Biotechnology
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Biotechnology is an interdisciplinary course that explores the application of biological systems, organisms, and processes to develop products and technologies that improve human life and the environment. Students will gain an understanding of the scientific principles underlying genetic engineering, molecular biology, and bioinformatics, as well as their applications in fields such as agriculture, medicine, and environmental management. The course also covers ethical, legal, and social implications of biotechnological advancements, providing a comprehensive overview of current techniques, industry practices, and future trends in biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Evolving Science 2nd Edition by Joan Slonczewski
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbial Life: Origin and Discovery
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Q1) Early metabolism may have been catalyzed by:
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) protein
D) amino acids
E) carbohydrates
Answer: B
Q2) What type of analysis was used to discover the overall structure of the DNA double helix?
A) microscopy
B) X-ray diffraction
C) Polymerase chain reaction
D) DNA sequencing
E) recombinant DNA
Answer: B
Q3) How are prokaryotes and eukaryotes different?
Answer: A prokaryote lacks a nucleus and membrane-bounded organelles, whereas a eukaryote has a nucleus and membrane-bounded organelles.
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Chapter 2: Observing the Microbial Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the phrase "eagle-eyed" mean? Describe why it is scientifically accurate.
Answer: Eagle-eyed means sharp-sighted. Eagles' eyes can resolve things eight times as small or eight times as far away as humans' eyes because eagles' photoreceptors are much more closely packed.
Q2) The aromatic groups of the fluorophore DAPI associate exclusively with the: A) cell wall
B) base pairs of DNA
C) flagella
D) cell membrane
E) pili
Answer: B
Q3) List and briefly describe four ways that light interacts with objects.
Answer: 1. Absorption. Light energy is absorbed by an object. 2. Reflection. Wave front bounces off of object at angle equal to its incident angle. 3. Refraction. Bending of light when it enters a substance that slows its speed. 4. Scattering wave front interacts with object of smaller dimension than the wavelength.
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) List and briefly describe four components of a typical bacterial cell.
Answer: Possible answers include: Cytoplasm-gel-like network of proteins and macromolecules; Cell membrane surrounds cytoplasm, made of phospholipids and hydrophobic proteins; Cell wall surrounds cell membrane, rigid structure of polysaccharides and peptides; Lipopolysaccharide membrane surrounds cell wall of Gram-negative cells, made of lipids and polysaccharides; Capsule surrounds envelope of some organisms, made of polysaccharides, prevents phagocytosis; Flagellum used for cell motility; Nucleoid coiled chromosome not surrounded by membrane.
Q2) What are some of the limitations of X-ray crystallography?
Answer: Crystallographic analysis can only be used for isolated particles and the particles function can't be fully observed. It can only be used for molecules capable of being crystallized and is not useful for proteins which are flexible or for soluble proteins.
Q3) If a prokaryotic intact ribosome is 70S, why are its subunits 30S and 50S, and not 30S and 40S?
Answer: The number of S units, called the Svedberg coefficient, depends on the ribosome's mass and shape. They are not additive because the 30S subunit is held partially within the 50S subunit, making the complex appear smaller than if the two subunits were side by side.
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Chapter 4: Bacterial Culture, Growth, and Development
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Q1) Compare and contrast complex media, synthetic media, and enriched media.
Q2) __________ intercalates between DNA bases, causing dead cells to stain red under a fluorescence scope.
A) Propidium iodide
B) Syto-9
C) Ethidium bromide
D) Crystal violet
E) Safranin
Q3) During which stage of bacterial growth is the culture growing exponentially?
A) lag
B) early log
C) late log
D) stationary
E) death
Q4) Mannitol salt agar (MSA) contains 7.5% NaCl, the carbohydrate mannitol and the pH indicator phenol red. Some organisms can ferment mannitol, producing acids as a by-product. Is this medium likely to be selective and/or differential? Explain.
Q5) Why does binary fission result in an exponential and NOT a linear growth rate?
Q6) How do scientists know of the existence of "unculturable" organisms?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Environmental Influences and Control of
Microbial Growth
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Q1) How is the phenol coefficient calculated? Why is phenol the standard for testing other disinfectants?
Q2) What alkaliphile do pink flamingos eat and how is it involved in making the flamingo pink?
Q3) The conditions used in an autoclave may be reproduced at home in:
A) a rice cooker
B) a double-boiler
C) a microwave
D) a pressure cooker
E) boiling water
Q4) At the bottom of the ocean, hydrostatic pressure averages a crushing 400 atm (atmospheres) and can go as high as:
A) 700 atm
B) 1,000 atm
C) 1,500 atm
D) 3,000 atm
E) 3,500 atm
Q5) Why are many barophiles also psychrophiles and how are the adaptations for barophiles and psychrophiles similar?
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Chapter 6: Virus Structure and Function
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Q1) Discuss the role that marine viruses play in carbon balance.
Q2) A __________ phage may integrate its genome into that of the host cell.
A) lytic
B) temperate
C) viroid
D) asymmetrical
E) oncogenic
Q3) David Baltimore proposed that the primary distinction among classes of viruses was the __________ composition and the route used to express messenger RNA.
A) genome
B) envelope
C) capsid
D) tegument
E) neck
Q4) What determines the host range and tropism of a virus?
Q5) Some viruses require an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase. What does that mean? Using the same vernacular, what would you call the host cell RNA polymerase (RNA pol)? What would you call reverse transcriptase (RTase)?
Q6) How is a plaque assay used to count virions in a solution?
8
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Chapter 7: Genomes and Chromosomes
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Q1) When the chromosome replicates, how is the newly made strand related to its template strand?
A) The two strands have identical sequences and are parallel to each other.
B) The two strands have complementary sequences and are parallel to each other.
C) The two strands have identical sequences and are antiparallel to each other.
D) The two strands have complementary sequences and are antiparallel to each other.
E) The two strands have identical sequences and are antiparallel to each other, except that U replaces T.
Q2) How has the study of metagenomics allowed discovery of so many new species? How is it possible to know about these organisms without being able to grow them in a laboratory?
Q3) __________ and __________ are noncoding sequences that make up a large portion of eukaryotic chromosomes.
A) Exons; introns
B) Bacteriophages; plasmids
C) Plasmids; introns
D) Introns; pseudogenes
E) Pseudogenes; bacteriophages
Q4) How can plasmids ensure that they are passed on from one generation to the next?
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Chapter 8: Transcription, Translation, and Bioinformatics
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Q1) Where is f-met used as the N-terminal amino acid? What does that mean for the human immune response?
Q2) Which form of RNA has the task of unsticking stuck ribosomes?
A) mRNA
B) rRNA
C) sRNA
D) tmRNA
E) TRNA
Q3) Most tRNA molecules begin with a 5' __________ and all end with a 3' __________, to which the amino acids attach.
A) phosphate; hydroxyl
B) C; GGA
C) G; CCA
D) A; TTA
E) C; AAT
Q4) Where is the Shine-Dalgarno sequence located and what is it responsible for?
Q5) Explain the process of transcription initiation.
Q6) Explain the processes of Rho-dependent and Rho-independent termination of transcription.
Q7) What are the functions of the different types of RNA molecules?
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer, Mutations, and Genome
Evolution
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Q1) The transfer of F factor in E. coli from one donor cell to a __________ cell results in two __________ cells.
A) donor; donor
B) recipient; recipient
C) donor; recipient
D) recipient; donor
E) recipient; Hfr
Q2) Evolution toward pathogenicity may involve:
A) horizontal gene transfer
B) gene loss
C) gene acquisition
D) A and C
E) all of the above
Q3) Which of the following mutagens may cause frameshift mutations?
A) caffeine
B) 5-bromouracil
C) nitrosoguanidine
D) nitrites
E) acridine dyes
Q4) How is the Ames reversion test performed and what is it used to determine?
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Chapter 10: Molecular Regulation
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Q1) In general, the more copies of a gene there are, the more of that gene's __________ can be made.
A) sequence
B) activator
C) product
D) repressor
E) regulator
Q2) Binding of tryptophan to the __________ makes a holorepressor.
A) aporepressor
B) corepressor
C) repressor
D) inducer
E) activator
Q3) The helix-turn-helix motif is able to fit into the __________ groove of a DNA molecule.
A) inverted-repeat
B) protein
C) RNA
D) minor
E) major
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Chapter 11: Viral Molecular Biology
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Q1) The cell membrane releases mature HSV-1 virions through __________.
A) endocytosis
B) exocytosis
C) lysis
D) budding
E) slow release
Q2) What are some of the safety concerns involving viral vectors? Describe some of the safety features of viral vectors.
Q3) In evolution, __________ leads to the gradual loss of unselected traits.
A) natural selection
B) mutation
C) epidemic
D) pandemic
E) infection
Q4) How is the poliovirus genome replicated?
Q5) How are humans infected with poliovirus? Describe the possible effects of the virus on humans.
Q6) Explain what happens in individuals infected with HIV who are homozygous for CCR5, heterozygous for a CCR5 deletion, or homozygous for a CCR5 deletion.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Molecular Techniques and Biotechnology
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Q1) Once a gene encoding a putative transcriptional regulatory protein is identified by sequence annotation, what needs to be done to demonstrate this activity?
Q2) Which of the following can be used as vectors in human gene therapy?
A) bacteriophages
B) modified HIV and adenoviruses
C) filamentous phages
D) cosmids
E) modified mosaic tobacco virus
Q3) The fluorescent proteins YFP and CFP emit yellow and blue (cyan) light, respectively. These and other variations of GFP have been obtained through:
A) the chemical addition of yellow or blue fluorescent dyes to GFP
B) mutation of the gfp gene in specific sites
C) post-translational modifications of recombinant GFP
D) cloning gfp in different vectors
E) none of the above
Q4) What are translational fusions used for? How are they constructed?
Q5) Why would a DNA vaccine be more beneficial than a live-attenuated vaccine?
Q6) What is the biochemical mechanism of acid resistance in E. coli O157:H7?
Q7) Discuss possible disadvantages of the yeast two-hybrid system.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Energetics and Catabolism
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Q1) Not all enzymes are proteins; in some enzymes, the catalytic properties depend on:
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) polysaccharides
D) lipids
E) terpenoids
Q2) Describe the Entner-Doudoroff (ED) pathway. What are the advantages to microorganisms that display the ED pathway?
Q3) Oxidative catabolism of benzoate and other aromatic compounds is catalyzed by
A) 2-oxoglutarate:NADPH oxidoreductase
B) benzoyl-S-CoA reductase
C) specific dioxygenases
D) NADPH:ferredoxin oxidoreductase
E) none of the above
Q4) All of the nucleotide triphosphates carry energy. What reactions are driven by the release of energy from GTP, CTP, and TTP?
Q5) Why is magnesium an essential nutrient for all living cells?
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Chapter 14: Respiration, Lithotrophy, and Photolysis
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Q1) Ferroplasma acidarmanus produces large amounts of sulfuric acid through
A) oxidation of Cu<sup>+</sup> with Cu(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>
B) oxidation of FeS<sub>2</sub> with Fe<sup>3+</sup>
C) oxidation of Fe<sub>3</sub>O<sub>2</sub> with Fe<sup>2+</sup>
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) What is dissimilatory metal reduction? How is it different from assimilatory metal reduction?
Q3) Which of the following are components of reaction centers in the electron transport system?
A) heme groups and flavin mononucleotide
B) [2Fe-2S] and [4Fe-4S] iron-sulfur clusters
C) conjugated double bonds and heteroaromatic rings
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q4) Electricity production by metal-reducing bacteria is a possibility. Describe how a metal with multiple redox states can be used to produce an electrical current.
Q5) What is photoheterotrophy? Give examples of photoheterotrophic organisms.
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Chapter 15: Biosynthesis
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Q1) What are nonribosomal peptide antibiotics? How are they synthesized?
Q2) What are the molecules used in the extension reactions during polyketide biosynthesis?
A) acetyl-CoA units
B) malonyl-ACP units
C) coenzyme A
D) acyl-carrier protein
E) none of the above
Q3) How does the reductive (reverse) TCA cycle participate in carbon fixation?
A) Some of the TCA reactions occur in reverse, assimilating small amounts of CO<sub>2</sub>.
B) CO<sub>2</sub> assimilation replenishes TCA intermediates for anabolic pathways.
C) Reverse TCA regenerates acetyl-CoA, which may enter gluconeogenesis via pyruvate.
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
Q4) Describe the 3-hydroxypropionate cycle; give examples of microorganisms that use this CO<sub>2</sub> fixation mechanism.
Q5) How does the reductive or reverse TCA cycle differ from the regular TCA cycle?
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Chapter 16: Food and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Why does bread sometimes turn red? Describe the "miracle" with which this has been associated.
Q2) NO starter culture is available for which of the following processes?
A) sourdough bread making
B) yogurt making
C) chocolate production
D) cheese making
E) beer making
Q3) __________ are an excellent source of all the essential dietary amino acids.
A) Algae
B) Bacteria
C) Mushrooms
D) Yeast
E) Cheeses
Q4) Describe how the transportation of milk products by herders led to the formation of cheeses.
Q5) What are some of the purposes of food fermentation? Why have humans been making fermented foods for so long?
Q6) Describe several physical means of food preservation.
Q7) Why are wines different colors if they are all made from grapes?
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Chapter 17: Origins and Evolution
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Q1) Using traditional taxonomic rank, which of the following is a smaller rank than family?
A) order
B) domain
C) genus
D) phylum
E) subclass
Q2) The disease filariasis is caused by which infectious organism?
A) alga: Chlorella sp.
B) protist: Paramecium bursaria
C) fungus: Escovopsis sp.
D) bacteria: Staphylococcus aureas
E) nematode: Brugia malayi
Q3) Horizontal gene transfer can occur by all EXCEPT for which of the following:
A) plasmid acquisition
B) transposable genetic elements
C) bacteriophage infection
D) transformation processes
E) parent to offspring
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Chapter 18: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) The following bacterial genera belong to the Enterobacteriaceae. In particular, __________ display swarming behavior prior to forming __________.
A) Escherichia; colonies
B) Proteus; biofilms
C) Pseudomonas; endospores
D) all of the above pairs
E) none of the above pairs
Q2) The following is NOT correct about the sulfur lithotrophic genus Beggiatoa:
A) It is a Gram-negative gammaproteobacterial group.
B) It oxidizes H<sub>2</sub>S to S<sup>0</sup>.
C) Stores S<sup>0</sup> in cytoplasmic granules.
D) It stores polyhydroxybutyrate.
E) None of the above.
Q3) Why is it that the deep-branching thermophiles may appear to have diverged from other bacteria earlier than they actually did?
Q4) Describe the unique way in which spirochetes can be isolated from other environmental species. What makes this possible?
Q5) What bacterial groups use actin as a means to leave their host cells?
Q6) What is oligotrophy? Provide examples.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Archaeal Diversity
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Q1) All of the rhodopsins in the haloarchaeotes have how many alpha helical transmembrane domains?
A) one
B) three
C) five
D) seven
E) nine
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a phylum among the archaea?
A) Crenarchaeota
B) Euryarchaeota
C) Methanoarchaeota
D) Nanoarchaeota
E) Korarchaeota
Q3) Archaeal histones are found in __________ such as the methanogens.
A) euryarchaeota
B) crenarchaeota
C) korarchaeota
D) nanoarchaeota
E) halophiles
Q4) Why are the archaea so difficult to classify?
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Eukaryotic Diversity
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Q1) Heterokont is a grouping of organisms based on which of the following structural characteristic(s)?
A) They all inhabit the same ecological niche.
B) They all rely exclusively on photosynthesis for metabolism.
C) They all have or have had pairs of flagella of different shaped and length.
D) They all have a bipartite shell called a frustule.
E) They all move with similar locomotive structures.
Q2) Organisms categorized as Excavata are considered to be highly degenerative parasites. What does this mean and why did they evolve this way?
Q3) Why is the coral endosymbioant, zooxanthellae, an important indictor of ocean health during global warming?
Q4) The taxa in which the food-grade mushrooms of morels and truffles can be found in:
A) Lichens
B) Zygomycota
C) Chytridiomycota
D) Basidiomycota
E) Ascomycota
Q5) Why are PAD1 and PAD2 important in Trypanosoma brucei infection.
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Chapter 21: Microbial Ecology
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true regarding food webs in ecosystems?
A) primary producers assimilate minerals into biomass
B) primary producers absorb energy from outside the ecosystem
C) grazers convert 10% of carbon back to carbon dioxide
D) consumers convert 90% of biomass carbon to atmospheric CO<sub>2</sub>
E) all biomass is recycled and eventually converted to heat
Q2) Cryptogamic "soils" are found in dry, hot deserts. Which of the following is NOT true of cryptogamic crusts?
A) They develop very slowly.
B) They are made of lichens, mosses, and other algae and fungi.
C) They are quite resilient and not easily killed.
D) They play a vital role in protecting seeds for germination.
E) They help to prevent erosion in desert ecosystems.
Q3) Bacteroids remain sequestered within a sac of plant-derived membrane known as the:
A) flavonoid
B) infection thread
C) Nod factor
D) nucleosome
E) symbiosome
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Chapter 22: Microbes and the Global Environment
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Q1) What is biochemical oxygen demand (BOD)? Why is high BOD undesirable?
Q2) Which of the following is an anaerobic respiration reaction?
A) conversion of phosphine to phosphate
B) methanogenesis
C) photolysis of hydrogen sulfide to sulfur
D) precipitation of ferric iron with hydroxide
E) nitrogen fixation
Q3) Concerning biogeochemical cycles, all of the following are true EXCEPT:
A) Nearly half of nitrogen in the biosphere comes from anthropogenic sources.
B) Carbon dioxide production by human industry has outpaced fixation.
C) Most microbes can interconvert the six major elements, from one to another.
D) Organisms acquire elements from abiotic sources or from other organisms.
E) Metabolic interactions of microbes with biotic and abiotic environ is biogeochemistry.
Q4) Could human-induced global warming cause mass extinctions of a majority of Earth's species as did the rise of ancient cyanobacteria?
Q5) Describe the wetland system set up by a hog farmer to treat his hog-farm waste.
Q6) Human burning of petroleum in effect releases CO<sub>2</sub> from the product of ancient bacteria. Discuss.
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Chapter 23: Human Microbiota and Nonspecific Host Defenses
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Q1) Which of the following should be free from microbes in a healthy individual?
A) nose
B) mouth
C) skin
D) cerebrospinal fluid
E) genitourinary tract
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an integral part of the inflammatory process?
A) dilation of blood vessels
B) release of histamines and prostaglandins
C) chemotaxis of polymorphonuclear leukocytes
D) extravasation
E) antibody synthesis
Q3) Defensins are short cationic peptides that:
A) are produced by skin, GIT, and lung cells for defense when stimulated
B) bind to specific receptors to gain entry into cells
C) are only produced by phagocytes upon activation
D) inhibit microbial DNA synthesis
E) are equally effective at killing eukaryotic and prokaryotic
Q4) How does Heliobacter pylori defy stomach acidity?
Q5) Why would complement NOT be considered a part of adaptive immunity?
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Chapter 24: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is most commonly caused by:
A) chromosome 22 trisomy
B) Y-linked inherited hypermetabolism
C) X-linked inherited enzyme or receptor deficiency
D) chromosome 7 deletion
E) XXY inheritance
Q2) A patient presents in the emergency room with large red lesions up and down his arms. His case history reveals that he works for a gardening company and this rash most likely developed after clearing a weedy bank two days prior. The resident on duty concludes that the rash is due from poison ivy exposure. Immunologically speaking what is going on in this man's body and what type of immune response is he experiencing?
Q3) A complete T-cell receptor on a helper T cell contains both the antigen binding receptor molecule and what other protein for signal transduction?
A) CD8
B) CD3 complex
C) MHC I
D) MHC II
E) CD28
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Chapter 25: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) What is the rationale for designating disease-causing protozoa and worms as parasites NOT pathogens?
Q2) Mention two nonpili protein adhesins used in pathogenesis.
Q3) What characteristics of a pathogen distinguish it from a commensal, in terms of its ability to infect and replicate within a eukaryotic host?
Q4) What type of toxin is the alpha hemolysin of Staphylococcus aureus?
A) protein synthesis inhibitor
B) protease
C) superantigen
D) cell membrane disruptor
E) second messenger pathway disruptor
Q5) E. coli O157:H7 has a very low infectious dose because:
A) it is encapsulated
B) disease results from a synergistic action with Shigella
C) it is resistant to the gastric acid kill
D) the intestine has many receptors for the toxin
E) it secretes a superantigen
Q6) Describe the mode of action of diphtheria toxin.
Q7) Describe the deregulation of adenylate cyclase activity by cholera toxin.
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following is correctly paired?
A) Koplik's spot-HIV-induced cancer
B) herd immunity-immunity of animals
C) acetylcholine blocker- botulism toxin
D) Lyme disease-enteric disorder
E) enteric fever-elevated white blood cell counts
Q2) What will be the result of a tuberculin skin test for an AIDS patient with an active tuberculosis disease?
A) negative result
B) postive result
C) profuse bleeding
D) ulcerating lesion
E) two of the above
Q3) Which of the following diseases is likely to increase in incidence if global warming continues unabated?
A) Streptococcal pharyngitis
B) Lyme disease
C) syphilis
D) gonorrhea
E) hepatitis B
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Chapter 27: Antimicrobial Chemotherapy
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Q1) Influenza envelope neuraminidase (NA) viral spike protein allows the virus to:
A) escape from antibiotics
B) acidify the endocytic chamber
C) release new virions from an infected host cell
D) bind to host cell glycoproteins
E) undergo viral membrane fusion
Q2) A patient who accidentally takes too many doses of chloramphenicol during a Salmonella sp. infection could possible come down with:
A) aplastic anemia
B) liver cancer
C) gastroenteritis
D) ulcers
E) growth plate defects
Q3) How does saving the rainforest (and other endangered habitats) correlate with the fight to prevent human morbidity and morality caused by bacterial disease? Give an example to support your argument.
Q4) Why is the newly discovered antibiotic class called pyronins considered to be a class of antibiotics that will be hard for a bacteria to become resistant to?
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Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Epidemiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/56541
Sample Questions
Q1) Molecular screening is now being used to detect individuals with early stages of TB because:
A) skin testing is unreliable and needs refrigeration that countries may not have B) vaccination with BCG does not protect against multidrug resistance
C) many countries do not have disposable needles for skin testing
D) it can detect infection earlier than chest X-ray and sputum sampling
E) it can be used more safely on children with the disease
Q2) The use of a laminar flow hood when studying the organism Francisella tularensis is an example of:
A) level 0 biological safety
B) level I biological safety
C) level II biological safety
D) level III biological safety
E) level IV biological safety
Q3) In determining the bacterial etiology of patient with an infection, the first laboratory test should be what and why? What type of testing would then follow?
Q4) Describe what the One World Initiative is and the role it played in the 2006 outbreak of foodborne O157:H7 in spinach.
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