Biotechnology Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Biotechnology is an interdisciplinary field that harnesses biological systems, organisms, and cellular components to develop innovative products and processes for a wide range of applications, including medicine, agriculture, and industry. This course introduces core principles such as genetic engineering, recombinant DNA technology, molecular diagnostics, bioinformatics, and bioprocessing techniques. Students will explore the ethical, legal, and social implications of biotechnological advances and gain hands-on experience through laboratory work, case studies, and current research trends, preparing them for further study or careers in this dynamic and rapidly evolving discipline.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Biology 2nd Edition by David P. Clark
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Chapter 1: Cells and Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells that do not have a nucleus are .
A)prokaryotes
B)eukaryotes
C)not alive
D)animal cells
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is not common to all cells?
A)ribosomes
B)plasma membrane
C)nucleus
D)cytosol
Answer: C
Q3) Membrane bound structures involved in digestion are called .
A)mitochondria
B)nuclei
C)Golgi complexes
D)lysosomes
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Basic Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A allele determines the phenotype even when only one copy is present.
A)dominant
B)recessive
C)codominant
D)homozygous
Answer: A
Q2) Humans have chromosomes in the gametes.
A)2
B)12
C)24
D)48
Answer: C
Q3) Sister chromatids occur following .
A)gamete fusion
B)cell division
C)transcription
D)replication
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: DNA, RNA, and Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many hydrogen bonds form between adenine and thymine?
A)0
B)1
C)2
D)3
Answer: C
Q2) During DNA base pairing,which of the following would be incorrectly paired?
A)guanine:cytosine
B)adenine:thymine
C)purine:purine
D)purine:pyrimindine
Answer: C
Q3) The monomers building blocks)of nucleic acids such as DNA and RNA are A)amino acids
B)monosaccharides
C)fatty acids
D)nucleotides
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Genes, genomes, and DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) The melting temperature of DNA is the temperature at which .
A)half of the two strands are separated.
B)the two DNA strands are completely separated.
C)the DNA is completely degraded.
D)half of the DNA is degraded.
Q2) The most common form of DNA is A-DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Alu elements represent of the human genome.
A)less than 1%
B)4-5%
C)6-8%
D)more than 10%
Q4) Compared to the other answers listed,which is the least compacted structure?
A)DNA double helix
B)chromatid
C)30 nm fiber
D)nucleosome
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6
Chapter 5: Manipulation of Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which statement is not true regarding peptide nucleic acids?
A)Peptide nucleic acids are not degraded by nucleases or proteases.
B)Peptide nucleic acids consist of a polypeptide backbone to which nucleic acid bases are attached as side chains.
C)Peptide nucleic acids are able to bind to complementary strands of DNA or RNA.
D)Peptide nucleic acid penetrates cells easily,and therefore has importance in medicine.
Q2) Which type of hybridization technique would you use to detect the presence of a specific transcript within a culture of bacterial cells grown under specific growth conditions.
A)Eastern blot
B)Western blot
C)Northern blot
D)Southern blot
Q3) By what technique can individual DNA molecules be visualized?
A)electron microscopy and metal shadowing
B)light microscopy only
C)agarose gel electrophoresis
D)Northern blot
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Chapter 6: Polymerase Chain Reaction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following uses an RNA template during the technique?
A)TA cloning
B)RAPD
C)Inverse PCR
D)RT-PCR
Q2) In real time PCR,the presence of double-stranded DNA is detected by
A)fluorescence of SYBR Green
B)luminescence of SYBER Green
C)quenching of SYBR Green fluorescence
D)rapid decrease in the amount of SYBR Green fluorescence
Q3) In addition to DNA polymerase,a PCR reaction mixture contains all of the following except .
A)Buffer
B)Primers
C)Deoxynucleotide triphosphates
D)Ligase
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Chapter 7: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which process enables recombinant DNA to be introduced into mammalian cell lines?
A)Transfection
B)Transduction
C)Transformation
D)Translocation
Q2) Which of the following cloning vectors carries the largest insert relative to the others in the answer choices?
A)BACs
B)cosmids
C)PACs
D)plasmids
Q3) What types of genes are found on plasmids and often used as selectable markers?
A)antibiotic resistance genes
B)multiple cloning sites
C)origins of replication
D)methylated sequences
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Chapter 8: DNA Sequencing
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Q1) Which method is most useful for sequencing short DNA regions from multiple individuals?
A)dideoxy sequencing
B)pyrosequencing
C)primer walking
D)SMRT sequencing
Q2) Nanopore technology is speedy and handles long DNA molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q3) DNA moves across nanopore detectors because .
A)an electrical charge is applied
B)there is a high concentration of salt on one side of the channel
C)there is a difference in pH across the membrane
D)it is physically pulled across by enzymes
Q4) DNA chip technology relies on the hybridization of .
A)DNA to DNA
B)DNA to RNA
C)RNA to DNA
D)RNA to RNA
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Chapter 9: Genomics Systems Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In some metagenomic analyses,organisms in the community do not have to be cultured.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following makes up more percentage of the human genome than the others listed in the answer choices?
A)protein coding genes
B)LINEs
C)heterochromatin
D)introns
Q3) The exon trapping method for determining eukaryotic coding sequences relies on A)flanking splice recognition sites,which are used during RNA processing
B)complementary DNA that is produced prior to exon trapping
C)both the promoter and polyA)tail recognition sequences
D)the presences of restriction enzyme recognition sequences
Q4) The genomes of some plants and a few protozoa have more genes than humans.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Cell Division and DNA Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Replication always proceeds relative to the new strand.
A)unidirectional from the origin
B)left to right
C)3' to 5'
D)5' to 3'
Q2) All DNA replication results in two copies of double-stranded DNA,each copy having a parent strand and a newly synthesized strand.This is referred to as .
A)semi-conservative replication
B)conservative replication
C)antiparallelism
D)complementarity
Q3) Replication is initiated at .
A)telomeres
B)centromeres
C)the origins are replication
D)the start of every gene
Q4) DNA is duplicated during mitosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Transcription of Genes
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Q1) Transcription occurs in the of eukaryotes and the of prokaryotes.
A)nucleus;nucleus
B)cytosol;cytosol
C)nucleus;cytosol
D)cytosol;nucleus
Q2) Which enzyme is responsible for transcribing most eukaryotic protein-encoding genes?
A)RNA polymerase I
B)RNA polymerase II
C)RNA polymerase III
D)None of the above
Q3) The eukaryotic promoter recognized by RNA polymerase II contains three regions.Which of the following is not part of the trio?
A)TATA box
B)upstream elements
C)initiator box
D)Enhancer
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Chapter 12: Processing of RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some pre-rRNAs are processed to generate mature rRNA and tRNA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Self-splicing introns,ribosomes,and RNase P are examples of .
A)ribozymes
B)proteins
C)RNA processing enzymes
D)structural RNAs
Q3) The regions of transcript that contain protein coding sequence are called
A)introns
B)exons
C)inteins
D)exteins
Q4) In bacteria, is involved in processing tRNAs.
A)ribonuclease P
B)ribonuclease H
C)ribonuclease D
D)ribonuclease E/F
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Chapter 13: Protein Synthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many different types of amino acids are there in proteins?
A)1
B)3
C)20
D)50
Q2) The anticodon of the tRNA is complementary to the codon on mRNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The type of covalent bond that forms between adjacent protein monomers is called a .
A)beta-linkage
B)phosphodiester bond
C)peptide bond
D)glycosidic bond
Q4) Translation occurs in the of eukaryotes.
A)cytoplasm
B)nucleus
C)lysosomes
D)Golgi complexes
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Chapter 14: Protein Structure and Function
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Q1) All of the following are functions of proteins except . A)defense
B)structural support
C)energy production
D)major plasma membrane component
Q2) The binding of a regulatory molecule to an allosteric site on a protein that results in the inhibition of the protein is an example of .
A)non-competitive inhibition
B)allosteric activation
C)competitive inhibition
D)positive regulation
Q3) Regulatory sites separate from the active site on proteins are called sites.
A)binding
B)allosteric
C)inhibitory
D)competitive
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Chapter 15: Proteomics
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Q1) When a virus displays multiple peptide sequences,this is termed .
A)phage array
B)yeast two hybrid system
C)phage display
D)protein microarray
Q2) Proteins microarrays .
A)are used to investigate protein-protein interactions
B)are used to determine enzymatic activity
C)help determine the binding of DNA or RNA to protein
D)all of the above
Q3) What is the proteome?
A)The total set of proteins in the cell at any given point.
B)The number of genes that are expressed in a specific growth condition.
C)The total set of proteins encoded by the organism's genome.
D)The number of expressed genes.
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17
Chapter 16: Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes
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Q1) Which of the following is not an inducer of the lac operon?
A)allo-lactose
B)IPTG
C)glucose
D)lactose
Q2) Autoregulation occurs when .
A)IPTG binds to LacI
B)allo-lactose binds to LacI
C)a repressor binds to its own gene to prevent transcription
D)CRP binds to cAMP and the the lac operon
Q3) Transcriptional elements that bind to a DNA molecule where the gene they regulate is located are .
A)trans-acting elements
B)cis-acting elements
C)positive regulators
D)negative regulators
Q4) Some nucleotides are involved in transcriptional regulation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes
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Q1) DNA sequences in eukaryotes that are rich in guanine and cytosine are called are usually targets of .
A)inteins;acetylation
B)GC islands;methylation
C)promoters;transcriptional regulation
D)enhancers;mediator binding
Q2) In eukaryotes,negative regulation occurs by .
A)obstructing RNA polymerase II
B)interfering with activators
C)interfering with repressors
D)binding of repressors to operators
Q3) Xist is .
A)a gene encoding an untranslated RNA involved in X-inactivation
B)the heterochromatin of inactivated X chromosomes
C)is a gene that is only found on active X chromosomes
D)helps inactivate the X chromosome of males
Q4) Simple repressors are common in eukaryotes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Regulation at the RNA Level
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Q1) The blocking of translation of an mRNA by miRNA occurs because the miRNA
A)binds to the 3'-UTR of the mRNA and prevents translation
B)targets the mRNA for degradation by Slicer
C)binds to the 5'-UTR to prevent the ribosome from binding
D)folds into alternative stem-loop structure and protects the mRNA from nuclease cleavage
Q2) In bacteria, the system destroys incoming viral DNA and RNA.
A)RISC
B)Dicer
C)Slicer
D)CRISPR
Q3) Which statement is false?
A)Nucleases are not part of the RNAi scenario.
B)Some small RNAs help stabilize the mRNA and protect it from degradation.
C)RNAi is a form of gene silencing that involves degradation of target RNAs.
D)Riboswitches bind small molecules.
Q4) Attenuation of RNA involves the formation of alternate stem-loop structures.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Analysis of Gene Expression
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Q1) Microarrays and SAGE have the ability to monitor .
A)large numbers of mRNAs simultaneously
B)small numbers of specific mRNAs
C)proteins expressed under a given condition
D)the binding of a protein to a DNA or RNA molecule
Q2) Primer extension is used to .
A)determine the transcriptional start site
B)locate the binding of RNA polymerase
C)determine the interaction of RNA and proteins
D)generate primers for PCR
Q3) A specific mRNA may be detected using hybridization.
A)Southern
B)Western
C)Northern
D)Southwestern
Q4) Where might green fluorescent protein be found?
A)fireflies
B)jellyfish
C)bacteria
D)algae
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Plasmids
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Q1) Which of the following might be plasmid-encoded?
A)toxins
B)antibiotic resistance
C)plant hormones
D)all of the above
Q2) Transferable plasmids use as a form of replication during transfer.
A)bidirectional replication
B)rolling circle replication
C)conservative
D)none of the above
Q3) The Ti-plasmid is found in .
A)Escherichia coli
B)yeast
C)Agrobacterium tumefaciens
D)plants
Q4) The Ti-plasmid was used as the platform for genetically engineering plants.
A)True
B)False
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Viruses
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Q1) The largest virus is .
A)herpesvirus
B)poxvirus
C)mimivirus
D)HIV
Q2) Which enzyme is required for RNA viruses to replicate their genomes?
A)reverse transcriptase
B)RNA replicase
C)DNA polymerase
D)host RNA polymerase
Q3) Which of the following is not a viral genome arrangement?
A)double-stranded DNA
B)single-stranded DNA
C)positive single-stranded RNA
D)negative double-stranded RNA
Q4) Bacteriophage infect .
A)other viruses
B)only bacteria
C)animals
D)all cell types
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Mobile DNA
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Q1) All transposons have all of the following characteristics except .
A)the gene for transposase
B)inverted repeats
C)resolvase
D)antibiotic resistance genes
Q2) Internal resolution sites of complex transposons are recognized by .
A)Dicer
B)cointegrase
C)recombinase
D)resolvase
Q3) Resolvase is needed for .
A)conservative transposition
B)replicative transposition
C)simple transposons
D)retrotransposons
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24
Chapter 23: Mutations and Repair
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Q1) A mutation has no effect on phenotype.
A)frameshift
B)deletion
C)silent
D)nonsense
Q2) Mutations occur more frequently in hotspots.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is notorious for causing covalent bonding of adjacent thymine residues in DNA?
A)X-rays
B)infrared radiation
C)nucleotide analogs
D)ultraviolet radiation
Q4) When second site mutations change the mutant phenotype back to the wild type,this is called .
A)inversion
B)reversion
C)nonsense mutation
D)transversion
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Recombination
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Q1) Site specific recombination only occurs for homologous sequences.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following proteins is required for lambda integration in the genome of Escherichia coli?
A)transposase
B)resolvase
C)Int protein
D)Xis protein
Q3) RAD genes are essential for recombination events during both mitosis and meiosis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Chi sites are .
A)generated from Holliday junctions
B)inverted repeats
C)binding sites for RecA protein
D)specific sequences in prokaryotic genomes where crossovers occur
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Chapter 25: Bacterial Genetics
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Q1) The preferential transfer of DNA fragments using viruses is called .
A)generalize transduction
B)specialized transduction
C)conjugation
D)transformation
Q2) During conjugation,the entire double-stranded F-plasmid is transferred into the recipient.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The uptake of naked DNA from the environment is called .
A)transfection
B)conjugation
C)transduction
D)transformation
Q4) Only the can initiate conjugation.
A)F<sup>-</sup>
B)F<sup>+</sup>
C)Hfr
D)recipient
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Chapter 26: Molecular Evolution
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Q1) The African Eve hypothesis is based on .
A)Y chromosome analysis
B)identification of junk DNA sequences
C)mitochondrial DNA sequences
D)ribosomal RNA sequencing
Q2) Mitochondrial DNA .
A)has a high mutation rate
B)is useful for determining paternal ancestry
C)has a low mutation rate
D)is only present in animal cells
Q3) Life likely evolved under .
A)a reducing atmosphere
B)cold conditions
C)oxidizing conditions
D)dehydrating conditions
Q4) Evolution relies upon .
A)mutations made in somatic cells only
B)mutations occurring in gametes
C)mutations that result in altered protein function of somatic cells
D)mutations in mRNA only
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