Blood Bank Technology Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Blood Bank Technology is a specialized course that explores the principles and practices essential to the safe collection, processing, testing, and transfusion of blood and blood components. The curriculum covers topics such as blood group serology, donor selection and screening, compatibility testing, component preparation, transfusion reactions, quality assurance, and adherence to regulatory standards. Students gain practical laboratory experience alongside theoretical understanding, equipping them with the knowledge and technical skills required to ensure the safety and efficacy of blood transfusion services in clinical and medical laboratory settings.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Laboratory Blood Banking and Transfusion Medicine Practices 1st Edition by Gretchen Johns
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21 Chapters
420 Verified Questions
420 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Immune Process: the Origin and Interaction
Between Antigens and Antibodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term immunogen refers to a substance capable of eliciting the formation of a(n)
A)Antigen
B)Antibody
C)Cytokine
D)Protein
Answer: B
Q2) Which scientist proved that infections were caused by microorganisms?
A)Edward Jenner
B)Robert Koch
C)Louis Pasteur
D)Emil von Behring
Answer: B
Q3) When a naive B cell Le ves the bone marrow,it has membrane-bound ________ antibody.
A)IgA and IgE
B)IgA and IgM
C)IgD and IgE
D)IgD and IgM
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Immunogenetics: the Origin of Antigens
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the abbreviation for the amino acid glutamine?
A)Gln
B)Glu
C)Gly
D)Gtm
Answer: A
Q2) DNA is defined as
A)Deoxyribonucleic acid
B)Deoxyribonucleic alkali
C)Digoxin neural assessment
D)Diploid nucleotide analysis
Answer: A
Q3) The sex cells,either eggs or sperm,are ________ in humans,meaning that they contain one copy of each chromosome rather than two.
A)complementary
B)haploid
C)homologous
D)linear
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Blood Bank Applications of Antigenantibody
Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) For tube testing,the most commonly used plasma-to-cell ratio is
A)One drop of plasma and one drop of 5% suspension of red blood cells
B)One drop of plasma and two drops 5% suspension of red blood cells
C)Two drops of plasma and one drop of 5% suspension of red blood cells
D)Two drops of plasma and two drops of 5% suspension of red blood cells
Answer: C
Q2) ______ is the first immunoglobulin class produced in a primary immune response.
A)IgD
B)IgE
C)IgG
D)IgM
Answer: D
Q3) _________ is typically added before the incubation phase of the antibody screen test.
A)AHG
B)DAT
C)IgG
D)PEG
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Abo and Hh Blood Group Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) To confirm anti-A in a person who has not been recently transfused,type the patient/donor cells with
A)anti-A lectin
B)anti-A lectin
C)anti-B lectin
D)anti-O lectin
Q2) The most common ABO blood group is group
A)A
B)B
C)AB
D)O
Q3) Mixed field reaction is commonly seen in the forward ABO test if a group _________ patient has received an emergency transfusion of group ____ cells.
A)A,A
B)A,B
C)A,O
D)O,O
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6
Chapter 5: Rh, Rhag, and Lw Blood Group Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true about Rh proteins?
A)One amino acid is responsible for the difference between the C and c antigens.
B)RhD and RhCE proteins have the same composition except for 33-35 amino acids.
C)Rh proteins are nonglycosylated.
D)There is one carbohydrate molecule attached to the Rh proteins.
Q2) The RHD gene codes for the ____ antigen.
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
Q3) Clonal reagent anti-D may be
A)IgD or IgG
B)IgE or IgG
C)IgE or IgM or blend of both
D)IgG or IgM or blend of both
Q4) Which chromosome carries the two Rh genes?
A)1
B)6
C)7
D)9
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Chapter 6: Other Blood Group Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The McLeod phenotype is very rare and is often associated with a hereditary form of
A)Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)
B)Cold agglutinin syndrome (CAS)
C)Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)
D)Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinemia (PNH)
Q2) How many antigens are in the Kidd system?
A)3
B)9
C)12
D)19
Q3) Which antigen is one of the antigens in the ISBT classification called Series 901?
A)Bga
B)Knb
C)Sda
D)Tcc
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8
Chapter 7: Pretransfusion and Compatibility Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of hemolytic transfusion reactions that occur are due to
A)errors in sample or patient identification
B)errors in written orders
C)illegible handwriting on the order
D)miscommunication of verbal orders
Q2) What is the purpose of a reflex test?
A)Detect unexpected red blood cell antibodies
B)Identify red blood cell phenotype
C)Increase sensitivity of pretransfusion testing
D)Investigate an inconclusive or unexpected result
Q3) Which of the following is not a type of additive used if antibody screening and identification is performed by tube testing?
A)Albumin
B)DTT
C)LISS
D)PEG
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Chapter 8: Identification of Unexpected Antibodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The elution methods best suited for cold-reactive antibodies include all of the following except
A)Digitonin acid
B)Landsteiner and Wiener heat
C)Lui's freeze-thaw
D)Sonication
Q2) Enhancement reagents are also called
A)Antigrams
B)Elutions
C)Potentiators
D)Titrations
Q3) What equation is used to calculate the frequency of alleles and genotypes within a population?
A)Fisher-Test
B)Hardy-Weinberg
C)Hyde-Park
D)Landsteiner-Wiener
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10
Chapter 9: Donor Selection, Phlebotomy, and Required Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although several variables can affect the length of deferral after a smallpox vaccination,donors are deferred for a minimum of how many days?
A)10
B)14
C)21
D)30
Q2) In most states,donors who are at least ___ years of age can donate without parental consent.
A)16
B)17
C)18
D)21
Q3) The maximum volume of blood that may be collected in a whole blood,allogeneic donation is
A)10.5 mL/kg of body weight
B)11.5 mL/kg of body weight
C)12.0 mL/kg of body weight
D)14.0 mL/kg of body weight
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Chapter 10: Blood Products: Preparation, Storage, and Shipment
of Blood Components
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who coined the term "blood bank"?
A)Bernard Fantus
B)Francis Rous
C)JR Turner
D)Richard Weil
Q2) What temperature must be maintained for shipping platelets and granulocytes?
A)33.8-50° F (1-6° C)
B)33.8-50° F (1-10° C)
C)68-75.2° F (20-24° C)
D)75.2-89.6° F (24-32° C)
Q3) To produce cryoprecipitated antihemophiliac factor,fresh frozen plasma is thawed at what temperature?
A)33.8-50° F (1-6° C)
B)33.8-50° F (1-10° C)
C)64.4-71.6° F (18-22° C)
D)95-100.4° F (35-38° C)
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Component Therapy and Massive Transfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autologous hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPCs)are collected from the patient's bone marrow or peripheral blood after
A)High doses of chemotherapy
B)Low doses of chemotherapy
C)High doses of 10% DMSO
D)Low doses of 10% DMSO
Q2) A platelet count of less than _____ is often used as a trigger to initiate prophylactic platelet transfusions to prevent intracranial hemorrhage.
A)10 × 10³ / µL (10 x 10 /L)
B)20 × 10³ / µL (20 x 10 /L)
C)30 × 10³ / µL (30 x 10 /L)
D)40 × 10³ / µL (40 x 10 /L)
Q3) Which of the following modifications can help to prevent the formation of antibodies to HLA antigens?
A)Freezing
B)Irradiation
C)Leukoreduction
D)Washing
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Chapter 12: Adverse Reactions to Transfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Over half the hypotensive transfusion reactions reported have been associated with which type of treatment?
A)ACE inhibitor
B)Angiotensin
C)Antihistamine
D)Antipyretic
Q2) In the United States,transfusion-associated fatalities must be reported to which regulatory agency?
A)American Medical Association
B)Centre for Biologics EvaLuation and Research
C)Food and Drug Administration
D)Haemovigilance network
Q3) Patients at a greater risk for transfusion-associated graft versus host disease (TA-GVHD)include all the following except
A)Fetuses
B)Older adults
C)Patients with Hodgkin's disease
D)Hematopoietic stem cell transplant recipients
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14
Chapter 13: Transfusion-Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what year was the West Nile virus first identified as an emerging threat in the United States?
A)1940
B)1976
C)1981
D)1999
Q2) Chronic infection is most common with which of the following types of viral hepatitis?
A)Hepatitis A
B)Hepatitis B
C)Hepatitis C
D)Hepatitis D
Q3) In the United States,what is the approximate risk for transfusion transmission of hepatitis B?
A)1:220,000
B)1:2 million
C)1:3 million
D)Unknown
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Chapter 14: Perinatal and Neonatal Transfusion Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are known to be IgM antibodies and have not been found to cause hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)except
A)Anti-Le
B)Anti-Le
C)Anti-M
D)Anti-P1
Q2) The model or classic case of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)involves an
A)Rh(D)-negative mother who makes anti-A directed against the Rh(D)-negative red blood cells of her fetus
B)Rh(D)-negative mother who makes anti-D directed against the Rh(D)-positive red blood cells of her fetus
C)Rh(D)-positive mother who makes anti-A,B directed against the Rh(D)-negative red blood cells of her fetus
D)Rh(D)-positive mother who makes anti-D directed against the Rh(D)-negative red blood cells of her fetus
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Chapter 15: Autoimmune and Drug-Induced Immune
Hemolytic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following can be symptoms of anemia except
A)Brachycardia
B)Fatigue
C)Pallor
D)Tachycardia
Q2) Which of the following is defined as the process of removing antibodies bound to red blood cells?
A)Adsorption
B)Alloadsorption
C)Autoadsorption
D)Elution
Q3) What is the most common laboratory result pattern seen in warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAIHA)?
A)Positive autocontrol,negative DAT,negative antibody screen,panreactive eLu te
B)Positive autocontrol,positive DAT,negative antibody screen,nonreactive eLu te
C)Positive autocontrol,positive DAT,positive antibody screen,nonreactive eLu te
D)Positive autocontrol,positive DAT,positive antibody screen,panreactive eLu te
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Platelet Refractory Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patients are at the highest risk for developing platelet refractoriness?
A)Anaesthetized surgical
B)Bleeding trauma
C)Chronically transfused oncology
D)Multiparous obstetrical
Q2) What is the match called when one human leukocyte antigen (HLA)is mismatched?
A)A
B)BU
C)C
D)D
Q3) What are the three most common human platelet antigen (HPA)antibodies implicated in platelet refractoriness?
A)Anti-HPA-1a,anti-HPA-2a,anti-HPA-5a
B)Anti-HPA-1b,anti-HPA-2a,anti-HPA-5a
C)Anti-HPA-1b,anti-HPA-2b,anti-HPA-5a
D)Anti-HPA-1b,anti-HPA-2b,anti-HPA-5b
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Chapter 17: Transfusion Support of Selected Patient
Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sickle cells that occlude blood vessels cause all of the following except
A)Iron overload
B)Organ damage
C)Stroke
D)Tissue ischemia
Q2) Transfusion-associated graft versus host disease (TA-GVHD)is
A)prevented through leukoreduction
B)almost universally fatal
C)caused by engraftment of donor B lymphoctyes
D)most often diagnosed in immunocompetent patients
Q3) Red blood cell and platelet transfusions are used as supportive therapy in patients who have undergone a hematopoietic progenitor cell (HPC)transplant until when?
A)Chemotherapy is complete
B)CMV reactivation occurs
C)Engraftment occurs
D)Factor levels reach 70%
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19
Chapter 18: Human Histocompatibility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antigen would not be considered a Class I antigen?
A)HLA-A
B)HLA-B
C)HLA-C
D)HLA-D
Q2) Which chromosome carries the genes for the HLA system?
A)1
B)3
C)6
D)9
Q3) When matching a recipient and potential donor for kidney transplant,all of the following antigens should be identified except
A)HLA-A
B)HLA-B
C)HLA-DQ
D)HLA-DR
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Chapter 19: Methods in Parentage Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mendel's laws of genetics requires ________ of the alleles in the child's sample to be traceable to each parent.
A)one-half
B)one-third
C)one-quarter
D)one-sixth
Q2) Which probability encompasses the level of certainty that the alleged parents had a relationship that could have produced the child involved in the relatedness testing?
A)Anterior
B)Conditional
C)Posterior
D)Prior
Q3) Which standards are commonly followed by laboratories seeking accreditation for parentage testing?
A)AABB Standards for Blood Banks and Transfusion Services
B)AABB Standards for Relationship Testing Laboratories
C)ABA Standards for Blood Banks and Transfusion Services
D)ABA Standards for Parentage Testing Laboratories
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Chapter 20: Transfusion Safety and Regulatory Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are categories of enforcement action that the FDA can use except
A)Administrative
B)Advisory
C)Deviation
D)Recall
Q2) What report must be submitted if an error could affect the safety,potency,or purity of a distributed blood product?
A)Biological product deviation
B)Fatality
C)Hemovigilance
D)Nonconformance
Q3) Which of the following is usually issued by a professional society to indicate that a person has met a set of qualifications and is therefore qualified to perform a particular job?
A)Certification
B)Degree
C)Licensure
D)Registry
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22
Chapter 21: Quality Assurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding record retention,which statement is not true?
A)Facilities must comply with all regulatory retention requirements.
B)Many records are stored electronically.
C)There must be a method for backing up all critical data.
D)Transfusion records must be stored for at least 7 years.
Q2) A near-miss event is a(an)
A)failure to meet accreditation requirements
B)event resulting in a patient or donor experiencing a fatal,life-threatening,or serious adverse outcome
C)measureable facet of a process
D)unexpected occurrence where an error was identified and corrected before a patient or product was adversely affected
Q3) Which of the following is a program designed to ensure that laboratorians have mastered the skills and tasks related to processing,performing,and interpreting accurate laboratory tests?
A)CLIA
B)CMS
C)PT
D)QC
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