensitivity.
B) denervation supersensitivity, but not collateral sprouting.
C) both collateral sprouting and denervation supersensitivity.
D) neither collateral sprouting nor denervation supersensitivity.
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Q1) Which of the following would be easiest for someone who is motion blind?
A) dressing themselves
B) driving a car
C) taking the dog for a walk
D) filling a pitcher with water
Q2) Cortical plasticity:
A) is only available in early life.
B) is only available later in life.
C) is available in early life, but greatest in later life.
D) is greatest in early life, but never ends.
Q3) Monkeys with damage to area V4 lose:
A) vision.
B) color vision.
C) color constancy.
D) shape constancy.
Q4) In humans as in other species, the visual cortex is more plastic early in life.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the trichromatic, opponent-process, and retinex theories of color vision.
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Q1) Somatosensory information travels from the thalamus to which area of the cortex?
A) parietal lobe
B) frontal lobe
C) hippocampus
D) limbic cortex
Q2) Which of the following are presented in the correct order when describing some of the structures that sound waves travel through as they pass from the outer ear to the inner ear?
A) pinna, tympanic membrane, oval window, cochlea
B) tympanic membrane, pinna, cochlea
C) pinna, stapes, eardrum
D) malleus, tympanic membrane, oval window, pinna
Q3) What sound characteristics can be compared between the two ears to locate the source of the sound?
A) sound shadows and frequency
B) frequency and amplitude
C) loudness and timing
D) timbre and rhythm
Q4) Briefly describe the behavioral effects of pheromones in humans.
Q5) Briefly describe the somatosensory system.
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Q1) When are the cells in the premotor cortex (in contrast to the primary motor cortex) most active?
A) In preparation for movements
B) During movements
C) At or after the end of movements
D) During inhibition of movements
Q2) The immediate cause of Parkinson's disease is the:
A) net increase in the excitatory output from the globus pallidus.
B) gradual, progressive death of neurons in the substantia nigra.
C) immediate, mass death of neurons releasing acetylcholine.
D) accumulation of amyloid-beta in neurons.
Q3) Purkinje cells are:
A) proprioceptors.
B) flat cells in sequential planes.
C) nuclei in the central cerebellum.
D) axons parallel to one another.
Q4) Activation of the Golgi tendon organs results in contraction of the muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly describe the cellular organization of the cerebellum.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Night terrors occur during NREM sleep.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The role of the reticular formation in arousal is that it is:
A) the single, critical system in arousing the cortex.
B) only one of several systems involved in arousal.
C) activated only by external stimuli.
D) activated only by internal stimuli.
Q3) What does an electroencephalograph measure?
A) action potentials in an individual neuron
B) the electrical resistance of the scalp
C) the rate of glucose uptake in active regions of the brain
D) the average of the electrical potentials of the cells in a given region of the brain
Q4) The surest way to disrupt the biological clock is to damage the:
A) substantia nigra.
B) caudate nucleus.
C) lateral hypothalamus.
D) suprachiasmatic nucleus.
Q5) Describe the neuroanatomy of arousal and attention.
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Q1) The most simple and effective way to lose weight is to exercise more and eat less.
A)True
B)False
Q2) More Native American Pimas are overweight now than in the early 1900s because of a change in which aspect of their lives?
A) Diet
B) Stress
C) Exercise
D) Education
Q3) What happens when insulin levels are high?
A) Fat supplies are converted to glucose, which enters the blood.
B) Fat supplies are depleted.
C) Glucose entry into the cells increases.
D) The sphincter muscle between the stomach and the duodenum opens.
Q4) An injection of CCK will:
A) increase sodium preferences.
B) lead to a preference for fatty foods.
C) decrease the size of the next meal.
D) cause increased storage of food as fats.
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Q1) Female rats find sex reinforcing only if they:
A) are submissive
B) get to decide when it occurs
C) let the male take the lead
D) are placed in a controlled setting
Q2) The most widely used and most effective birth control pill is one that contains which hormone(s)?
A) luteinizing hormone
B) androgen, but not estrogen
C) both estrogen and androgen
D) both estrogen and progesterone
Q3) Data gathered by studies such as the LeVay study suggest that:
A) the hypothalamus determines sexual orientation.
B) the suprachiasmatic nucleus determines sexual orientation.
C) on average, differences in the hypothalamus can be found between individuals of different sexual orientations.
D) there is only a small probability that the brain has anything to do with sexual orientation.
Q4) Describe activating effects of sex hormones and give specific examples.
Q5) Give some examples of evolutionary interpretations of mating behavior.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Increased fear, anxiety, or panic is related to increased activity of ____ and decreased activity of ____.
A) CCK; GABA
B) acetylcholine; glutamate
C) dopamine; norepinephrine
D) serotonin; NPY
Q2) Why do certain people suspect that a diet high in corn may lead to an increase in aggressive behavior?
A) Corn is low in tryptophan and high in phenylalanine.
B) Corn contains a chemical similar to testosterone.
C) Corn is deficient in thiamine and other B vitamins.
D) Corn is high in fats and contains no proteins or amino acids.
Q3) Which of the following effects would result from damage to the amygdala?
A) lack of a startle response
B) a normal startle response, but absence of learned fears
C) an enhanced startle response and an enhanced response to learned fears
D) a fear response to any novel stimulus
Q4) Individuals with PTSD usually have a smaller than average hippocampus.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Who is most likely to develop Korsakoff's syndrome?
A) those exposed to chronic stress
B) chronic alcoholics
C) certain ethnic groups
D) vegetarians
Q2) As with Korsakoff's patients, Alzheimer's patients have impairments in ____ memory, but are relatively unimpaired in ____ memory.
A) short-term; long-term
B) implicit; explicit
C) procedural; declarative
D) declarative; procedural
Q3) A peculiarity of the memory of the neurological patient H.M. was that he was able to:
A) retain new skills but not remember having learned them.
B) form new long-term memories but not short-term memories.
C) find his way to a new residence.
D) remember people's names but not which name went with which person.
Q4) Procedural memory deals with the ability to state a memory in words.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Research on binocular rivalry has supported which of these conclusions?
A) With weak stimuli, people often report being "partly" conscious of something.
B) Visual consciousness occurs only in humans.
C) Certain areas of the cortex are conscious and certain others are not.
D) Even when you are unconscious of something, the brain sees whether it is meaningful.
Q2) Axons in the corpus callosum will survive to maturity if they make connections with cells in the ____ hemisphere with ____ functions.
A) contralateral; similar
B) contralateral; different
C) ipsilateral; similar
D) ipsilateral; different
Q3) Lateralization refers to the:
A) formation of the sulci and gyri in the cortex.
B) functional asymmetries of the brain.
C) slow rate of maturation in forebrain structures.
D) physical changes that occur in neurons as learning takes place.
Q4) Describe some of the evidence that language did not develop as an accidental by-product of intelligence.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What happens when schizophrenics stop taking neuroleptic drugs?
A) They usually stop having auditory hallucinations.
B) Schizophrenic symptoms return within hours, often worse than ever.
C) Tardive dyskinesia may continue.
D) Memory problems become more apparent.
Q2) Which category of antidepressant drugs operates by preventing the presynaptic neuron from reabsorbing serotonin and catecholamines after releasing them?
A) tricyclics
B) MAOIs
C) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
D) atypical antidepressants
Q3) The problems that schizophrenics have with memory and attention are most likely related to an increased tendency of having brain damage in the: A) cerebellum.
B) prefrontal cortex.
C) occipital cortex.
D) medulla.
Q4) Define major depression.
Q5) Describe the mechanisms of the three major types of antidepressant drugs.
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