Biotechnology Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Biotechnology is an interdisciplinary course that explores the use of biological systems, living organisms, or their derivatives to develop innovative products and technologies for a variety of applications, including healthcare, agriculture, and industry. The course covers foundational concepts in molecular biology, genetics, and microbiology, while introducing techniques such as genetic engineering, cloning, and bioinformatics.
Students will examine current and emerging trends in biotechnology, ethical considerations, and the regulatory framework governing research and commercialization. Through lectures, laboratory experiments, and case studies, students gain practical skills and a comprehensive understanding of biotechnologys role in addressing real-world problems.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Evolving Science 4th Edition by John W. Foster
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Chapter 1: Microbial Life: Origin and Discovery
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Q1) What is the significance of the work of Ignaz Semmelweis and Joseph Lister?
Answer: They showed that use of antiseptics on doctors' hands and medical instruments drastically reduced the mortality rate of hospital patients. They made these observations before Robert Koch's germ theory of disease.
Q2) Define the term "endosymbiont" and give an example of an endosymbiotic relationship found in nature.
Answer: An endosymbiont is an organism living symbiotically inside a larger organism. Examples may vary, but include the following: Rhizobium in a leguminous plant, bioluminescent bacteria in the light organs of fish and squid, and photosynthetic algae and coral.
Q3) How do microbes help in the extraction of minerals?
Answer: Several lithotrophic bacteria help in the rapid oxidation of minerals, which generates strong acids that expedite the breakdown of mineral ore. Currently, approximately 20% of the world's copper, as well as some uranium and zinc, is produced by bacterial leaching.
Q4) How are prokaryotes and eukaryotes different?
Answer: A prokaryote lacks a nucleus and membrane-bounded organelles, whereas a eukaryote has a nucleus and membrane-bounded organelles.
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Chapter 2: Observing the Microbial Cell
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Q1) Which type of microscopy is particularly useful to study the surfaces of live bacteria?
A) atomic force
B) scanning electron
C) transmission electron
D) dark-field
E) bright-field
Answer: A
Q2) Describe three methods of sample preparation for electron microscopy. Which method would cause the fewest artifacts? Why?
Answer: (1) Samples can be embedded in a polymer and cut into thin sections with a microtome, then coated with a heavy metal. (2) Samples can be sprayed onto a copper grid, then treated with a heavy metal. (3) Samples may be flash frozen for cryo-electron microscopy. Cryo-electron microscopy will cause the fewest artifacts. When using this technique, the cells are not fixed or artificially stained. Instead, the cells are flash frozen-leaving the cell components still hydrated and closest to their original state.
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) Which of the following is true of Fts proteins?
A) They form a ring in the area where cell division will occur.
B) They aid in DNA replication.
C) They are involved in peptidoglycan synthesis.
D) They are involved in making proteins.
E) They are important in transcription.
Answer: A
Q2) What unusual lipids are found in mycobacteria, and of what benefit are they to these bacteria?
Answer: Mycobacteria contain mycolic acids and phenolic glycolipids in their cell envelope. The mycolic acids are responsible for the acid-fastness of the bacteria, an important tool in identification. The bilayer formed by the mycolic acids, interleaved with the phenol derivatives, affords the organism a waxiness. This prevents phagocytosis by macrophages and also excludes many antibiotics.
Q3) Describe the types of molecules that can move through a membrane via passive diffusion.
Answer: Small uncharged molecules such as water, oxygen, and carbon dioxide can move through a membrane via passive diffusion.
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Chapter 4: Bacterial Culture, Growth, and Development
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Q1) Some bacteria form environmentally resistant dormant forms called A) endospores.
B) heterocysts.
C) colonies.
D) hyphae.
E) actinomycetes.
Q2) Which of the following prokaryotic transport systems does NOT require the use of cellular energy to bring compounds into the cells?
A) facilitated diffusion
B) ABC transport
C) siderophores
D) group translocation
E) endocytosis
Q3) How do scientists know of the existence of "unculturable" organisms?
Q4) Bacteria divide at a constant time interval called the A) generation time.
B) growth time.
C) growth rate.
D) exponential rate.
E) log phase.
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Chapter 5: Environmental Influences and Control of
Microbial Growth
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Q1) Describe one method that enables researchers to study extremophilic organisms that we cannot culture in the laboratory.
Q2) An organism that grows at the top of a tube of medium containing thioglycolate is probably a(n)
A) strict aerobe.
B) facultative anaerobe.
C) aerotolerant anaerobe.
D) microaerophile.
E) strict anaerobe.
Q3) Most bacteria require water activity to be greater than A) 0.10.
B) 0.25.
C) 0.74.
D) 0.91.
E) 1.0.
Q4) How does pH affect proteins? Why do proteins have an optimum, minimum, and maximum pH at which they will function?
Q5) Why is moist heat more efficient at killing microbes than dry heat? How does an autoclave kill microbes so efficiently?
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Chapter 6: Viruses
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Q1) Which structure of a virion protects it from degradation and enables it to be transmitted outside the host?
A) capsule
B) capsid
C) envelope
D) nucleus
E) spikes
Q2) All of the following are true about the measles virus EXCEPT that it
A) is encased by an envelope of membrane.
B) fuses with the host cell membrane during infection.
C) has progeny that bud out of the host cell.
D) generates a rash of red spots on the skin of infected patients.
E) is never fatal.
Q3) The genome of ________ ssRNA viruses can serve directly as mRNA.
A) positive-sense (+)
B) negative-sense (-)
C) all
D) double-stranded
E) prion
Q4) How can a virus be used to transfer genes from one bacterial cell to another?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Genomes and Chromosomes
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Q1) Eukaryotic chromosomes are ________, contained within a nucleus, and they contain DNA associated to a core of histone proteins called the ________.
A) linear; proteasome
B) linear; nucleosome
C) circular; centromere
D) circular; nucleosome
E) circular; capsid
Q2) Agarose gel electrophoresis separates pieces of linear DNA based on A) size.
B) charge.
C) sequence.
D) degree of supercoiling.
E) extent of methylation.
Q3) How are archaeal genomes and gene expression mechanisms similar to both bacterial and eukaryotic genomes?
Q4) Describe three practical applications of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and possible pitfalls.
Q5) How does a restriction-modification system avoid the destruction of a bacterium¢s own genome while breaking down foreign DNA?
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Chapter 8: Transcription, Translation, and Bioinformatics
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Q1) Genes that have arisen from a duplication within a species and have evolved to carry out different functions are referred to as
A) homologs.
B) orthologs.
C) paralogs.
D) homogenous.
E) synonymous.
Q2) After ________, each polypeptide must be properly folded and placed at the correct cellular or extracellular location.
A) replication
B) transcription
C) translation
D) degradation
E) conjugation
Q3) Examine the DNA sequence shown below. How many possible reading frames does this piece of DNA have? Explain where they are. Which one can be used and how do you know?
5'-AGTCGATCGAACGGTCATCG-3'
3'-TCAGCTAGCTTGCCAGTAGC-5'
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer, Mutations, and Genome
Evolution
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Q1) The transformasome necessary for cell competency in Gram-positive bacteria is regulated using which of the following methods?
A) an alternative sigma factor to transcribe the necessary genes
B) a repressor protein to keep the genes turned off
C) induction in the presence of fertility factors
D) each gene has an attenuator
E) use of a restriction-modification system
Q2) The difference between generalized and specialized transduction is
A) the size of the plasmids being moved.
B) the size of the phages being used.
C) that in generalized transduction, chromosomes are moved, whereas in specialized transduction, plasmids are moved.
D) that in generalized transduction, any DNA can be moved, but with specialized transduction, only certain DNA near the phage site can be moved.
E) There is no difference.
Q3) Describe four of the informational classes of mutations.
Q4) Outline any three characteristics of the human gastrointestinal tract that makes it an ideal environment for genetic exchange.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Molecular Regulation
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Q1) Finding an inverted repeated sequence within 100-200 bases of a promoter suggests the presence of a ________ binding site.
A) DNA
B) transcriptional regulator
C) RNA
D) ribosome
E) corepressor
Q2) Which of the following is a technique used in studying the proteome of an organism?
A) knowing the DNA sequence to predict the amino acid sequence
B) predicting the protein sequence by using the mRNA sequence
C) two-dimensional protein gels followed by mass spec of the proteins
D) obtaining cDNA and then probing a DNA microarray
E) digesting a cell extract with trypsin
Q3) Glucose transport into the cell brings about a phenomenon known as inducer exclusion.
Describe how this functions with respect to the lac operon.
Q4) Explain what happens to motility when a chemoattractant is added to bacterial cells.
Q5) Explain a way that organisms sense and respond to their environment.
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Chapter 11: Viral Molecular Biology
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Q1) Approximately 60%-80% of Americans acquire herpes simplex, usually HSV-1, in epithelial lesions commonly known as A) chancres.
B) pox.
C) cold sores.
D) shingles.
E) hives.
Q2) Glycosylation and packaging of the HIV env proteins occur in the A) endoplasmic reticulum.
B) nucleus.
C) membrane.
D) Golgi.
E) cytoplasm.
Q3) Which of the following primers for nucleic acid replication is linked to the appropriate virus?
A) M2 and poliovirus
B) host caps and poliovirus
C) VPg and influenza virus
D) virus tRNA and herpes virus
E) host tRNA and HIV
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Chapter 12: Biotechniques and Synthetic Biology
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Q1) What is synthetic biology? Provide an example of its potential applications.
Q2) In the first stage of the western blot procedure, a technique known as SDS-PAGE is used to separate proteins according to their
A) isoelectric points.
B) quaternary structures.
C) molecular weights.
D) amino acid sequences.
E) secondary structure compositions.
Q3) The phenomenon that allows a quencher dye to reduce the fluorescence of the reporter dye in real-time PCR techniques is called
A) nuclear magnetic resonance.
B) fluorescence resonance energy transfer (FRET).
C) atomic force tunneling.
D) magnetic resonance imaging.
E) random nicking.
Q4) Both southern and northern blots involve the use of agarose gels. How do the types of agarose gels differ and why?
Q5) Describe the whole-genome DNA-binding analysis using ChIP-on-chip technology.
Q6) What is the conceptual basis of the primer extension technique?
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Energetics and Catabolism
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Q1) Some bacteria in the human gut microbiota primarily feed on glucose derivatives from mucus secretions. Which of the following is NOT correct with respect to "mucus farming" by bacteria?
A) Bacteroides thetaiotaomicron and other bacteria induce the colon to produce mucus.
B) Mucus-derived sugar acids are metabolized via the Entner-Doudoroff pathway.
C) Sugar acids must be converted to 6-phosphogluconate in order to enter the Entner-Doudoroff pathway.
D) The glucose derivatives are converted to glucose and degraded via the Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas pathway.
E) This metabolism has been studied via genomics and genetic studies.
Q2) All of the following are reasons to oxidize glucose in a series of steps EXCEPT to A) generate smaller amounts of energy in a controlled fashion and when needed.
B) control the usage of energy in a cell by using more steps.
C) minimize the release of heat with more small steps.
D) control the catabolism versus biosynthetic aspects of oxidizing glucose via concentrations of reactants and end products.
E) increase the DG of the reaction.
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Chapter 14: Electron Flow in Organotrophy,
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Q1) The chemiosmotic theory states that the proton potential is composed of
A) [ATP] and [ADP]+[Pi].
B) a pH gradient and [Na+] gradient.
C) pH and pNa+.
D) DpH and DY
E) a pH gradient and a [Ca2+] wave.
Q2) The direction of the proton current in the chloroplast F F ATP synthase during ATP synthesis is from
A) stroma to cytoplasm.
B) cytoplasm to stroma.
C) lumen to stroma.
D) stroma to lumen.
E) one thylakoid to another through their lumen.
Q3) In dehalorespiration of chlorinated pollutants, the chlorine is removed and replaced by
A) hydrogen.
B) oxygen.
C) nitrogen.
D) sulfur.
E) ammonia.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Biosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT correct about fatty acid biosynthesis?
A) It involves successive condensations of malonyl-ACP.
B) A dehydratase is used to generate an unsaturated bond.
C) It is regulated by the stringent response of carbon starvation.
D) NADPH is generally involved in hydrogenation.
E) Many single-component enzymes are involved.
Q2) Briefly describe the biosynthetic pathway for arginine.
Q3) Briefly discuss how carbon molecules of different sizes can be made for biosynthesis. What else is needed and how is it obtained?
Q4) The most ancient CO fixation pathway in anaerobic phototrophic bacteria and archaea is the
A) reverse TCA cycle.
B) 3-hydroxypropionate cycle.
C) Calvin cycle.
D) reductive acetyl-CoA pathway.
E) glyoxylate bypass.
Q5) What are nonribosomal peptide antibiotics? How are they synthesized?
Q6) It is thought that the Calvin cycle appeared after the divergence of the three domains of life. What supports this hypothesis?
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Food and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Until the recent invention of ________, all foods contained live microbes.
A) steam-pressure sterilization
B) irradiation
C) lyophilization
D) freezing
E) refrigeration
Q2) Microorganisms are used in the production of many small molecules, such as amino acids, vitamins, and medicines. Which of the following is NOT produced by a bacterium?
A) steroids
B) L-lysine
C) vitamin B12
D) penicillin
E) tetracycline
Q3) The filtered mash in beer making is referred to as A) hops.
B) barley.
C) yeast extract.
D) malt.
E) wort.
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Chapter 17: Origins and Evolution
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Q1) Evidence for microbial life on Earth dates back to ________ ago.
A) 14 gigayears
B) 5 gigayears
C) 3.48 gigayears
D) 1.5 gigayears
E) 500 megayears
Q2) What trait do all cells on Earth NOT have in common?
A) double-stranded DNA
B) cell wall of varying composition
C) universal gene code, common ancestral rRNAs, and elongation factors
D) common ancestral functional domains in proteins
E) cytoplasm, an aqueous compartment enclosed by a membrane
Q3) Define the term "metagenomics" and explain why growth in this field has led to an increase in SSU rRNA species designations.
Q4) Studies on the genome of Bacillus species have revealed that Bacillus anthracis has a "closed" pan-genome, whereas Bacillus cereus has an open pan-genome. What does this mean, and why did these two species evolve in this manner?
Q5) What criteria must be met in order to prove that two bacterial strains belong in the same species?
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Chapter 18: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) Photoheterotrophs absorb light for energy, but do NOT typically
A) produce endospores.
B) generate biomass from carbohydrates.
C) fix nitrogen.
D) fix carbon dioxide.
E) grow oligotrophically.
Q2) Pseudomonas aeruginosa may form ________ in the lungs of cystic fibrosis patients.
A) sarcinae
B) filaments
C) biofilms
D) cysts
E) capsules
Q3) A trait that differentiates all Firmicutes from Actinobacteria is A) Gram stain character.
B) GC content.
C) oxygen requirements.
D) pathogenicity.
E) genome size.
Q4) What are oligotrophs? Provide two examples of oligotrophic bacteria.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Archaeal Diversity
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Q1) Bacteriorhodopsin absorbs light and pumps H ________ the cell, whereas light-activated halorhodopsin pumps chloride ________ the cell.
A) into; out of B) out of; into
C) into; into
D) out of; out of
E) through; across
Q2) Sulfolobus species are referred to as double ________, meaning they require high temperature and high acidity simultaneously.
A) extremophiles
B) thermophiles
C) acidophiles
D) hyperthermophiles
E) thermoacidophiles
Q3) What are methane gas hydrates and where are they found? Discuss the idea of benthic mining.
Q4) What are "vent polymerases," why are they better than previously used polymerases, and from where are they acquired?
Q5) What are some of the unique features of archaeal gene regulation?
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Chapter 20: Eukaryotic Diversity
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Q1) The slime mold Dictyostelium discoideum disperses spores fruiting body that are distributed by which means?
A) water currents
B) interacting with passing animals
C) air currents
D) gravity
E) piezoelectric force
Q2) Species in the genus ________ are unicellular green algae.
A) Volvox
B) Porphyra
C) Spirogyra
D) Ulva
E) Chlamydomonas
Q3) The brewer's yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae has been called a "single-celled" human because its genome of about 6,000 genes has many human homologs. Briefly describe three human cell processes that can be modeled using yeast.
Q4) Why are sponges, jellyfish, worms, reptiles, humans, yeast, and microsporidia placed in the same eukaryotic clade?
Q5) Compare and contrast radiolarians and foraminiferans.
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Chapter 21: Microbial Ecology
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Q1) The term "metagenome" was coined by Jo Handelsman and colleagues in 1998 to refer to
A) shotgun cloning.
B) screening of libraries for expression of genes.
C) the DNA sequence obtained directly from a mixture of genomes.
D) the DNA sequence taken directly from a colony.
E) all uncultured organisms from a community.
Q2) The relationship among endosymbiotic microbes in the termite gut that results in complex metabolic fluxes with a negative DG, which would NOT happen for individual members, is called
A) mutualism.
B) parasitism.
C) exothermic association.
D) predation.
E) syntrophy.
Q3) What is coral bleaching? What is its possible cause?
Q4) Compare and contrast the photic zones of freshwater lake and pelagic ecosystems.
Q5) Describe the interaction of Vibrio cholerae with copepods. How did sari cloth help decrease the incidence of cholera in Bangladesh?
Page 23
Q6) Explain the difference between assimilation and dissimilation.
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Chapter 22: Microbes in Global Elemental Cycles
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Q1) What types of bacteria will carry out nitrification?
A) lithotrophs
B) heterotrophs
C) chemoorganotrophy
D) phototrophs
E) fastidious heterotrophs
Q2) Modifications of ________ structure and composition represents a common microbial adaptation to limiting phosphorous concentrations.
A) membrane
B) protein
C) DNA
D) polysaccharide
E) the cell wall
Q3) Aeration of an environment containing microbes actively producing methane will A) increase methane release.
B) decrease methane release.
C) not affect methane release.
D) increase nitrous oxide release.
E) increase dinitrogen release.
Q4) Describe the difference between a source, sink, and reservoir of an element.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Human Microbiota and Innate Immunity
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Q1) A woman falls and suffers a cut on her leg. The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding. Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating microbes contaminating the cut?
A) mucociliary elevator
B) normal skin flora
C) acidic skin secretions
D) lysozyme
E) phagocytosis and the inflammatory response
Q2) Toll-like receptors are eukaryotic membrane proteins that bind with bacterial surface molecules and
A) form channels through which bacterial proteins can enter the eukaryotic cell.
B) cause the cell to phagocytize the bacteria.
C) cause the release of antibiotics to kill the bacteria.
D) cause the release of cytokines that trigger host defenses against the bacteria.
E) activate the complement cascade.
Q3) Why can acne be treated with antibiotics?
Q4) How can differences in gut microbiota account for obesity and leanness in humans?
Q5) Describe how natural killer cells work in response to a bacterial infection.
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Chapter 24: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) Which of the following is most likely to elicit the strongest antigen-specific immune response if injected intravenously into a mouse?
A) a sterile glucose solution
B) equine serum albumin
C) complement proteins from another mouse
D) red blood cells from a transfusion-compatible species
E) mouse antigoat antibodies
Q2) During the course of an intestinal infection with Salmonella enteritidis, the B cells undergo class switching. ________ switching is most likely to occur, which is caused by ________ cytokines.
A) IgD to IgE; B-cell
B) IgM to IgA; T-cell
C) IgG to IgM; B-cell
D) IgA to IgG; T-cell
E) IgD to IgM; T-cell
Q3) Would treating a person infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) who has recently developed acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) using a helper T-cell transfusion work? Why or why not?
Q4) Detail the benefits and predict possible risks of vaccinations.
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Chapter 25: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) Thick polysaccharide capsules are important virulence assets for
A) Escherichia coli and Vibrio cholera.
B) Clostridium tetani and Bacillus anthracis.
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Streptococcus pneumonia.
D) Salmonella spp. and Staphylococcus aureus.
E) Helicobacter pylori and Enterobacter cloacae.
Q2) Consider two isolates, A and B. Microbe A had an LD of 5 * 10 , while microbe B recorded an LD of 5 * 10 . Which isolate is more virulent?
A) unable to know based on information provided
B) microbe A
C) microbe B
D) They are equally virulent.
E) The values indicate that neither one is virulent.
Q3) The disease filariasis, commonly known as elephantiasis, is caused by a(n) A) ectoparasite.
B) endoparasite.
C) insect.
D) bacterium.
E) fungus.
Q4) Define a fomite and give at least two specific examples.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases
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Q1) Regarding the neurotoxigenic disease caused by Clostridium tetani, which of the following is NOT correct?
A) The tetanospasmin toxoid is an effective vaccine.
B) It is a spasmic paralytic disease.
C) The causative agent produces endospores.
D) Herd immunity can decrease the risk of acquiring it.
E) It inhibits neurotransmitters.
Q2) Strains of Escherichia coli that cause about 75% of all urinary tract infections use ________ to latch on to proteins coating the urinary tract epithelium.
A) sex pili
B) P pili
C) fimbrae
D) adhesins
E) glycocalyx
Q3) Describe epigenetic silencing and the role it plays in malaria.
Q4) Why is anthrax primarily, though uncommonly, found in people who work with sheep and sheep-related products?
Q5) What is the reservoir for Trichomonas vaginalis? Explain how it causes disease in the acidic vagina of females.
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Chapter 27: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) Bactericidal antibiotics include all of the following EXCEPT
A) aminoglycosides.
B) quinolones.
C) rifampins.
D) macrolides.
E) penicillins.
Q2) Why is metronidazole uneffective against an aerobic bacteria like Staphylococcus aureas?
Q3) Minimal inhibitory concentration, or MIC, is ________ concentration of a drug that will prevent the growth of an organism.
A) the average
B) the lowest
C) the highest
D) the midline
E) any
Q4) Why are drug-resistant bacteria less viable in comparison with wild type?
Q5) What is the definition of "antibiotic"? Where are antibiotics isolated from, and why are these compounds made in nature?
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Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Epidemiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/27338
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following clinical specimens would be expected to be sterile in a healthy individual?
A) blood
B) urine
C) sputum
D) stool
E) skin and wound swabs
Q2) As a disease detective investigating an outbreak in the cafeteria of your college, what would be some of the first steps you would need to take to begin your investigation, other than laboratory testing?
Q3) PCR-based detection of a person thought to have HIV would require all of the following EXCEPT
A) primers specific for HIV genes.
B) a thermocycler.
C) HIV agar media.
D) gel electrophoresis.
E) HIV genome isolation/extraction.
Q4) How would a serum antibody ELISA work in the detection of Lyme disease?
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