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This course explores the complex relationship between the brain and human behavior, providing an in-depth understanding of how neural structures and processes underlie various cognitive functions and actions. Students will examine topics such as brain anatomy, neural communication, sensory processes, learning, memory, emotion, and mental health from a biological perspective. By integrating principles from neuroscience and psychology, the course aims to illuminate how brain dysfunctions contribute to behavioral disorders and how advances in brain research inform approaches to treatment and intervention. Through lectures, case studies, and hands-on activities, students will gain foundational knowledge essential for further study in neuroscience, psychology, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biopsychology 9th Edition by John P.J. Pinel
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18 Chapters
2676 Verified Questions
2676 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many schizophrenics have
A) regular EEG waves.
B) irregular heartbeats.
C) difficulty in the smooth visual tracking of regularly moving objects.
D) both A and B
E) none of the above
Answer: C
Q2) Jimmie G., the man frozen in time, had a severe problem with his A) memory.
B) temperature regulation.
C) IQ.
D) attention.
E) ability to tell time.
Answer: A
Q3) __________ are the biopsychologists who focus on the study of human patients with brain damage.
Answer: Neuropsychologists
Q4) The division of biopsychology that makes the greatest use of functional brain imaging is __________.
Answer: cognitive neuroscience
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to one prominent theory, monogamy evolved in only those species
A) in which each female could raise more fit young if she had undivided help.
B) with opposable thumbs.
C) with large brains.
D) that used tools.
E) all of the above
Answer: A
Q2) Discuss the history and current view of the nature-nurture issue.
Answer: 25% for describing the original nature-nurture issue
50% for describing how the nature-nurture issue evolved
25% for explaining the current interaction view of nature and nurture
Q3) Birds and reptiles are
A) amphibians.
B) chordates.
C) vertebrates.
D) all of the above
E) both B and C
Answer: E
Q4) Asomatognosia is typically produced by lesions to the right __________.
Answer: parietal lobe
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are multipolar cortical neurons with long axons, apical dendrites, and triangular cell bodies?
A) stellate cells
B) chandelier cells
C) pyramidal cells
D) granule cells
E) fusiform cells
Answer: C
Q2) The mammillary nuclei are
A) bumps visible on the dorsal surface of the medulla.
B) visible on the inferior surface of the diencephalon.
C) often considered to be nuclei of the hypothalamus.
D) found only in females.
E) both B and C
Answer: E
Q3) The arachnoid membrane is one of the __________.
Answer: meninges
Q4) The three-layered cortical structure of the medial temporal lobe is the __________.
Answer: hippocampus
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Sample Questions
Q1) How far do most postsynaptic potentials travel before they die out.
A) to the axon hillock
B) to the terminal buttons
C) no more than a couple of millimeters
D) about 50 millimeters
E) both B and D
Q2) Axodendritic synapses
A) are rare.
B) often terminate on the axon hillock.
C) always terminate on dendrites.
D) sometimes terminate on cell bodies.
E) A and C
Q3) Na+ ions are encouraged to move into neurons by
A) nonrandom assignment.
B) electrostatic pressure.
C) the sodium-potassium pump.
D) selective ion channels.
E) nonrandom movement.
Q4) The enzyme that deactivates acetylcholine after it has been released into the synapse is __________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cerebral dialysis is a method of
A) stimulating the brain.
B) stimulating the neuroendocrine system.
C) measuring changes in the extracellular concentrations of various neurochemicals at particular sites in the brains of active animals.
D) 6-OHDA.
E) recording AEPs.
Q2) Which of the following is a test of language ability that employs objects of two shapes, two sizes, and five different colors?
A) block-span test
B) token test
C) aphasia subtest of the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery
D) paired-associate test
E) Wechsler Language Scale Test
Q3) A commonly used test of short-term memory is the __________ subtest of the WAIS.
Q4) In the open-field test, fearful rats are __________, that is, they stay near the walls of the test box.
Q5) Sexually receptive female rats often assume the __________ posture when mounted by a male rat.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The brightness of a light depends on its A) intensity.
B) wavelength.
C) color.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C
Q2) High-acuity vision is mediated by
A) the photopic system.
B) the scotopic system.
C) the optic disks.
D) rhodopsin.
E) both C and D
Q3) The blind spot is the place where axons of retinal __________ cells leave the eye.
Q4) Most of the cones are concentrated in the
A) nasal hemiretinas.
B) temporal hemiretinas.
C) foveas.
D) periphery of the retinas.
E) blind spot.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hearing loss is sometimes associated with __________ (ringing of the ears).
Q2) Most of the neurons of the anterolateral system decussate in the A) spinal cord.
B) lower brain stem.
C) midbrain.
D) corpus callosum.
E) medulla.
Q3) For decades, it had been assumed that mammals had only a small number of olfactory
A) receptor cells.
B) receptor types.
C) receptors.
D) all of the above
E) both A and C
Q4) The organ of Corti comprises the tectorial membrane, hair cells, and __________ membrane.
Q5) A __________ is an area of the body that is innervated by the dorsal roots of one segment of the spinal cord.
Q6) The identification of objects by touch is called __________.
Q7) The inability to recognize objects by touch is __________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general, the dorsolateral corticospinal tract controls the muscles of the A) thighs.
B) body core.
C) hands and feet.
D) proximal limbs.
E) legs.
Q2) The decision to initiate a voluntary response seems, in part, to be made by the A) posterior occipital cortex.
B) dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.
C) primary motor cortex.
D) premotor cortex.
E) supplementary motor area.
Q3) The number of motor neurons in a motor unit is __________.
Q4) Increases in muscle tension in the absence of any shortening of the muscle are said to be
A) contractions.
B) dynamic.
C) extensions.
D) isometric.
E) synergistic.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the developmental progression from totipotency, to pluripotency, to multipotency, to total specification. Why are embryonic stem cells so interesting to medical researchers?
Q2) The neural __________ is situated just dorsal to the neural tube and develops into the PNS.
Q3) The first evidence that new neurons can be created in the brains of adult vertebrates came in the 1980s from the study of
A) the hippocampus.
B) the olfactory bulbs.
C) songbirds.
D) hamsters.
E) the amygdala.
Q4) The neural crest
A) is just anterior to the neural tube.
B) is the bottom of the neural tube.
C) develops into the hindbrain.
D) develops into the PNS.
E) develops into the spinal cord.
Q5) Radial migration of developing neurons occurs along __________ glial cells.
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Q6) The first neurotrophin to be isolated was __________ factor.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Collateral sprouting typically originates from A) cell bodies.
B) dendrites.
C) axon terminal branches or nodes of Ranvier.
D) nodes of Ranvier or cell bodies.
E) cell bodies or dendrites.
Q2) Generalized seizures always involve
A) the entire brain.
B) tonus.
C) clonus.
D) cyanosis.
E) auras.
Q3) Kindling
A) has been demonstrated in only rats and mice.
B) occurs only if the interstimulation intervals are less than 1 hour.
C) occurs only if the stimulation electrode is positioned in the amygdala or some other temporal-lobe nucleus.
D) induces neuroplastic changes that last between 1 and 2 months.
E) none of the above
Q4) Huntington's disease is caused by a single __________ gene.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The current consensus is that memories of experiences are likely stored
A) diffusely throughout the structures of the brain that participated in the original experience.
B) throughout the hippocampus.
C) in the CA1 subfield of the hippocampus.
D) in the diencephalon.
E) in the rhinal cortex.
Q2) A major contribution of H.M.'s case was the following: It
A) was the first to strongly implicate the medial temporal lobes in memory.
B) effectively challenged the view that memorial functions are diffusely and equivalently distributed throughout the brain.
C) provided support for the view that there are distinct modes of short-term and long-term storage.
D) provided evidence of memory without conscious awareness.
E) all of the above
Q3) Approximately __________% of people experience infantile amnesia.
Q4) Describe the major symptoms of posttraumatic amnesia and how these symptoms have provided support for the theory of consolidation. Describe studies that have been conducted to determine consolidation times and what they have accomplished.
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Q1) According to the positive-incentive theory, the main cause of hunger in food-replete environments is
A) a shortage of calories in the body.
B) the presence or anticipation of food.
C) deviation from an energy set point.
D) deviation from a positive-incentive set point.
E) high levels of insulin.
Q2) The VMH hyperphagia syndrome comprises two phases. In chronological sequence, these phases are the
A) aphagia phase and the adipsia phase.
B) adipsia phase and the aphagia phase.
C) dynamic phase and the static phase.
D) hyperphagia phase and the hypophagia phase.
E) static phase and the dynamic phase.
Q3) Most humans have a fondness for __________ tastes.
A) sweet
B) fatty
C) salty
D) all of the above
E) both B and C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genetic males with androgenic insensitivity syndrome have
A) little public hair.
B) shallow vaginas.
C) internalized testes.
D) breasts.
E) all of the above
Q2) The most prevalent estrogen is
A) estradiol.
B) progestin.
C) progesterone.
D) testosterone.
E) androstenedione.
Q3) The __________ of the primordial gonads develop into testes.
Q4) Sexual attraction develops
A) with the onset of puberty.
B) before the onset of puberty.
C) after the onset of puberty.
D) in infancy.
E) following puberty.
Q5) __________ steroid hormone is released by the ovaries and not by the testes.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a problem with the long-term use of benzodiazepines to treat insomnia?
A) tolerance
B) reduction of life expectancy
C) distortion of normal sleep
D) next-day drowsiness.
E) all of the above
Q2) In the neurotransplantation experiment by Ralph and colleagues, the suprachiasmatic nuclei (SCN) were transplanted from the fetuses of mutant hamsters that had abnormally brief free-running sleep-wake cycles into normal adult hamsters whose sleep-wake cycles had been abolished by SCN lesions. The transplants initiated __________ sleep-wake cycles in the recipients.
A) 24-hour
B) 24-hour free-running
C) 25.5-hour free-running
D) 20-hour free-running
E) reversed
Q3) Normally, the fifth stage of sleep EEG to be reached after a person falls asleep at night is stage __________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Opiates likely exert their psychoactive effects by binding to A) endorphins.
B) opiate receptors.
C) dopamine receptors.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C
Q2) Make three reasonable recommendations for improving the ways in which your country deals with the drug addiction problem. Base your recommendations on relevant research findings and logical arguments.
Q3) According to the text, addicts are drug users who
A) are tolerant and psychologically dependent.
B) are physically and psychologically dependent.
C) are tolerant and physically dependent.
D) continue to use a drug despite the drug's adverse effects on their health and social life, and despite their efforts to stop.
E) continue to use a drug because they are locked into a cycle of drug taking and withdrawal effects.
Q4) __________ is an opiate that is often prescribed for the treatment of heroin and morphine addiction.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The case of W.L., the man who experienced aphasia for sign language, demonstrates that left hemisphere damage can disrupt __________ gestures without disrupting __________ gestures.
A) linguistic; pantomime
B) linguistic; language
C) pantomime; linguistic
D) linguistic; sign language
E) pantomime; sign language
Q2) Evidence suggests that the naming of different categories of nouns (such as faces, animals, or tools) is each mediated by a different part of the
A) parietal lobe.
B) temporal lobe.
C) frontal lobe.
D) occipital lobe.
E) limbic lobe.
Q3) According to the Wernicke-Geschwind model, __________ area is the center of speech production.
Q4) __________ is a specific pathological difficulty in reading.
Q5) The left planum temporale corresponds roughly to __________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following psychologists is well known for his research on facial expression?
A) Darwin
B) Ekman
C) Ax
D) Cannon
E) Lykken
Q2) H. pylori has been implicated as a causal factor in A) gastric ulcers.
B) heart disease.
C) stress.
D) immune dysfunction.
E) brain tumors.
Q3) Charles Whitman, the Texas Tower sniper, had a tumor in his A) hippocampus.
B) amygdala.
C) prefrontal cortex.
D) cingulate cortex.
E) limbic system.
Q4) Unlike false smiles, Duchenne smiles always involve the __________ muscles.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Haloperidol is a potent
A) neuroleptic.
B) D2 receptor ligand.
C) antischizophrenic drug.
D) all of the above
E) both A and C
Q2) Structural brain-imaging studies of schizophrenic patients typically reveal A) widespread abnormalities.
B) reduced brain size.
C) abnormally large cerebral ventricles.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) Several large scale studies have compared the effectiveness of various antidepressants to placebos. These studies have found that A) various classes of antidepressants are similarly effective.
B) overall, antidepressants benefitted only 25% more patients than did placebos.
C) antidepressants are of no significant benefit for the mildly or moderately depressed.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
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