Blood Bank Technology
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Blood Bank Technology is a specialized course that focuses on the principles and practices involved in the collection, testing, processing, storage, and transfusion of blood and blood components. Students learn about blood group systems, antibody identification, compatibility testing, donor selection, and the preparation of blood products. The course also covers quality control, blood bank instrumentation, infection control, and regulations pertaining to safe transfusion practices. Emphasis is placed on laboratory techniques, problem-solving skills, and the management of transfusion reactions, preparing students for roles in clinical laboratories and transfusion services.
Recommended Textbook
Basic and Applied Concepts of Immunohematology 2nd Edition by Kathy D. Blaney
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16 Chapters
393 Verified Questions
393 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1436 Page 2
Chapter 1: Immunology: Basic Principles and Applications in the Blood Bank
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28516
Sample Questions
Q1) Select the term that is associated with the B-cell response to antigens.
A) Humoral immunity
B) Cellular immunity
C) Innate immunity
D) Nonspecific immunity
Answer: A
Q2) Select the cell involved in the clearance of viral infected cells, tumor cells, and foreign-tissue grafts.
A) CD8 cells
B) T helper cells
C) CD4 cells
D) B cells
Answer: A
Q3) The major histocompatibility complex is located on chromosome 6 and is important in all the following immune functions except:
A) recognition of nonself.
B) graft rejection.
C) hemolysis.
D) coordination of cellular and humoral immunity.
Answer: C
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Blood Banking Reagents: Overview and Applications
in Immunohematology
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An advantage of using a monoclonal antibody over a polyclonal antibody includes all of the following except:
A) very few variations between lots.
B) no contaminating antibodies.
C) direct agglutination is usually faster.
D) all variations of the antigen can be detected.
Answer: D
Q2) Why is incubation omitted in the direct antihuman globulin test?
A) The direct antiglobulin test can be used in an emergency to replace the indirect test.
B) Incubation will cause hemolysis.
C) The antigen-antibody complex has already formed in vivo.
D) IgM antibodies are detected in the direct antiglobulin test.
Answer: C
Q3) The gel technology method uses a concentration of red cells that is:
A) higher than tube techniques.
B) lower than tube techniques.
C) the same as the 3% to 5% requirement for tube testing.
D) variable according to the test performed.
Answer: B
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Genetic Principles in Blood Banking
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25 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person whose red cells type as M+, N+ with antisera would be:
A) a homozygote.
B) a heterozygote.
C) unable to be determined without family studies.
D) linked.
Answer: B
Q2) When using the Hardy-Weinberg equation to calculate genetic frequencies, which of the following must be true?
A) The population statistics must be large.
B) Mutations cannot occur.
C) Mating must be random.
D) All of the above are true.
Answer: D
Q3) What is meant by the term autosomal?
A) A trait that is not carried on the sex chromosomes
B) A trait that is carried on the sex chromosome
C) A trait that is expressed only in the parents
D) A gene that does not express a characteristic
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Abo and H Blood Group Systems and Secretor
Status
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately what is the percentage of individuals who demonstrate H in their saliva?
A) 15%
B) 50%
C) 80%
D) 98%
Q2) Most "naturally occurring" ABO system antibodies fall into which class?
A) IgA
B) IgM
C) IgE
D) IgG
Q3) What percentage of the group A population are type A<sub>2</sub>?
A) 1%
B) 10%
C) 20%
D) 35%
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Chapter 5: Rh Blood Group System
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is it genetically possible for a child to phenotype as D-negative?
A) Both parents are heterozygous D-positive.
B) Both parents are homozygous D-positive.
C) Mom is homozygous D-positive, and Dad is heterozygous D-positive.
D) The sibling is D-positive.
Q2) Anti-D reagent and the Rh control were tested with red cells. Both tests were 2+ agglutination reactions. What is the interpretation of the results?
A) D-positive
B) D-negative
C) Unable to interpret without further testing
D) D-positive if the sample is from a patient
Q3) DCe
A)R<sub>1</sub>r
B)R<sub>1</sub>R<sub>1</sub>
C)R<sub>2</sub>R<sub>2</sub> D)rr
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Other Blood Group Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person who inherits the Le, Se, and H genes will have red cells that phenotype:
A) Le(a+b+).
B) Le(a-b+).
C) Le(a-b-).
D) Le(a+b-).
Q2) Antigens of the P system are structurally related to which of the following blood group systems?
A) MNS
B) ABH
C) Kell
D) Duffy
Q3) Lewis system antibodies have not been implicated in hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn because:
A) the antigens are not fully developed at birth.
B) Lewis system antibodies do not cross the placenta.
C) the antibodies are not clinically significant.
D) all of the above are correct.
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Chapter 7: Antibody Detection and Identification
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an antibody identification panel, only one red cell was negative at the antihuman globulin phase. On ruling out and matching the pattern, an anti-k was identified. What further testing is necessary to confirm the antibody?
A) Two more k-negative cells should be tested.
B) Two more K-negative cells should be tested.
C) Treat the panel cells with enzymes and perform the panel again.
D) Perform an adsorption using "k"-positive cells.
Q2) An anti-Fy<sup>a </sup>was identified in a patient's serum. The patient's red cells phenotyped as Fy<sup>a</sup> positive using commercial antisera. The next step is to:
A) repeat the panel to confirm the antibody.
B) report the antibody because this result is normal.
C) investigate a recent transfusion history.
D) wash the cells and use monoclonal anti-Fy<sup>a</sup> antibodies.
Q3) Cold autoantibodies are typically of which specificity?
A) M
B) N
C) I
D) Le<sup>b</sup>
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Chapter 8: Compatibility Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The immediate spin or abbreviated crossmatch is an acceptable procedure if the recipient:
A) has no prior or existing clinically significant antibodies.
B) has never been pregnant or transfused.
C) needs blood before a sample can be obtained.
D) is using blood from a directed donation.
Q2) If an emergency exists and there is not enough time to perform a crossmatch for red cells, what is the correct procedure?
A) Release group O, D-negative whole blood.
B) Release group O, D-negative red blood cells.
C) Release group AB fresh frozen plasma until the blood type is performed.
D) Release ABO compatible blood based on the patient's prior record in the computer.
Q3) When group O blood is not available for transfusion, what is the next alternative?
A) Group A red blood cells
B) Group AB red blood cells
C) Washed group B red blood cells
D) None
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10
Chapter 9: Donor Selection and Phlebotomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following contributes to permanent rejection status of a donor?
A) A tattoo 5 months previously
B) Contact with a patient with viral hepatitis
C) Two units of blood transfused 4 months previously
D) Confirmed positive test for hepatitis B surface antigen 10 years previously
Q2) Allogeneic whole blood donors may donate every __________ days.
A) 24
B) 36
C) 56
D) 72
Q3) How often can a person donate a unit of whole blood for a directed donation?
A) 8 weeks
B) 2 weeks
C) 48 hours
D) 24 hours
Q4) Autologous donors may not donate if they:
A) have a positive test for syphilis.
B) are on antibiotics for an infection.
C) are taking aspirin.
D) are over 65 years old.
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Chapter 10: Testing of Donor Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common transmission of hepatitis B virus is by:
A) contaminated food and water.
B) transfusion.
C) sexual transmission.
D) intravenous drug use.
Q2) If a donor is found to be positive for hepatitis C virus by nucleic acid testing, the process of "look-back" is initiated to:
A) quarantine units in the blood center that may exist from prior donations from the inventory.
B) notify recipients who may have previously received blood from this donor.
C) locate and quarantine units that have been sent to transfusion facilities from this donor in the past.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Persons who have had injections of human growth hormone are indefinitely deferred as blood donors. This is because of possible transmission of:
A) Trypanosomiasis cruzi.
B) Babesia microti.
C) Borrelia burgdorferi.
D) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Blood Component Preparation and Therapy
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The temperature of a shipment of red blood cell units that were received from the local blood center was recorded as 8°<sup> </sup>C. The correct course of action is to:
A) place the units in inventory because the temperature is acceptable.
B) quarantine the units until approved by the supervisor.
C) send the units back to the blood center.
D) have the units tested for bacterial contamination before release.
Q2) CPDA-1
A)21 days
B)35 days
C)42 days
D)10 years
E)28 days
F)24 hours
G)48 hours
H)72 hours
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13
Chapter 12: Adverse Complications of Transfusions
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An anaphylactic transfusion reaction is caused by __________ antibodies.
A) IgA
B) IgG
C) IgE
D) All of the above
Q2) Febrile, nonhemolytic
A)Prevented by leukoreduced components
B)Prevented by irradiation of components
C)Symptoms include hives and itching
D)Associated with ABO incompatibilities
E)Caused by donor white cell antibodies
F)Alloantibodies to red cell antigens
G)Can be prevented by transfusion slowly
Q3) A transfusion reaction investigation should include all of the following except:
A) posttransfusion patient temperature.
B) human leukocyte antigen type.
C) reidentification of the patient and transfused component.
D) collection of a blood sample.
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Chapter 13: Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following antibodies have not been known to cause hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn?
A) Anti-C
B) Anti-K
C) Anti-Le<sup>a</sup>
D) Anti-S
Q2) To prevent graft-versus-host disease, red blood cells prepared for intrauterine transfusions should be:
A) frozen and deglycerolized.
B) saline washed.
C) ABO and D-compatible with the mother.
D) irradiated.
Q3) A group O, D-positive mother gave birth to an A-negative infant. After 24 hours, the newborn's bilirubin level rose to 19 mg/dL. A direct antiglobulin test performed on the cord blood specimen was positive with anti-IgG. What is the most probable antibody causing this?
A) Anti-D
B) Anti-A
C) Anti-B
D) Anti-A,B
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Chapter 14: Transfusion Therapy in Selected Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following contributes to red cell loss in chronic renal disease?
A) Below normal erythropoietin levels
B) Shearing of red cells from kidney dialysis
C) Elevated uremia
D) All of the above
Q2) Common complications of chemotherapy include:
A) bleeding.
B) infection.
C) anemia.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Why do premature neonates require red blood cell transfusions?
A) Iatrogenic blood loss
B) Hemoglobin F is being changed to hemoglobin A
C) Insufficient erythropoiesis
D) All of the above
Q4) ABO-matched organ transplants are critical in all the following except:
A) bone marrow.
B) kidney.
C) heart.
D) liver.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Quality Assurance and Regulation of the Blood Industry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Validation
A)The CAP survey is an example
B)Systematic evaluations to determine whether procedures are being followed
C)Testing to determine the accuracy and precision of reagents and equipment
D)Process of standardizing an instrument against a known value
E)Removal of products from the market that might compromise the safety of the recipient
F)Degree to which a measurement represents the true value
G)Establishing that a specific process produces an expected result
H)Evaluation of an employee's ability to perform a specific skill
I)Investigation and identification of the factors that contributed to an error
J)Maximizes the duration of equipment and increases the reliability of the equipment
K)System to plan and implement changes to prevent problems
Q2) Plans that provide the framework for establishing quality assurance in an organization are:
A) current good manufacturing practices.
B) standard operating procedures.
C) change control plan.
D) continuous quality improvement plan.
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Chapter 16: Safety Issues in the Blood Bank
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Sample Questions
Q1) AABB
A)Ensures safe and healthful working conditions
B)Government agency that determines whether a health facility meets standards for reimbursement for Medicare
C)Assessment of medical wastes
D)Ensures the safety and efficacy of biologics, drugs, and devices
E)Voluntary accrediting agency for hospitals
F)Writes fire safety standards
G)Provides peer-reviewed accreditation for hospital laboratories
H)Professional organization that accredits blood banks and transfusion services
I)Makes recommendations to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration regarding the prevention of disease transmission
J)Governs all transportation except by mail
Q2) At what point in the employment process should safety training take place?
A) During orientation and training
B) Following lab training when employees are more familiar with their responsibilities
C) Following the employees' first evaluation
D) Before independent work is permitted and annually thereafter
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