Biotechnology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Biotechnology is an interdisciplinary field that harnesses biological systems, living organisms, or components thereof to develop innovative products and technologies for a variety of applications, including healthcare, agriculture, environmental management, and industry. This course covers foundational principles such as genetic engineering, protein synthesis, molecular cloning, and bioprocessing, while also exploring the ethical, legal, and societal implications of biotechnological advances. Students will gain both theoretical knowledge and practical laboratory skills, preparing them to contribute to cutting-edge research and innovation within this rapidly evolving sector.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Diagnostics Fundamentals Methods and Clinical Applications 2nd Edition by Lela Buckingham
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16 Chapters
448 Verified Questions
448 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA replication proceeds with the new daughter strand synthesized in the following orientation:
A) 5'to 3'
B) 3'to 5'
C) The daughter strand is not synthesized in any order.
D) Either 5'to 3'or 3' to 5'
Answer: A
Q2) The term used to describe the arrangement of the individual strands in the double-stranded DNA molecule is:
A) Parallel
B) Antiparallel
C) Tangential
D) Divergent
Answer: B
Q3) Which DNA sequence is complementary to 5'GATTCTCAAAGGACT3'?
A) 5'GATTCTCAAAGGACT3'
B) 3'GATTCTCAAAGGACT5'
C) 3'CTAAGAGTTTCCTGA5'
D) 5'CTAAGAGTTTCCTGA3'
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA sequences that are involved in the regulation of gene expression are called:
A) Cis factors
B) Trans factors
C) Inducers
D) Repressors
Answer: A
Q2) Alteration of the nucleotide sequence of RNA after transcription is called:
A) Methylation
B) RNA silencing
C) RNA editing
D) Capping
Answer: C
Q3) The large ribosome subunit in prokaryotes consists of ribosomal proteins and:
A) 16S rRNA
B) 18S rRNA
C) 23S rRNA and 5S rRNA
D) 28S rRNA, 5S rRNA, and 5.8S rRNA
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) The collection of proteins produced by a genome is called the:
A) Proteome
B) Protease
C) Ribosome
D) Genetic code
Answer: B
Q2) In the ribosome, the growing peptide moves from site to site in what direction?
A) A to E to P
B) P to A to E
C) E to P to A
D) A to P to E
Answer: D
Q3) In early experiments, a polymer of uracil, UUUUUUUU , translated into a peptide comprising only phenylalanine amino acids. What did this observation demonstrate?
A) Uracil is not a functional nucleotide.
B) UUU codes for phenylalanine.
C) RNA cannot be faithfully translated in vitro.
D) No other amino acid codon contains uracil.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Nucleic Acid Extraction Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) PolyT oligomers bound to a matrix resin column will selectively isolate which of the following?
A) Ribosomal RNA
B) GC-rich DNA
C) Transfer RNA
D) Messenger RNA
Q2) Isolated DNA has an absorbance at 260 nm of 0.268 and an absorbance at 280 nm of 0.191. What is the 260 nm/280 nm ratio?
A) 1:2
B) 1:4
C) 1:6
D) 1:8
Q3) What is the yield of DNA from a sample with concentration of 280 \(\mu\)g/mL and a volume of 0.5 mL?
A) 70 \(\mu\)g
B) 140 \(\mu\)g
C) 280 \(\mu\)g
D) 560 \(\mu\)g
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Chapter 5: Resolution and Detection of Nucleic Acids
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does one prepare a 2% agarose gel?
A) Mix 0.01 g agarose/mL running buffer and heat.
B) Mix 0.02 g agarose/mL running buffer and heat.
C) Mix 2 g agarose/mL running buffer and heat.
D) Mix 1 g agarose/mL running buffer and heat.
Q2) What is an advantage of agarose over polyacrylamide gels?
A) Agarose is more stable than polyacrylamide.
B) Agarose monomers are not toxic.
C) Acrylamide takes a long time to polymerize.
D) Polyacrylamide gels must be used immediately after polymerization.
Q3) To separate a mixture of oligonucleotides with a resolution between bands of 1 bp, which of the following methods should be used?
A) Contour-clamped homogeneous electric field
B) Rotating gel electrophoresis
C) Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
D) Traditional agarose gel electrophoresis
Q4) Nucleic acids migrate toward which pole in electrophoresis?
A) Cathode
B) Anode
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Chapter 6: Analysis and Characterization of Nucleic Acids and Proteins
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Q1) What is learned from the size of restriction fragments as determined by migration speed in gel electrophoresis?
A) The specificity of the restriction enzyme
B) The distance between restriction enzyme recognition sites
C) The rate of digestion of the enzyme
D) The number of restriction sites in the DNA
Q2) How do gene expression arrays differ from comparative genome hybridization (CGH) arrays?
A) CGH arrays detect gain or loss of DNA regions; gene expression arrays detect changes in gene expression.
B) CGH arrays can interrogate hundreds of genes, while gene expression arrays test thousands.
C) CGH arrays are simpler to perform than gene expression arrays.
D) CGH arrays require co-hybridization with comparative reference nucleic acid, while gene expression arrays do not.
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Chapter 7: Nucleic Acid Amplification
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Q1) In PCR, an instrument is used to increase and decrease the temperature at set intervals as programmed by the technologist in order to:
A) Prevent the Taq polymerase from being denatured
B) Avoid the formation of primer dimers on a post-PCR gel image
C) Determine the reaction that is occurring in the sample
D) Neutralize potential contamination from previous amplicons
Q2) In which of the following nucleic acid amplification procedures is a hybrid nucleic acid labeled with detectable signal?
A) Polymerase chain reaction
B) Strand displacement amplification
C) Transcription-mediated amplification
D) Hybrid capture assay
Q3) Transcription-mediated amplification obtains:
A) DNA from RNA
B) RNA from DNA
C) DNA from DNA
D) DNA from RNA and RNA from DNA
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Chapter 8: Chromosomal Structure and Chromosomal Mutations
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Q1) Comparative genome hybridization detects which type of genetic abnormalities?
A) Amplifications relative to reference DNA
B) Absolute gene numbers
C) Inversions
D) Amino acid substitutions
Q2) The short arm of the chromosome is designated as which of the following?
A) o
B) p
C) q
D) r
Q3) A reciprocal translocation is which type of mutation?
A) Gene
B) Genome
C) Chromosome
D) Nucleotide
Q4) Which is the proper order for the four phases of the cell cycle?
A) G1, S, M, G2
B) G1, S, G2, M
C) G2, S, M, G1
D) M, S, G1, G2
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Chapter 9: Gene Mutations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the g designate in g.225A>C?
A) Gene sequence
B) Gradient
C) Genomic sequence
D) Genetic
Q2) A reference segment of DNA has the following sequence: GCTCACCATGG. The fourth nucleotide is changed to an A in a particular genetic disease. How would this mutation be denoted?
A) 4C>A
B) 8A>C
C) 4delC
D) C4A
Q3) Which of the following methods has the highest sensitivity, specificity, and accuracy as far as detecting DNA mutations in clinical applications?
A) ELISA
B) High-density oligonucleotide array
C) PCR-RFLP
D) Single-strand conformation polymorphism
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11
Chapter 10: DNA Sequencing
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Q1) Dye terminator sequencing has been performed using capillary electrophoresis to separate the fragments. ddATP has been labeled with a "green" fluor, ddTTP with "red," ddCTP with "blue," and ddGTP with "black." The colors are detected in the following order: red, green, black, red, green, blue, red, black, black, green, blue. What is the sequence of this fragment?
A) TCGTCATGGAC
B) GCTACGTAATG
C) CAGGTCATGAT
D) TAGTACTGGAC
Q2) What part of the human genome accounts for encoded proteins?
A) 75%
B) 50%
C) 10%
D) 2%
Q3) An analysis that takes place in silico is happening in which of the following places?
A) Computer
B) Laboratory
C) Biological organism
D) Tissue
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Page 12
Chapter 11: DNA Polymorphisms and Human Identification
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Q1) The uniqueness of mitochondrial and Y-STR alleles is expressed by what measure?
A) Matching probability
B) Discriminatory capacity
C) Recombination frequency
D) Linkage to autosomal loci
Q2) Mitochondrial polymorphisms used for human identification are found in what part of the mitochondrial genome?
A) In the mitochondrial tRNA genes
B) At the origin of transcription
C) In the hypervariable regions
D) Anywhere on the circular genome
Q3) An individual who has two populations of cells that were derived from two different zygotes is called a:
A) Chimera
B) Mosaic
C) Clone
D) Mutant
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13
Chapter 12: Detection and Identification of Microorganisms
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Q1) Which of the following targets are used to type molds?
A) ITS
B) 16s RNA
C) ERIC
D) REP
Q2) The ability of a typing method to distinguish between unrelated strains is which of the following criteria?
A) Ease of use
B) Discriminatory power
C) Reproducibility
D) Ease of interpretation
Q3) A positive control is added (spiked) into a test specimen. The test results of the specimen alone and the spiked mixture are negative. What does this most likely indicate?
A) The specimen is negative.
B) The specimen is positive.
C) The specimen contains an inhibitor.
D) The positive control contains an inhibitor.
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14
Chapter 13: Molecular Detection of Inherited Diseases
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Q1) A deceased family member is indicated in a pedigree by which of the following?
A) Triangle
B) Shaded symbol
C) Slash through the symbol
D) X across the symbol
Q2) A (F508del) mutation in the CFTRgene is responsible for causing which of the following diseases?
A) Idiopathic congenital central hypoventilation syndrome
B) Friedreich's ataxia
C) Cystic fibrosis
D) Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy
Q3) Mitochondrial mutations primarily affect which of the following tissues?
A) Skin
B) Bone
C) Muscle
D) Lung
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Molecular Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) This gene is frequently tested with K-ras and works on the same pathway downstream of K-ras in colon cancer.
A) HER2/neu
B) B-raf
C) N-ras
D) EGFR
Q2) This test is used to determine if the mismatch repair system is functioning normally.
A) Translocation of DNA between chromosomes
B) Microsatellite instability
C) Clonality of immunoglobulin gene rearrangements
D) Overexpression of Her2/neu
Q3) A patient is suspected of having follicular lymphoma, and his physician would like additional laboratory tests performed to confirm or rule out the diagnosis. Which of the following tests should be performed?
A) T-cell receptor gene rearrangement clonality
B) t(9;22) translocation
C) t(14;18) translocation
D) t(11;14) translocation
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Chapter 15: DNA-Based Tissue Typing
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Q1) In accepted HLA nomenclature for identifying HLA alleles by DNA sequence information, the fourth specific allele of the HLA-A31 family would be noted as which of the following?
A) HLA-A*31:04
B) HLA-A*04:31
C) HLA-A*31-04
D) HLA-A*04:-1
Q2) Which is in the MHC class II region?
A) HLA-A
B) Complement C2
C) TNF-alpha
D) HLA-D
Q3) Which are used in crossmatching for organ transplant?
A) Donor serum and recipient lymphocytes
B) Recipient serum and donor lymphocytes
C) Donor serum and recipient serum
D) Donor lymphocytes and recipient lymphocytes
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Chapter 16: Quality Assurance and Quality Control in the Molecular Laboratory
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Q1) Which of the following controls defines the lower limit of reproducible and accurate detection of a molecular target?
A) Positive
B) Negative
C) Sensitivity
D) Amplification
Q2) An unlabeled bottle of clear liquid is found on a shelf. A sign on the shelf says, "Tris-EDTA Buffer, pH 8.0." What is the proper course of action?
A) Use the liquid as Tris-EDTA.
B) Taste the liquid to make sure it isn't saline.
C) Dispose of the liquid.
D) Measure the pH. If it is 8.0, proceed to use the liquid as Tris-EDTA.
Q3) A quantitative method was performed 100 times, and results from 99 of the 100 runs were in agreement with each other. This method has 99%:
A) Precision
B) Specificity
C) Sensitivity
D) Accuracy
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