Biotechnology
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Biotechnology is an interdisciplinary course that explores the application of biological systems and organisms in technological innovations for various industries, including agriculture, healthcare, and environmental management. Students will learn fundamentals of molecular biology, genetic engineering, and bioprocessing, alongside ethical, legal, and social implications of biotechnological advances. Emphasis is placed on key techniques such as recombinant DNA technology, gene editing, and microbial fermentation, with real-world case studies illustrating the development of biotechnology products and solutions addressing contemporary challenges.
Recommended Textbook Fundamentals of Biochemistry Life at the Molecular Level 5th Edition by Donald Voet
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to the Chemistry of Life
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Q1) Change in enthalpy (\(\Delta\)H)is best defined as
A)the sum of heat absorbed and work done.
B)the heat transferred at constant pressure.
C)the pressure change at constant temperature.
D)the measure of disorder in a system.
E)none of the above
Answer: B
Q2) Which arrow points at a phosphate ester bond?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Answer: E
Q3) Explain in one or two sentences why scientists believe that all living organisms are related (that they have all evolved from a common ancestor)?
Answer: Biochemically,all living organisms are very similar.
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Chapter 2: Water
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Q1) The capacity of a buffer to resist changes in pH upon addition of protons or hydroxide ions depends on
A)the pK<sub>a</sub> of the weak acid in the buffer.
B)the pH of the buffer.
C)the total concentration of the weak acid and its conjugate base in the buffer.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Hydrophobic interactions between nonpolar molecules
A)result from the tendency of water to maximize contact with nonpolar molecules.
B)are the result of strong attractions between nonpolar molecules.
C)are the result of strong repulsion between water and nonpolar molecules.
D)depend on strong permanent dipoles in the nonpolar molecules.
E)require the presence of surrounding water molecules.
Answer: E
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4
Chapter 3: Nucleotides, nucleic Acids, and Genetic Information
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Q1) In Sanger dideoxy DNA sequencing,DNA polymerase I is used to add nucleotides to the ___ end of the growing polynucleotide chain.
A)sticky
B)blunt
C)3'
D)5'
E)dideoxy nucleotide containing
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following molecules does not contain an energy rich phosphoanhydride bond?
A)ADP
B)GDP
C)AMP
D)CDP
E)all of the above
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Amino Acids
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the early 1930's William Rose fed laboratory rats a mixture of all 19 amino acids known to be present in proteins.He observed that his rats lost weight.This observation led to the discovery of ______ as the 20th amino acid found in proteins.
A)Gly
B)Ala
C)Tyr
D)Asn
E)Thr
Q2) Ribosomes use L amino acids to synthesize proteins.These amino acids are called "L" because
A)they are chiral.
B)they turn polarized light to the left.
C)they have a configuration of groups around the C<sub>\(\alpha\)</sub> that can be related to the configuration of groups around the asymmetric carbon in L-glyceraldehyde.
D)they are all (S)-amino acids.
E)they are all (R)-amino acids.
Q3) Glutamine is an amino acid (pK<sub>a</sub>s are 2.2,and 9.1).Draw the predominant structure of glutamine at pH 1.0.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Proteins: Primary Structure
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Q1) Although a protein's primary sequence can be inferred from the nucleotide sequence,modifications such as ______ can be determined most easily by tandem mass spectrometry followed by protein database searching.
A)phosphorylation
B)disulfide crosslinks
C)glycosylation
D)acetylation
E)all of the above
Q2) ______________ has emerged as a technique for protein sequencing.
A)NMR spectroscopy
B)Mass spectrometry
C)Gel electrophoresis
D)Phylogenetic analysis
E)Limited proteolysis
Q3) ELISA is an example of a(n):
A)enzyme assay.
B)biological assay.
C)binding assay.
D)immunological assay.
E)none of the above
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Chapter 6: Proteins: Three-Dimensional Structure
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Q1) Proteins can denature due to a change in A)pH.
B)temperature.
C)ionic strength.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q2) Which one of these characteristics is not true for the \(\alpha\) helix?
A)There are 3.6 amino acids per turn.
B)There is a requirement for glycine every third amino acid residue.
C)A hydrogen bond forms between the carbonyl oxygen of the nth amino acid residue and the - NH group of the (n + 4)th amino acid residue.
D)Proline is typically not found in the \(\alpha\) helix.
E)It is right-handed.
Q3) Which of the following lines in the figure at right indicates a \(\beta\) hairpin structure?
A)A,C,D
B)B and C
C)A only
D)A,B,and D
E)C only
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Chapter 7: Protein Function Part I: Myoglobin and Hemoglobin
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Q1) The absence of 2,3-BPG causes hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen to______.
A) positively cooperative
B) cyanosis
C) His E7
D) decrease
E) R
F) hydrogen bonds
G) increase
H) symmetry
I) His F8
J) ion pairs
K) T
L) hemolytic anemia
M) sequencial
Q2) It appears that the heme group in myoglobin binds the O<sub>2</sub>.What is the function of the polypeptide?
Q3) What is the primary physiological function of myoglobin in most mammals?
Q4) Myoglobin is an oxygen binding protein in muscle.Describe in one sentence the overall structure of myoglobin.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sialic acids
A)are important constituents of glycoproteins and glycolipids.
B)are N-acetyl glucosamine derivatives.
C)incorporate a succinic acid derivative.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q2) Chitin differs from cellulose due to
A)inversion of configuration at the anomeric carbon.
B)sulfonation of the C2 OH group.
C)a much greater prevalence of branching.
D)replacement of the C2 OH group by an acetamido group.
E)replacement of the C6 OH group by an amino group.
Q3) We encounter a great variety of sugars in living organisms.
a.Are most carbohydrates in living organisms D or L?
b.Draw a Fischer projection of the smallest aldose (include all atoms).
c.What is the name of this molecule?
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10
Chapter 9: Lipids and Biological Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following segments of the integral membrane protein glycophorin most likely contains the membrane-spanning sequence?
A)LSTTEVAMHTTTSSSVSKSY
B)SQTNDTHKRDTYAATPRA
C)VSEISVRTVYPPEEETGE
D)ITLIIFGVMAGVIGTILLI
E)YGIRRLIKKSPSDVKPLP
Q2) Proteins which are passed from one Golgi compartment to the next in a successive fashion do so via a mechanism called____.
A)maturation
B)cisternal progression
C)retrograde transport
D)anterograde transport
E)medialgrade transport
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11
Chapter 10: Membrane Transport
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Q1) An example of nonmediated transport is ______.
A) Porins
B) gap junctions
C) symport
D) active
E) ion channel
F) secondary active
G) channel-forming
H) carrier ionophores
I) passive-mediated
J) uniport
K) simple diffusion
L) anti-ion transport
Q2) Which of the following is an example of nonmediated transport?
A)simple diffusion
B)facilitated diffusion
C)passive transport
D)active transport
E)all of the above
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Enzyme Catalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Serine proteases use _________ to catalyze the cleavage of a peptide bond.
(I)covalent catalysis
(II)proximity and orientation effects
(III)general base catalysis
(IV)electrostatic catalysis
A)I,II
B)II
C)III
D)I,II,III
E)I,II,III,IV
Q2) Why can histidine NOT act as a base in the lysosome (an organelle where the pH is close to 4.5)?
A)Histidine has a positive charge at pH 4.5.
B)Histidine has a side chain pK close to 6.
C)Histidine would be protonated at pH 4.5.
D)All of the above are correct.
E)None of the above is correct.
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13
Chapter 12: Enzyme Kinetics, inhibition and Control
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Q1) Compounds that function as "mixed inhibitors" (I)interfere with substrate binding to the enzyme. (II)bind to the enzyme reversibly. (III)can bind to the enzyme/substrate complex.
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)II,III
E)I,II,III
Q2) A lead compound would be most promising if it had:
A)K<sub>I</sub> = 4.7 × 10<sup>5</sup> M.
B)K<sub>I</sub> = 1.5 × 10<sup>8</sup> M.
C)K<sub>I</sub> = 1.5 × 10<sup>-8</sup> M.
D)K<sub>I</sub> = 4.7 × 10<sup>-5</sup> M.
E)K<sub>M</sub> = 4.7 × 10<sup>5</sup> M.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Biochemical Signaling
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Q1) The ____ signaling pathway undergoes autophosphorylation resulting in kinase activation.
A) receptors
B) phosphoinositide
C) rhodopsin
D) calmodulin
E) insulin
F) hypothalamus
G) cortisol
H) adrenal cortex
I) cyclic AMP
J) RasGAP
K) islets of Langerhans
L) adenylate cyclase (AC)
M) receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK)
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Introduction to Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ______ is equal to the rate of synthesis minus the rate of breakdown of the metabolic intermediates.
A)metabolic rate
B)K<sub>eq</sub>
C)rate determining step
D)flux
E)none of the above
Q2) Consider the following metabolic reaction: Succinyl-CoA + Acetoacetate \(\to\)Acetoacetyl-CoA + Succinate \(\Delta\)G°' = -1.25 kJ/mol
This reaction is
A)favorable under standard conditions.
B)not favorable under standard conditions.
C)nonspontaneous as written regardless of reactant concentrations
D)spontaneous as written only when [succinate] and [acetoacetyl-CoA] are high.
E)favorability of this reaction as written depends on temperature and reactant concentrations
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16
Chapter 15: Glucose Catabolism
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Q1) In which of the following metabolic conversions is ATP required during glycolysis? (I)fructose-6-phosphate SYMBOL 174 \f "Symbol" fructose-1,6-bisphosphate (II)glucose SYMBOL 174 \f "Symbol" glucose-6-phosphate (III)fructose-1,6-bisphosphate SYMBOL 174 \f "Symbol" dihydroxyacetone phosphate + glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (IV)glucose-6-phosphate SYMBOL 174 \f "Symbol" fructose-6-phosphate
A)I only
B)II only
C)I,II
D)I,III
E)I,IV
Q2) Aerobic glycolysis produces a net yield of ______ ATP.
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)more than 4
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Chapter 16: Glycogen Metabolism and Gluconeogenesis
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Q1) The biotin prosthetic group of pyruvate carboxylase is covalently attached to a ______ residue of the enzyme?
A)valine
B)serine
C)lysine
D)arginine
E)the biotin is attached non-covalently
Q2) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the conversion of glucose-1-phosphate to glucose-6-phosphate?
A)glucose-1-isomerase
B)glucokinase
C)glucose-1-phosphatase
D)phosphoglucomutase
E)glycogen phosphorylase
Q3) Individuals with McArdle's disease lack the ____ in the ____,
A)debranching enzyme;liver
B)phosphoglucomutase;liver
C)glycogen phosphorylase;muscle
D)phosphoglucomutase;muscle
E)glycogen phosphorylase;liver
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Chapter 17: Citric Acid Cycle
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Q1) The citric acid cycle is also called the ______ cycle.
A) oxaloacetate
B) malate synthase
C) malate
D) malonate
E) Krebs
F) aconitase
G) succinyl-CoA synthetase
H) -ketoglutarate
I) carbon dioxide
J) malate dehydrogenase
K) isocitrate
L) succinate dehydrogenase
Q2) How many electrons are transferred from one acetyl group during the citric acid cycle?
A)2
B)4
C)6
D)8
E)10
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) Some degenerative diseases,such as Parkinson's disease,are associated with ______ damage to ______.
A)oxidative;mitochondria
B)thermogenic;mitochondria
C)free radical;nuclei
D)oxidative;nuclei
E)thermogenic;nuclei
Q2) All of the following inhibit electron transport EXCEPT
A)oxaloacetate
B)rotenone
C)anitimycin A
D)cyanide
E)All of the above inhibit electron transport,
Q3) Based on the estimation presented in the chapter,how many ATP per glucose are synthesized by the aerobic metabolism in eukaryotes?
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Photosynthesis
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Q1) The redox centers PSII,PbRC,PbRC from Rps.viridis,and cytochrome b<sub>6</sub>f
A)have identical prosthetic groups that differ only in sequence of arrangement and spatial orientation.
B)have some degree of symmetry either based on their prosthetic groups or based on tertiary protein structure.
C)all become reduced due to activity of the OEC.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q2) The major difference between pheophytins and chlorophylls is
A)pheophytins contain iron in their centers while chlorophylls contain magnesium.
B)chlorophylls contain iron in their centers while pheophytins contain magnesium.
C)pheophytins contain no metal ion in their centers.
D)pheophytins are linear,rather than cyclic tetrapyrroles.
E)none of the above
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Chapter 20: Lipid Metabolism
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Q1) An enzyme that is inhibited by the statin group of drugs (e.g.Lipitor®)is
A)phospholipase a2.
B)hormone sensitive lipase.
C)HMG CoA reductase.
D)desaturase.
E)glycerol kinase.
Q2) Which of the following statements about apolipoproteins (with the possible exception of apoB-100)is TRUE?
(I)The apolipoproteins are water-soluble and loosely associate with the lipoproteins.
(II)The apolipoproteins contain helices with hydrophobic and hydrophilic groups on opposite sides of the helical cylinder.
(III)The apolipoproteins are synthesized in the intestinal tissues.
(IV)The apolipoproteins appear to float on the surface of phospholipids.
A)I only
B)I and II
C)III,IV
D)I,II,III
E)I,II,IV
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Amino Acid Metabolism
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Q1) The neurotransmitters,dopamine,epinephrine,and norepinephrine are synthesized from the amino acid
A)tryptophan
B)tyrosine
C)glutamate
D)aspartate
E)lysine
Q2) The synthesis of which of the following uses an aminotransferase in the first step of the synthesis?
A)glutamine
B)proline
C)serine
D)valine
E)all of the above
Q3) Which of the following is required for synthesis of tryptophan?
A)serine
B)phosphoenolpyruvate
C)erythrose-4-phosphate
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
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Chapter 22: Mammalian Fuel Metabolism: Integration and Regulation
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Q1) Excess glucosylation of lens proteins in diabetics leads to A)cataracts.
B)retinal degeneration.
C)glaucoma.
D)ketosis.
E)fatty liver disease.
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the blood glucose level of non-insulin dependent diabetics tend to compare to that of normal individuals?
A)Blood glucose levels of diabetics tend to be very stable,but at a higher level.
B)Blood glucose levels of diabetics tend to be variable and higher.
C)Blood glucose levels decrease more rapidly following a meal,often dropping lower than is tolerable.
D)Blood glucose levels average the same level in diabetics,but reach higher peaks for short periods.
E)none of the above
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24
Chapter 23: Nucleotide Metabolism
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Q1) Hydroxylation of IMP to form GMP occurs in conjunction with the ________ of
A)oxidation;NADH
B)reduction;NAD<sup>+</sup>
C)oxidation;NADPH
D)reduction;NADP<sup>+</sup>
E)none of the above
Q2) The first step in pyrimidine biosynthesis is the formation of A)carbamoyl phosphate.
B)carbamoyl aspartate.
C) -aminoisobutyrate.
D)dihydroorotate.
E)none of the above
Q3) The disease gout is characterized by high levels of ____,which forms crystal deposits in joints and is treated by inhibition of _______.
A)uric acid;urate oxidase
B)uric acid;xanthine oxidase
C)urea;urate oxidase
D)xanthine;xanthine oxidase
E)none of the above
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Chapter 24: Nucleic Acid Structure
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Q1) In prokaryotes,many of the _____ that bind to DNA contain a HTH motif.
A) type I
B) ribocatalyzers
C) C2´-endo
D) repressors
E) ethidium
F) type II
G) C3´-endo
H) hybridized
I) interchanged
J) supercoiled
K) cooperative
L) non-cooperative
M) underwound
N) ribozymes
O) deuterium
P) zinc finger
Q) leucine zipper
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Page 26
Chapter 25: DNA Replication, repair and Recombination
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Q1) Defects in the proteins ______,which associate with RAD-51,are correlated with several types of cancer.
A)BRCA1 and BRCA2
B)RecU and RecB
C)Pol \(\alpha\) and Pol \(\beta\)
D)DSB and NHEJ
E)RecA and RecUGA
Q2) In molecular biology labs researchers often use E.coli strains that are RecA minus (recA<sup> </sup>)when transforming a cloned gene into a plasmid which explains why
(I)a Rec A-strain would have fewer replication errors.
(II)a Rec A-strain would have less opportunity forming DNA mutations.
(III)a Rec A-strain would increase error repair.
A)I only.
B)II only.
C)III only.
D)I,II
E)II,III
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Chapter 26: Transcription and Rna Processing
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Q1) In prokaryotes,the _____ factor recognizes base sequences in the _____ which facilitates RNA polymerase binding and initiates RNA synthesis.
A)" \(\sigma\);promoter"
B)"regulatory;enhancer"
C)" \(\sigma\);enhancer"
D)"regulatory;promoter"
E)"omega;promoter"
Q2) Which of the following types of splicing RNAs uses a free nucleotide to perform a nucleophilic attack?
(I)group I introns
(II)group II introns
(III)self splicing introns
A)I,II,III
B)I,II
C)I,III
D)II,III
E)none of the above
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28
Chapter 27: Protein Synthesis
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Q1) Codons that do not specify amino acids but signal the ribosome to terminate polypeptide chain elongation are termed A)frameshifts.
B)anticodon.
C)Stop codons.
D)suppressors.
E)terminators.
Q2) The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is
A)used to align ribosome subunits and initiation translation.
B)functions as a stop codon.
C)is used to align RNA polymerase.
D)is used during transcription termination.
E)all of the above
Q3) The steps required for peptide elongation at the ribosome are,respectively, A)initiation,elongation and termination.
B)decoding,transpeptidation,and translocation.
C)initiation,elongation,and release.
D)aa-tRNA binding,GTP-peptidation,and translocation.
E)none of the above
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following is TRUE regarding eukaryotic mRNAs? (I)They uniformly stable.
(II)The poly (A)tail appears to partially Moderate the rate of degradation. (III)The 5' cap appears to partially Moderate the rate of degradation. (IV)They have decay times ranging from 10-30 minutes.
A)I,II
B)II,III
C)II,IV
D)III,IV
E)II only
Q2) HMG proteins are (I)a set of small conserved proteins containing about 50% charged amino acids. (II)regulation elements Moderated by the trp attenuation leader sequence. (III)able to alter DNA conformation by causing it to bend,unwind,and form loops. IV)architectural proteins that regulate gene expression.
A)I,II
B)I,III
C)II,IV
D)I,III,IV
E)I,II,III
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Page 30