Biotechnology Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Biotechnology is an interdisciplinary course that explores the use of biological systems, organisms, and cellular components to develop products and technologies that improve the quality of human life. The course covers fundamental concepts such as genetic engineering, molecular biology, bioinformatics, cell culture techniques, and applications in medicine, agriculture, and environmental management. Students will gain an understanding of the ethical, legal, and social implications of biotechnological advancements, as well as hands-on experience through laboratory exercises and case studies. The course prepares students for further study or careers in fields like pharmaceuticals, healthcare, food technology, and environmental science.
Recommended Textbook
Concepts of Genetics 3rd Edition by Robert J. Brooker
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24 Chapters
913 Verified Questions
913 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Overview of Genetics
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cellular structure that contains genetic information is called a ________.
A) nucleotide
B) genetic code
C) chromosome
D) nucleic acid
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following uses a genetic cross to determine patterns of inheritance?
A) population genetics
B) transmission genetics
C) molecular genetics
D) evolutionary genetics
Answer: B
Q3) The changes in the genetic makeup of a population over time is called ________.
A) homologous recombination
B) model organisms studies
C) genetic crosses
D) biological evolution
E) hypothesis testing
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Reproduction and Chromosome Transmission
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the characteristics that are true of restriction points.Check all that apply.
A) An example is the boundary between G and S phase.
B) In many cases molecular changes must be present at this point for the cell to continue through the cell cycle.
C) Cells passing this point are committed to the next stage of the cell cycle.
D) Cells passing this point can reverse to an earlier phase of the cell cycle.
Answer: A,B,C
Q2) Select the phase when the microtubules of the spindle fiber attach to the kinetochore.
A) Metaphase
B) Prometaphase
C) Telophase
D) Anaphase
E) Prophase
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recall that in pea plants,purple flower color is dominant and white is recessive.If two heterozygous plants are crossed,what is the probability that the first two offspring will have purple flowers?
A) 1/2
B) 1/4
C) 6/4
D) 9/16
E) 1/16
Answer: D
Q2) What aspect of meiosis best explains Mendel's law of segregation?
A) selective removal of genetic information to create haploid gametes
B) separation of homologous chromosomes during Meiosis I
C) random alignment of different bivalents during Meiosis I
D) transmission of genes together when they lie nearby on the same chromosome
E) separation of identical alleles during Meiosis II
Answer: B
Q3) The chi square test is used to prove that a hypothesis is correct.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Sex Determination and Sex Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The genetic control of X-inactivation is governed by a short region on the X chromosome called the ________.
A) Y-inactivation center (Yic)
B) condensation center
C) X-inactivation center (Xic)
D) X-initiation center
Q2) Dosage compensation offsets the problems associated with differences in the number of ________ chromosomes in many species.
A) sex
B) autosome
C) somatic
D) nuclear
Q3) Flowering plants will produce flowers that are dioecious,meaning that the male and female parts are contained within the same flower.
A)True
B)False
Q4) With rare exceptions,a calico cat is likely to be female.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Extensions of Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) In cattle,the scurs trait follows a sex-influenced pattern of inheritance. A heterozygous male has the ________ phenotype and a heterozygous female has a ________ phenotype.
A) Y-linked; X-linked B) nonbald; bald
C) X-linked; Y-linked D) scurs; hornless
Q2) Incomplete penetrance indicates that individuals who possess a dominant trait always express the trait.
A)True B)False
Q3) A paralog ________.
A) is found for every gene in mammals
B) is only found on the X but not the Y chromosome
C) can explain the lack of phenotype for a gene knockout
D) cannot be mutated
E) has the same DNA sequence as the original duplicated gene
Q4) In an epistatic interaction,the genes must be located on the same chromosome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Extranuclear Inheritance, Imprinting, and Maternal Effect
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Sample Questions
Q1) The symbiotic relationship where one organism lives inside another species is called
A) endosymbiosis.
B) genomic imprinting.
C) cytoplasmic inheritance.
D) heteroplasmy.
E) exosymbiosis.
Q2) What is thought to be the origin of mitochondria and chloroplasts?
A) cyan bacteria/purple bacteria
B) purple bacteria/fungus
C) purple bacteria/cyanobacteria
D) algae/cyanobacteria
Q3) What type of inheritance is observed with extranuclear DNA?
A) mendelian inheritance
B) sex-linked inheritance
C) paternal inheritance
D) Inheritance patterns are based on cytoplasmic inheritance.
Q4) Both parents usually imprint the same gene.
A)True
B)False
8
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Chapter 7: Genetic Linkage and Mapping in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parental genotypes for a series of crosses are wild-type male fruit flies mated to females with white eyes and miniature wings.The phenotypes of the F1 generation were wild-type females,and males with white eyes,and miniature wings,indicating sex chromosome linkage.These flies were allowed to mate with each other and produced the following offspring:
Red eyes,long wings 770
White eyes,miniature wings 716
Red eyes,miniature wings 401
White eyes,long wings 318
Total 2205
What is the chi square value for this data to the nearest hundredth?
Q2) A testcross is always performed between the individual that is heterozygous for the genes to be mapped and an individual who is ________.
A) heterozygous for the genes
B) homozygous dominant for the genes
C) homozygous recessive for the genes
D) lacking the genes
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9
Chapter 8: Variation in Chromosome Structure and
Number
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ends of chromosomes have areas of repeated DNA called centromeres.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The term ________ refers to genetic differences between members of the same species.
A) chromosomal variation
B) genetic variation
C) chromosomal deletions
D) polyploidy
Q3) Variations in a gene are called allelic variations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The production of gene families,such as the globin genes,is the result of ________. A) inversions
B) deficiencies
C) gene duplications
D) simple translocations
E) None of these choices are correct.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Genetics in Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Loss of function mutations are easier to study in ________ organisms,such as bacteria.
A) haploid
B) diploid
C) triploid
Q2) Which does not require any recombination with the bacterial chromosome?
A) conjugation
B) transduction
C) transformation
Q3) During conjugation,one gene (A)is found to transfer to the recipient bacteria 26 minutes following the start of conjugation,while a second gene (M)is found to transfer 37 minutes following the start of conjugation.A third gene (T)transfers 45 minutes following the start of conjugation.Based on this information,which of the following is true?
A) Genes A and M have a genetic distance of 11 minutes.
B) Genes A and T have a genetic distance of 19 minutes.
C) Genes M and T have a genetic distance of 18 minutes.
D) The order of the genes is A T M.
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11
Chapter 10: Genetics of Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the genetic material in the T4 bacteriophage?
A) double-stranded DNA
B) single-stranded DNA
C) single-stranded RNA
D) double-stranded RNA
Q2) The genetic material of HIV is single-stranded RNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most biologists consider viruses to be living organisms,which are classified with the bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A ________ uses the lytic cycle to begin the immediate manufacture of new phages in the host cells.
A) virulent phage
B) temperate phage
C) bacteria
D) eukaryotic cell
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Chapter 11: Molecular Structure of DNA and RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) The helical shape of the DNA contains major and minor grooves,which assist in the regulation of gene expression.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The researcher(s)who initially used X-ray diffraction to gather information on the DNA molecule was ________.
A) Franklin
B) Watson and Crick
C) Hershey and Chase
D) Pauling
E) Chargaff
Q3) These individuals determined that DNA was the genetic material in T2 phage.
A) Hershey and Chase
B) Avery, Macleod, and McCarty
C) Watson and Crick
D) Creighton and McClintock
Q4) A purine on one strand of the DNA is always paired with a pyrimidine on the other strand.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Molecular Structure of Chromosomes and Transposition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The DNA of a bacterial cell must be compacted about ________ fold to fit within the confines of the cell.
A) 10
B) 100
C) 150
D) 1000
E) 1,000,000
Q2) A chromosome territory is defined as
A) a region in the nucelus that is occupied by a single chromosome.
B) a region on a chromosome that is devoid of nucleosomes.
C) a region on a chromosome that has no protein encoding genes.
D) a region in the nucleus that may have several chromosomes.
Q3) One would expect heterochromatic regions of DNA to be more compacted than euchromatic regions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Overwinding of the DNA decreases the number of turns in the double helix,and thus results in supercoils in the DNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Dna Replication and Recombination
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Sample Questions
Q1) In E.coli,which protein(s)are necessary for the cell to recognize double-stranded breaks and conduct recombination during meiosis?
A) RecG
B) RecA
C) RecBCD
D) RuvABC
Q2) Which enzyme is responsible for the majority of DNA synthesis during replication?
A) DNA ligase
B) DNA primase
C) topoisomerase
D) DNA polymerase I
E) DNA polymerase III
Q3) What functions are accomplished by the primosome?
A) tracking along DNA
B) tracking along DNA, separating double-stranded DNA
C) tracking along DNA, separating double-stranded DNA, synthesizing RNA primers
D) tracking along DNA, separating double-stranded DNA, synthesizing RNA primers, adding nucleotides
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15
Chapter 14: Gene Transcription and RNA Modification
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Sample Questions
Q1) The unit of transcription at the molecular level is the gene.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Select the statement that is true regarding tRNA processing in E.coli.
A) RNaseP acts as an endonuclease.
B) The recognition sequence of RNaseD is 3'CCA5'.
C) RNaseD acts as an endonuclease.
D) The action of RNaseP produces the correct 3' end of the mature tRNA.
Q3) What general transcription factor is a helicase?
A) TFIID
B) TFIIH
C) TFIIF
D) TFIIB
Q4) What region in eukaryotic genes contains the majority of regulatory elements?
A) 0 to 50
B) 50 to 0
C) 50 to 100
D) 100 to 150
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Chapter 15: Translation of MRNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) The one-gene,one-enzyme hypothesis was first proposed by Beadle and Tatum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The scientist(s)________ studied patients who had defects in their ability to metabolize certain compounds,particularly the inherited disease alkaptonuria.He/They proposed that a relationship exists between the inheritance of the trait and the inheritance of a defective enzyme.
A) Garrod
B) Nirenberg and Matthaei
C) Khorana and colleagues
D) Nirenberg and Leder
E) Beadle and Tatum
Q3) The C-terminus of a polypeptide always contains
A) a stop codon.
B) a carboxyl group.
C) an amino group.
D) carbon dioxide.
E) a stop amino acid.
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17
Chapter 16: Gene Regulation in Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the lac operon,the operator is an example of a trans-effect genetic regulation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not an example of translational regulation in prokaryotes?
A) sterically blocking the ribosome
B) phosphorylation of an enzyme
C) incorporation of antisense RNA
D) altering the structure of the mRNA
Q3) Constitutive genes are those that have constant levels of expression.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Antisense RNA does which of the following?
A) inhibits the formation of the open complex in transcription
B) occupies the A and P sites of the ribosome
C) binds to the mRNA and prevents translation
D) prevents the correct folding of a newly formed peptide
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18
Chapter 17: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A queen bee is larger than the female worker bees in a hive.The queen develops functional ovaries that allow her to produce up to 2000 eggs a day.What determines which bees become queen bees?
A) A single dominant allele of the Queen gene
B) The larvae raised on a diet of royal jelly
C) The larvae raised on a diet of pollen and nectar
D) The egg that hatches first
Q2) Which of the following is part of the mechanism for epigenetic regulation of the Igf2 gene?
A) Methylation of the H19 locus
B) Methylation of the ICR and DMR domains
C) Binding of CTC factors to methylated sequences
Q3) Steroid hormones are an example of an effector which regulates regulatory transcription factor activity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Covalent histone modification is sometimes involved in cell differentiation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Non-Coding Rnas
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Sample Questions
Q1) What human disease is associated with mutations in Drosha?
A) Familial amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
B) Alzheimer disease
C) Heart arrhythmias
D) Lung cancer
Q2) Select the four most common types of molecules to which ncRNAs bind.
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) Proteins
D) Small molecules
E) Lipids
Q3) A bacterial ncRNA called OxyS regulates translation by binding to the Shine-Dalgarno sequence,which prevents ribosome binding.What is the function of this ncRNA?
A) Blocker
B) Decoy
C) Ribozyme
D) Scaffold
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Chapter 19: Gene Mutation and DNA Repair
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the following sequence of DNA,the italicized base has been mutated.What type of mutation is this?
5' - G A T C T C C G A A T T - 3' original strand
5' - G A T C T C C C A A T T - 3' mutated strand
A) transition
B) transversion
C) neither
Q2) An individual that is a genetic mosaic would be the result of a germ cell mutation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Silent mutations are possible due to the degenerate nature of the genetic code.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mutations that change the configuration of a protein at a specific temperature are called ________ mutations.
A) neutral
B) beneficial
C) deleterious
D) conditional
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Chapter 20: Molecular Technologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cDNA library differs from a genomic library in which way?
A) It consists solely of RNA molecules.
B) It contains many copies of the gene of interest.
C) It contains only coding sequences, not introns.
D) It is typically 10-100 times the size of a DNA library.
Q2) cDNA is made using what as the starting material?
A) plasmid vectors
B) viral DNA
C) chromosomal DNA
D) RNA
Q3) Molecular biologists use restriction enzymes to amplify a specific section of DNA within the genome.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Site-directed mutagenesis allows researchers to produce a mutation at a ________ within a cloned DNA segment.
A) specific site
B) random site
C) semilocalized site that can later be identified by sequencing
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Chapter 21: Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) If all members of a population have the identical DNA segment,it is said to be
A) monomorphic
B) polymorphic
C) trimorphic
D) neomorphic
Q2) The most common microsatellite in humans is ________.
A) (AT)
B) (CA)n
C) (TG)n
D) (CAT)n
E) AUG
Q3) In sequencing by synthesis (SBS)methods,the sequence of a sample is directly determined as nucleotides are incorporated into a DNA strand by DNA polymerase.
A)True
B)False
Q4) cDNA uses chromosomal DNA as its template.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Medical Genetics and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a disease that has a single gene,the concordance among monozygotic twins should be
A) 0%.
B) 25%.
C) 50%.
D) 75%.
E) 100%.
Q2) An example of personalized medicine would be
A) treatment of an infection based on the drug resistance of the bacterium.
B) treatment of diabetics with synthetic instead of natural insulin.
C) determining the CYP2C9 alleles present to help set the patient's coumarin dose.
D) performing an appendectomy on a patient with appendicitis.
Q3) A gene that promotes the development of cancer when it sustains a gain-of-function mutation is called a
A) housekeeping gene.
B) tumor suppressor gene.
C) proto-oncogene.
D) caretaker gene.
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24
Chapter 23: Population Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A population with an allele for a gene that constitutes 99% of the alleles in the population means that the population is called monomorphic for that gene.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The mechanism that results in a change in allele frequencies due to random processes is known as
A) genetic drift.
B) natural selection.
C) migration.
D) nonrandom mating.
Q3) You are preparing to perform DNA fingerprinting by PCR for the first time.Select the reagent that would result in complications in the interpretation of your results.
A) PCR primers that anneal to the repetitive region of the microsatellites
B) PCR primers that anneal to regions flanking the microsatellites
C) Human DNA
D) Taq polymerase
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Chapter 24: Quantitative Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heritability values can be compared between populations if there is variation in the environmental conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What must be true regarding the strains of organisms used to construct a QTL map?
A) they must differ for the quantitative trait
B) they must differ for the molecular markers
C) Both of these choices must be true.
Q3) If the difference between the mean of the parents and the mean of the starting population is 1.0 and the the difference between the mean of the offspring and the mean of the starting population is 0.45 then the realized heritability is
A) 1.45
B) 2.22
C) 0.45
D) 0.55
Q4) Traits that fall into discrete categories are called continuous traits.
A)True
B)False
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