

Biotechnology Test Bank
Course Introduction
Biotechnology explores the use of living organisms, cells, and biological systems to develop products and technologies that address challenges in fields such as agriculture, medicine, and environmental management. This course covers foundational concepts including genetic engineering, molecular biology techniques, recombinant DNA technology, bioprocessing, and bioethics. Students will gain insight into real-world applications such as the production of pharmaceuticals, genetically modified crops, and novel medical diagnostics, while also considering the societal and ethical implications of biotechnological advances.
Recommended Textbook
Genetics Analysis and Principles 5th Edition by Robert Brooker
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28 Chapters
1164 Verified Questions
1164 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2464

Page 2

Chapter 1: Overview of Genetics
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48953
Sample Questions
Q1) Variation at the molecular level of a gene is called a(n) _________.
A) nucleotide
B) chromosome
C) allele
D) trait
E) None of the answers are correct
Answer: C
Q2) A characteristic that an organism displays is called __________.
A) a gene
B) a chromosome
C) DNA
D) gene expression
E) a trait
Answer: E
Q3) DNA stores the information needed for the synthesis of cellular _______.
A)proteins
B)carbohydrates
C)lipids
Answer: A
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Page 3

Chapter 2: Mendelian Inheritance
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65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mendel's work with single-factor crosses resulted in the development of which of the following?
A)Law of segregation
B)Law of independent assortment
C)Theory of natural selection
D)Law of biological evolution
E)All of the answers are correct
Answer: A
Q2) A cross in which a researcher investigates the patterns of inheritance of a single trait is called a ____.
A)monohybrid cross
B)dihybrid cross
C)two-factor cross
D)cross-fertilization
E)self-fertilization
Answer: A
Q3) The Chi-square test is used to prove that a hypothesis is correct.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Chromosome Transmission During Cell Division and
Sexual Reproduction
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A karyotype is a(n) __________.
A)organelle of eukaryotic cells.
B)stage of prophase I in meiosis.
C)division of the cytoplasmic material following mitosis.
D)organized representation of the chromosomes within a cell.
E)None of the answers are correct
Answer: D
Q2) The process of crossing over occurs during which phase of meiosis?
A)Diakinesis
B)Diplotene
C)Pachytene
D)Zygotene
E)Leptotene
Answer: C
Q3) A bivalent contains how many chromatids?
A)2
B)4
C)8
D)Depends on the cell
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Extensions of Mendelian Inheritance
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Variable expressivity means that the phenotype of a trait can vary between individuals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Paralogs are often functionally redundant and can compensate for the loss of either of the paralogs in a set.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The multiple effects of a single gene on the phenotype of an organism is called _______.
A)epistasis
B)penetrance
C)expressivity
D)overdominance
E) pleiotropy
Q4) Typically, a recessive allele increases the expression of a functional protein.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Non-Mendelian Inheritance
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which cells do erasure and re-establishment of imprinting marks typically NOT occur?
A)Nurse cells
B)Sperm cells
C)Oocytes
D)Somatic cells
Q2) What genes appear to be controlled by the Xic?
A)Xist and Tsix
B)Xist only
C)Tsix only
D)None of these
Q3) The Lyon hypothesis attempts to explain the molecular mechanism of _____.
A) X-inactivation
B) genomic imprinting
C) maternal inheritance
D) extranuclear inheritance
Q4) Both parents usually imprint the same gene.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Genetic Linkage and Mapping in Eukaryotes
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The visual proof that chromosomes exchange pieces of information during crossing over was provided by __________.
A)Bateson and Punnett
B)Morgan and Bridges
C)Creighton and McClintock
D)Watson and Crick
Q2) A map distance of 23.6 between two genes indicates which of the following?
A)The genes are 23.6 millimeters apart
B)There are 23.6 other genes between the two genes of interest
C)23.6% of the offspring exhibit recombination between the two genes
D)23.6% of the offspring do not survive
Q3) Which of the following defines the principle of linkage?
A)Two or more genes that are physically connected on a chromosome
B)Genes that are transmitted to the next generation as a group
C)The process by which genetic information is exchanged between homologous chromosomes
D)All of the answers are correct
E)Both two or more genes that are physically connected on a chromosome and genes that are transmitted to the next generation as a group
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Page 8

Chapter 7: Genetic Transfer and Mapping in Bacteria and Bacteriophages
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A minute is the basic unit of map distance in bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The transfer of genetic material from two unrelated species is called ________.
A) Vertical gene transfer
B) Conjugation
C) Sexual reproduction
D) Binary fission
E) Horizontal gene transfer
Q3) Which of the following is inhibited by DNAse?
A) Transformation
B) Conjugation
C) Transduction
D) None of the answers are correct
Q4) Which of the following represents a mechanism of genetic transfer in bacteria?
A) Transformation
B) Transduction
C) Conjugation
D) All of the answers are correct
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Chapter 8: Variation in Chromosome Structure and Number
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Given the following sequence of genes on a chromosome, determine what change in chromosome structure occurred. (the * indicates the centromere) before A B C D * E F G H
After A B G F E * D C H
A)Reciprocal translocation
B)Pericentric inversion
C)Paracentric inversion
D)Gene duplication
E)None of the answers are correct
Q2) Which human cells exhibit endopolyploidy?
A)Sex cells
B)Nerve cells
C)All somatic cells
D)Liver cells
E)Red blood cells
Q3) Translocations and inversions represent a change in the total genetic material of a chromosome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Molecular Structure of DNA and RNA
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41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which base is not found in DNA?
A)Cytosine
B)Guanine
C)Thymidine
D)Adenine
E)Uracil
Q2) An RNA strand with sequence 5'-GUACAAUGACUUAUGUAC-3' can potentially form which structure?
A)bulge loop
B)internal loop
C)multibranched junction
D)stem-loop
Q3) The individuals who determined that Griffith's transforming principle was DNA were __________.
A) Hershey and Chase
B) Avery, Macleod, and McCarty
C) Watson and Crick
D) Creighton and McClintock
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11

Chapter 10: Chromosome Organization and Molecular Structure
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would introduce more twists into the DNA molecule of a bacterial cell?
A)Negative super coiling
B)Positive super coiling
C)Chromatin remodeling
D)All of the answers are correct
Q2) Digesting chromatin with a high concentration of DNAse I would yield fragments of what approximate size?
A)200
B)400
C)600
D)1100
Q3) How many types of histone proteins are there?
A)4
B)5
C)7
D)8
Q4) The majority of bacterial DNA is negatively super coiled.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: DNA Replication
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48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Responsible for the majority of DNA replication.
A)DNA ligase
B)DNA primase
C)Topoisomerase
D)DNA polymerase I
E)DNA polymerase III
Q2) You extract DNA from an E.coli cell and observe it is hemi-methylated.Which strand of DNA is older?
A)The methylated strand
B)The strand that is not methylated
C)Neither-they are the same "age."
Q3) You have discovered a strain of
A)\(\alpha\)
B)\(\beta\)
C)\(\varepsilon\)
D)\(\sigma\)
E)coli that grows very slowly-the generation time is nearly 12 hours compared to the normal 20-30 minutes.Upon further investigation, you find a mutation in the DNA polymerase III gene.What subunit of the holoenzyme does this mutation affect the most?
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Gene Transcription and RNA Modification
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What do both the rho-dependent and rho-independent mechanisms of termination have in common?
A)Terminate transcription immediately after the stop codon
B)A sequence rich with A-U base pairs
C)Both require a helicase to separate the DNA-RNA complex
D)Formation of a stem-loop structure
Q2) What is the purpose of phosphorylating the carboxy terminal domain (CTD)?
A)Convert from initiation to the elongation stage
B)To aid in transcriptional initiation
C)Phosphorylate transcription factors
D)To aid in promoter recognition
Q3) Which RNA encodes the sequence of amino acids for a functional protein?
A)tRNA
B)snRNA
C)mRNA
D)rRNA
E)scRNA
Q4) The term ribozyme is given to catalytic RNA molecules.
A)True
B)False

14
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Chapter 13: Translation of MRNA
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the amino acid that has been activated by aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.
A)Amino acid · ATP · aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
B)Amino acid · aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
C)Amino acid + AMP + PPi
D)Amino acid · AMP
Q2) A tRNA that has an amino acid attached is called _____.
A)an rRNA
B)a degenerate tRNA
C)a coding tRNA
D)a charged tRNA
E)None of the answers are correct
Q3) The decoding function is conducted by
A)the 16S rRNA.
B)tRNA.
C)mRNA.
D)snRNA.
E) aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.
Q4) The structure of the ribosome is uniform throughout a eukaryotic cell.
A)True
B)False

Page 15
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Chapter 14: Gene Regulation in Bacteria
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A deletion in an operon removes the promoter. How will that affect the transcript that is produced from the operon?
A)The transcript will be produced and normal in length
B)The transcript will be produced, but shorter than normal
C)The transcript will be produced, but longer than normal
D)The transcript will produced, but will contain a deletion
E) The transcript will not be produced
Q2) An activator is present and results in the increase in transcription of the target gene. This is an example of _______________.
A)termination
B)positive control
C)negative control
D)feedback inhibition
Q3) Enzymes involved in metabolism are most likely regulated via _____.
A) feedback inhibition
B) acetylation
C) methylation
D) none of the answers are correct
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Chapter 15: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes I: Transcriptional Regulation
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What basal transcription factor is most often affected by regulatory transcription factors?
A)TFIIB
B)TFIID
C)TFIIE
D)TFIIF
Q2) DNA methylation usually activates gene expression.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Activator proteins bind to silencer sequences and repressor proteins bind to enhancer sequences.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is a major finding from the ENCODE project?
A)DNA methylation usually signifies the activation of gene expression.
B)In humans, one gene encodes exactly one protein.
C)Gene regulation is achieved through a complex network of regulatory regions throughout the genome.
D)Less than 20% of human DNA is linked to biological function.
E) There are more than 10 million regulatory sites in human DNA.
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Chapter 16: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes II: Epigenetics and
Regulation at the RNA Level
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a human cell has two Barr bodies then the genotype of the individual could be
A) XXXY.
B) XXXXY.
C) XXY.
D) XYY.
Q2) Both parents usually imprint the same gene.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the Igf-2 allele, which chromosome is imprinted? Which is expressed?
A)Paternal, paternal
B)Paternal, maternal
C)Maternal, paternal
D)Maternal, maternal
Q4) Epigenetic inheritance may occur at which of the following stages?
A)Oogenesis
B)Spermatogenesis
C)Embryogenesis
D)All of the answers are correct
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Chapter 17: Genetics of Viruses
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Latency in HIV occurs when
A)the virus switches back to an active form.
B)new viral particles are made.
C)the viral genome forms an episome and remains dormant.
D)the virus integrates into the host genome and remains dormant.
Q2) When phage \(\lambda\) enters the lytic cycle
A)many new copies of the phage genetic material and coat proteins are assembled to make new phages.The host cell is lysed.
B)many new copies of the phage genetic material and coat proteins are assembled to make new phages.The host cell remains intact.
C)the genetic material of the phage is integrated into the chromosome of the bacterium.
D)it immediately lyses the host cells without producing any new viruses.
Q3) Because tobacco mosaic virus has an RNA genome, it must encode a reverse transcriptase.
A)True
B)False
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19
Chapter 18: Gene Mutation and Dna Repair
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Silent mutations are possible due to the degenerate nature of the genetic code.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most common genotype in a population is called the mutant genotype.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The mutation frequency is the ratio of the number of mutant alleles to the total number of alleles in a given population.
A)True
B)False
Q4) HRR usually uses a sister chromatid.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The Ames test may be used to determine if an agent is a mutagen.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Ethyl methanesulfonate (EMS) is an example of a deaminating agent.
A)True
B)False

Page 20
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Chapter 19: Recombination and Transposition at the
Molecular Level
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35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The individual who first proposed the existence of transposable elements was ____.
A)Sturtevant
B)Morgan
C)McClintock
D)Franklin
E)Watson
Q2) Which of the following is technically not part of the genetic information of a transposable element?
A)Long-terminal repeats
B)Inverted repeats
C)Direct repeats
D)Transposase
Q3) Which of the following genes was mobile in McClintock's experiments with mutable sites in corn?
A)Ds
B)C
C)Sh
D)Wx
E)All of the answers are correct

Page 21
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Chapter 20: DNA Technologies
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A plasmid that contains separate origins of replication for two different species is called a(n) _________.
A)R factor
B)expression vector
C)viral vector
D)shuttle vector
Q2) What is one component that is needed to perform a PCR?
A)primers
B)DNA ligase
C)RNA polymerase
D)deoxynucleoside triphosphates
Q3) A cDNA library differs from a genomic DNA library in which way?
A)It consists solely of RNA molecules
B)It contains many copies of the gene of interest
C)It contains only coding sequences, not introns
D)It is typically 10-100 times the size of a DNA library
Q4) What contains both vector DNA and chromosomal DNA?
A)recircularized vectors
B)recombinant vectors
C)open vectors
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Chapter 21: Biotechnology
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bioremediation has been used to treat which of the following?
A)Oil spills
B)Sewage
C)Pesticides
D)Heavy metals
E)All of the answers have been successfully remediated
Q2) Which of the following terms represents a cell that can form any other cell of the organism?
A)Pluripotent
B)Totipotent
C)Unipotent
Q3) The first hormone to be made by recombinant bacteria was ____.
A)Insulin
B)Glucagon
C)Somatostatin
D)Testosterone
Q4) The reduction of pollutants in the environment by microorganisms is called biodegradation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Genomics I: Analysis of DNA
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32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An amplified restriction fragment length polymorphism is a combination of the procedures for producing RFLP and STS markers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following samples would NOT be suitable for a metagenomics-based approach?
A)Water samples from different bodies of water with different temperatures, salinities, and acidities
B)A soil sample from a farm where a new planting schedule has been implemented
C)A water sample from an industrial site that has been contaminated with pollutants
D)A fecal sample from a patient with irritable bowel syndrome
E) A homogenous population of skin cancer cells collected from a patient biopsy
Q3) If all members of a population have the identical DNA sequence at a given site, that site is said to be _______.
A)Monomorphic
B)Polymorphic
C)Trimorphic
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24

Chapter 23: Genomics II: Functional Genomics, Proteomics, and Bioinformatics
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which technique can be used to identify a protein of interest after a two-dimensional gel electrophoresis experiment?
A)DNA microarray
B)Treatment with reverse transcriptase to isolate the DNA of interest
C)BLAST analysis
D)Mass spectrometry
Q2) DNA microarrays may be paired with chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChIP) to
A)assay the use of substrates by different enzymes.
B)determine mRNA folding patterns
C)identify DNA sequences bound by specific proteins.
D)identify protein-protein interactions.
Q3) What field of study of genetics applies statistics and mathematical tools to genetic sequences in order to better understand the genetic information?
A)Structural genomics
B)Functional genomics
C)Proteomics
D)Bioinformatics
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Page 25

Chapter 24: Medical Genetics and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is p53?
A)A caspase
B)A proto-oncogene
C)A transcription factor
D)A tumor suppressing gene
E)None of the answers are correct
Q2) In a disease that is associated with a single recessive allele, the concordance among dizygotic twins should be ____, assuming both parents are heterozygous carriers.
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
E)100%
Q3) The age at which a disease appears in an organism is called the _______.
A) null age
B) critical age
C) age of incubation
D) age of onset
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Developmental Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hox complexes in mammals are homologous to invertebrate ______ .
A)zygotic genes
B)segmentation genes
C)homeotic genes
D)maternal effect genes
Q2) A
C.elegans with a heterochronic mutation in lin-14 will lay eggs normally.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A Drosophila larva that develops from an oocyte that has no bicoid mRNA will have what developmental defect?
A)only ventral structures
B)no dorsal structures
C)only anterior structures
D)only posterior structures
Q4) What gene must be expressed in a Drosophila for it to develop into a female fly?
A)SRY
B)Hox
C)SXL
D)sex-1

Page 27
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Chapter 26: Population Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The probability that a gene will be altered by a mutation is called the mutation rate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a certain population, the frequency of allele A is 0.3 and the frequency of allele a is 0.7. The population inbreeds such that f = 0.1. What is the frequency of each genotype in the population?
A)AA: 0.09, Aa: 0.42, aa: 0.49
B)AA: 0.49, Aa: 0.42, aa: 0.09
C)AA: 0.01, Aa: 0.90, aa: 0.09
D)AA: 0.111, Aa: 0.378, aa: 0.511
E) AA: 0.21, Aa: 0.42, aa: 0.37
Q3) The degree of relatedness of two members of a pedigree is calculated using _____.
A)The calculation of average heterozygosity
B)The Hardy-Weinberg rule
C)The coefficient of inbreeding
D)The chi-square test
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28

Chapter 27: Quantitative Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of phenotypic variation in a group that is due to genetic variation is called heritability.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The sum of all of the values for a trait, divided by the total number of individuals, is called the standard deviation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) After calculating a correlation coefficient you discover that the value is not significant at the 5% level. What can be done to produce a significant difference?
A)Increase the sample size
B)Decrease the sample size
C)Nothing, the value will remain the same regardless of sample size
Q4) Heterosis is _______.
A)the combination of lethal alleles due to inbreeding
B)an increased vigor of hybrids resulting from the crossing of inbred strains
C)a measurement of the variance due to environmental factors
D)the result of homozygosity of multiple, dominant, detrimental alleles.
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Chapter 28: Evolutionary Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proteins that are functionally less important for the survival of an organism generally evolve _____ more important proteins.
A)more slowly than B)more quickly than C)at the same rate as
Q2) Regions of a chromosome that contain groups of linked genes in several species are called ____.
A)linkage groups
B)synteny groups
C)regression groups
D)homology groups
Q3) Many species of cats (including big cats like lions, tigers, etc.) have tails. For cats, tails are likely to be a ______.
A)synapomorphy
B)shared derived character
C)ancestral character
D)clade
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