Biotechnology Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Biotechnology is an interdisciplinary course that explores the application of biological systems, organisms, and processes to develop innovative products and technologies for various sectors, including healthcare, agriculture, and environmental management. Students will examine the foundational concepts of molecular biology, genetic engineering, and bioprocessing, as well as the ethical, legal, and social implications of biotechnological advancements. The course combines theoretical knowledge with practical laboratory experience, preparing students to understand and contribute to cutting-edge developments in the rapidly evolving field of biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations 9th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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26 Chapters
1491 Verified Questions
1491 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A substance derived from one microorganism that kills or restricts the growth of other microorganisms is best described as a(n):
A)poison
B)antibody
C)vaccine
D)antibiotic
Answer: D
Q2) Bacteriophages have been successfully used in all of the following circumstances,EXCEPT:
A)to treat wounds of Soviet Union soldiers
B)prevent Listeria infections on cut apples and melons
C)remove E. coli O157:H7 from herds of animals
D)attack weeds
Answer: D
Q3) The curve in Pasteur's swan neck flasks was important because _____.
A)It prevented flies from escaping the flask
B)It allowed only warm air to reach the infusion
C)It trapped microbes that otherwise would have entered the flask
D)It prevented oxygen from reaching organisms inside the flask
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is true about atomic weight?
A)It is the sum of the number of electrons and protons in an atom.
B)The higher the atomic weight the more likely an atom will form a chemical bond.
C)It is always a whole number.
D)Atoms of a particular element that have different atomic weights are called isotopes.
Answer: D
Q2) Fatty acids that are _________ have ___________ .
A)saturated; lost their secondary structure
B)unsaturated, a double bond between two carbons that have lost hydrogen atoms
C)saturated, one or more double bonds
D)denatured, all the hydrogen it can.
Answer: B
Q3) Hydrogen bonds are generally:
A)stronger than covalent bonds
B)stronger than ionic bonds but weaker than covalent bonds
C)present in large numbers
D)found in non-polar compounds
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Microscopy and Staining
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suitable stains for use in the Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast stain are _____.
A)crystal violet and eosin
B)carbolfuschin and methylene blue
C)carbolfuschin and safranin
D)safranin and methylene blue
Answer: B
Q2) When light passes through an object,________ of the light has occurred.
A)reflection
B)absorption
C)transmission
D)fluorescence
Answer: C
Q3) Why is diffraction a problem for microscopy?
A)The lens acts as a large aperture through which light must pass.
B)The small size of higher-power lenses causes severe diffraction.
C)The loss of light results in blurred images.
D)Diffraction of light is useful when using an oil immersion lens to view objects.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some bacteria can transfer DNA to another cell using:
A)conjugation pili
B)fimbriae
C)axial filaments
D)lophotrichous flagella
Q2) Lysozyme,found in human tears,controls the growth of bacteria by _____.
A)fusing with vacuoles
B)containing multiple kinds of digestive enzymes
C)digesting peptidoglycan
D)preventing peptidoglycan synthesis
Q3) The _____ portion of the cell membrane functions as a barrier while the ______ portion provides specific functions,including pumps,receptors,adhesion,etc.
A)carbohydrate; nucleic acid
B)lipid; protein
C)lipid; carbohydrate
D)nucleic acid; lipid
Q4) Give examples of microorganisms that are prokaryotes and eukaryotes. What microorganism does not fit in either category? Describe three differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a carrier molecule that carries hydrogen atoms or electrons in oxidative reactions?
A)Cytochrome
B)FAD
C)Niacin
D)NAD
Q2) Chemiosmosis:
A)forms ATP
B)occurs in the cell membrane of prokaryotes
C)uses a proton gradient to activate ATP synthase
D)all the above
Q3) The initial substrate molecule for the Krebs cycle is:
A)pyruvic acid
B)acetyl-CoA
C)acetic acid
D)butanediol
Q4) Describe the chemical characteristics of enzymes and indicate why they are important in the metabolism of large molecules and how they determine which metabolic pathways occur in a cell.
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Chapter 6: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is sporulation? What triggers sporulation? In bacteria that form endospores generally only a fraction of the total population sporulate and the process takes over eight hours. Explain why it would be harmful for the whole population to sporulate. Is it better to continuously form spores or wait to sporulate when conditions become unfavorable?
Q2) A living,growing culture whose purpose is to maintain a pure culture of an organism indefinitely is a _____.
A)colony
B)stock culture
C)sporulating culture
D)broth culture
Q3) Starch would be broken down to maltose by which of the following exoenzymes?
A)gelatinase
B)amylase
C)caseinase
D)lipase
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Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A DNA mutation that results in no change in protein product produced is termed a:
A)missense mutation
B)nonsense mutation
C)silent mutation
D)frameshift mutation
Q2) During DNA replication:
A)the leading strand is synthesized in the 3' to 5' direction
B)the leading strand is synthesized discontinuously
C)the lagging strand is synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction
D)both strands are synthesized discontinuously
Q3) A plasmid is a/an _____.
A)extrachromosomal piece of DNA
B)chromosomal site to which genetic activity can be traced
C)body found in the cytoplasm that directs protein synthesis
D)molecule that carries the genetic message of the chromosomal DNA
Q4) RNA plays several important roles in the processes that express genetic information from DNA into protein products. Illustrate the events of transcription in a bacterial cell and indicate where RNA plays a role. Also indicate what role RNA plays in translation in bacterial cells.
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Chapter 8: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of conjugation in bacteria requires that:
A)two types of viruses be present
B)the bacteria be deprived of nutrients
C)there be naked DNA in the environment
D)there be contact between donor and recipient cells
Q2) In horizontal gene transfer:
A)genes are passed between bacteria of different generations
B)genes are passed from mother cells to daughter cells
C)genes are passed between bacteria of the same generation
D)none of the above
Q3) Removing the cell walls from two different strains of organisms and then allowing the membrane bound cells to combine with one another best describes:
A)genetic fusion
B)protoplast fusion
C)cell fusion
D)DNA fusion
Q4) Describe the experiments of Griffith that led to the discovery of transformation. How could one design an experiment to demonstrate that transformation was due to the transfer of DNA?
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Chapter 9: An Introduction to Taxonomy: the Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) A useful technique for comparing different bacterial species based on if they are susceptible to infection by the same virus is called _____.
A)protein profile
B)virus profile
C)phage typing
D)serology
Q2) Before bacteria received a kingdom of their own they were generally classified along with:
A)protists
B)animals
C)fungi
D)viruses
Q3) A eukaryotic,multicellular organism that has no cell wall would be classified as a/an: A)moneran
B)animal
C)fungus
D)protist
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11
Chapter 10: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common colds and influenza are caused by which of the following pair of virus families?
A)Adenoviridae & Orthomyxoviridae
B)Enterovirus & Retrovirus
C)Flavivirus & Rhinovirus
D)Poxvirus & Papillomavirus
Q2) Plaques are:
A)bacterial colonies
B)another name for single viruses
C)areas where bacterial cells have been lysed
D)bacterial film
Q3) Which of the following viruses plays an important role in the development of cervical cancer?
A)adenoviruses
B)herpes viruses
C)human papilloma viruses
D)slow viruses
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12
Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Sample Questions
Q1) One major difference between flatworms and roundworms is that _____.
A)roundworms are never parasites
B)flatworms are never parasites
C)roundworms have a pseudocoelom
D)flatworms don't infect humans
Q2) Which factor(s)has/have contributed to malaria's recent comeback?
A)Failure to vaccinate people living in susceptible areas
B)Emergence of DDT resistant mosquitoes
C)Environmental changes in developing countries
D)Two of the above factors
Q3) Animal-like protists include _____.
A)Water molds
B)Apicomplexans
C)Diatoms
D)Dinoflagellates
Q4) Arthropods are responsible for transmitting ________ pathogens.
A)viral
B)bacterial
C)protozoan
D)viral, bacterial and protozoan
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Chapter 12: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Membrane filters are used for sterilization because _____.
A)filters with smallest pore size do not clog easily.
B)many materials are destroyed by heat sterilization
C)they are used to sterilize only very small amounts of liquid
D)they are impractical for the filtration of beer, sera, media, vitamins and drugs.
Q2) Ultraviolet radiation:
A)is the same as X rays
B)is the same as gamma rays
C)penetrates glass, cloth, paper and most other materials
D)kills microorganisms by damaging DNA and proteins
Q3) Which is not a practical means of killing microorganisms?
A)Pasteurization
B)Autoclaving
C)Ultrasonic waves
D)Ultraviolet light
Q4) Most milk,cheese and juices in the United States are pasteurized. Describe the process of pasteurization and the microorganisms at which it is directed.Do you consider pasteurized milk a sterile product? Why?
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mode of action of the penicillin is:
A)inhibition of cell wall synthesis
B)disruption of cell membranes
C)inhibition of protein synthesis
D)inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
Q2) Which of following is not a way to limit the ability of microorganisms to acquire drug resistance?
A)High levels of antimicrobial agent in the patient
B)Inhibiting growth of invading microbes so immune defenses can kill them
C)Taking antibiotics until the patient feels better
D)Taking two antibiotics synergistically
Q3) Imidazoles and triazoles are antimicrobial agents that are effective:
A)bacteriostatic agents
B)bactericidal agents
C)antifungal agents
D)antiviral agents
Q4) A patient comes to you from a nursing home with a high fever. Is it better to start the patient on a broad spectrum drug or a narrow spectrum drug? Is it better to start the patient on one antibiotic or multiple antibiotics? Defend your decision.
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Chapter 14: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following do not affect the incubation period of an infectious disease?
A)Nature of the microorganism
B)Virulence factors
C)The numbers of invading microorganism
D)Time between symptoms arising and microbe being transmitted
Q2) Diseases in which permanent damage occurs produce:
A)toxemia
B)septicemia
C)sequelae
D)syndromes
Q3) Which of the following microbes easily satisfies Koch's postulates?
A)Fastidious bacteria
B)Sepsis for which many microbes are regularly isolated
C)Hepatitis C for which there is no suitable animal model
D)Yersinia, the causative agent of plague as it can be isolated from sick patients
Q4) What are the difficulties in demonstrating Koch's postulates for human infections?
Why was it not possible to demonstrate that leprosy or HIV satisfied Koch's Postulates?
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Chapter 15: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Factors that increase the likelihood of an epidemic include all of the following except:
A)overcrowding
B)migration
C)lack of vaccination
D)access to medical care
Q2) The total number of people infected within a population at a given time is the:
A)incidence
B)mortality
C)prevalence
D)morbidity
Q3) A zoonosis refers to an infectious disease that is transmitted:
A)to a vertebrate animal from a human
B)from a water reservoir to a human
C)from a human to their pets
D)to a human from vertebrate animal
Q4) .Why might it be worse to get an infection from someone in the hospital than from someone on a bus? Can you think of a reason why sometimes it might be better to be exposed to a microbe from a hospitalized patient than from someone on the bus?
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Chapter 16: Innate Host Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Macrophages include all of the following except:
A)wandering macrophages
B)cells that phagocytize large debris
C)the fastest phagocytes to reach an infection site
D)histiocytes, Kupffer cells and osteoclasts
Q2) What is the fragile,reddish,grainy tissue that is typically observed in cut tissue and consists of capillaries and fibroblasts?
A)Gut-associated lymphoid tissue
B)Granulation tissue
C)Granuloma
D)Granulocytes
Q3) The lymphatic system does all of the following except:
A)carry plasma to tissue
B)transport digested fats to the cardiovascular system
C)drain excess fluid from space between cells
D)allow for the circulation of cellular defenses
Q4) Is fever useful? A patient comes to you with a fever and a respiratory infection,would you be more worried about aggressively treating the fever or too little fever control? Explain your answers.
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Chapter 17: Immunology I: Basic Principles of Adaptive
Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ability of the humoral response to produce a vast array of antibodies,each with uniqueness to a given antigen,is called:
A)memory
B)hyperimmune serum
C)heterogeneity
D)homogeneity
Q2) The role of activated macrophages is to:
A)produce polyclonal antibodies
B)produce toxic hydrogen peroxide and accelerate the inflammatory response
C)bind to the MHC II molecule and T cell receptor molecule not in the receptor site
D)none of the above
Q3) What is the site where stem cells develop into B lymphocyte in humans?
A)bursa of Fabricius
B)thymus gland
C)blood
D)bone marrow
Q4) What are 4 attributes of adaptive immunity? Describe how both humoral and cell-mediated responses achieve these properties.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Immunology Ii: Immunological Disorders and Tests
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rheumatoid arthritis:
A)involves autoantibodies that are against the acetylcholine receptors
B)form IgM:IgG immune complexes and TH1 cells which initiate inflammation in joints
C)mainly affects the joints of the hands and the joints
D)two of the above
Q2) All of the following can occur after tissue transplantation except:
A)tissue transplants may be rejected and destroyed by the host's immune system
B)the host immune system can become tolerant to the transplanted tissue
C)tissue transplants can launch a cell-mediated response against the recipient's tissue
D)all immune rejection occurs either at the time of the graft or within days after
Q3) Granulomatous hypersensitivity,the most serious Type IV hypersensitivity,might occur during all the following infections except:
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C)Mycobacterium leprae
D)Leishmania tropica
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common bacteria to cause infections from soaking in a hot tub is__________.
A)Escherichia coli
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C)Staphylococcus epidermidis
D)Staphylococcus aureus
Q2) What are the means by which asymptomatic Staphylococcus carriers (like hospital personnel)spread this bacterium
A)via the skin
B)by nasal droplets
C)fomites
D)all of the above
Q3) Which is the correct matching of disease with its characteristics?
A)madura foot - itching due to schistosomes burrowing into skin
B)dracunculiasis - sudden fever followed by rose-colored rash
C)dermatomycoses - difficult to treat dry scaly lesions
D)swimmer's itch - due to guinea worm, a parasitic helminth
Q4) What is the difference between trachoma and bacterial conjunctivitis? How are they transmitted? Are they both common in the United States? Which one would you rather have?
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Chapter 20: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diagnosis of syphilis is confirmed by _____.
A)immobilization tests
B)using molecular probes
C)culturing the organism
D)all of these are correct
Q2) The etiology of pyelonephritis is most often bacterial,________ ,and less commonly the yeast,______.
A)Escherichia coli, Candida albicans
B)Streptococcus mutans, Pityrosporum ovale
C)Escherichia coli, Saccharomyces cerevisiae
D)Streptococcus mutans, Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Q3) Gonorrhea:
A)can be treated with ciprofloxacin or other quinolones
B)is easy to treat as antibiotic resistance is rare
C)should only be treated with a cephlasporin (e.g., ceftriaxone)and another antibiotic
D)two of the above
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Chapter 21: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which bacterial species is responsible for Q fever?
A)Coxiella burnetii
B)Streptococcus pyogenes
C)Corynebacterium pseudoinfluenzae
D)Haemophilus influenzae type B
Q2) Respiratory syncytial virus:
A)is most common cause of lower respiratory tract infections in infants under 1 yr of age
B)is a pneumonia-like disease transmitted to humans by birds
C)usually a skin disease but sometimes disseminated to the lungs
D)two of these choices
Q3) Sinusitis can be caused by:
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae
C)Haemophilus influenzae
D)all of these choices
Q4) How was the great flu pandemic of 1918 different from other influenza epidemics?
What is the difference between antigenic drift and antigenic shift? What virus do you believe the next deadly pandemic flu strain will come from?
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following infections is due to protozoa?
A)Giardiasis
B)Fluke infections
C)Ascariasis
D)Trichinosis
Q2) Which pathogen is correctly matched with the symptoms it causes?
A)Crytosoporidium - amoebic dysentery
B)Entamoeba histolytica - copious and frothy diarrhea
C)Cyclospora cayentanenisis - extreme fatigue, flu-like symptoms, watery diarrhea
D)Giardia intestinalis - watery diarrhea seen in 400,000+ Milwaukee residents in 1993
Q3) Which of the following is not an RNA virus?
A)Hepatitis A
B)Hepatitis B
C)Hepatitis C
D)Hepatitis D
Q4) Your 14-month old daughter is fussy when you bring her home from daycare.When you change her diaper you are shocked to find diarrhea with blood and mucus.Which pathogen might she have and why did you reach that diagnosis?
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Cardiovascular, lymphatic and Systemic Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Normal microflora of the cardiovascular system include _____.
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)parvovirus
C)Escherichia coli
D)none of these choices
Q2) All of the following occur in shistosomiasis except:
A)allergic reactions to eggs and cirrhosis of liver from eggs
B)flukes lodge in heart and brain causing disease
C)cercariae penetrate skin when humans wade in snail-infested waters
D)dermatitis from cercarcia
Q3) Brucellosis can be controlled by all of the following except:
A)protective clothing for workers with occupational exposure
B)human vaccine
C)pasteurization of dairy products
D)immunizing animal herds
Q4) ______ disease is actually the reoccurrence of a rickettsial infection.
A)Zoster
B)Brill-Zinsser
C)Tsutsugamushi
D)Burkitt's lymphoma
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Chapter 24: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are associated with prions except:
A)Chagas' disease
B)Kuru
C)Scrapie
D)Mad cow disease
Q2) How is African sleeping sickness transmitted?
A)by the reduvid bugs also known as kissing bugs
B)from mosquito species
C)via the bite of the tsetse fly
D)to cattle from other livestock
Q3) Which of the following viral encephalitis infections is not caused by a togavirus?
A)Eastern equine encephalitis
B)St. Louis encephalitis
C)Western equine encephalitis
D)Venezuelan equine encephalitis
Q4) What are all the animals that can get rabies? Which animals can transmit to humans and what determines human transmission ability? How should one treat an animal bite?
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Chapter 25: Environmental Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most predominant microbial group found in soil is:
A)fungi
B)bacteria
C)protozoa
D)viruses
Q2) The trickling filtration system employs a bed of rocks that have been coated with:
A)Sphaerotilus
B)Pseudomonas
C)Beggiatoa
D)two of these choices
Q3) The predominant genus of microbe found in ambient air is _____.
A)Cladosporium
B)Bacillus
C)Staphylococcus
D)Candida
Q4) What is the meaning of biological oxygen demand (BOD)? Why is it important in pollution? What do microbes have to do with this?
Q5) What is the greenhouse effect? What effect might global warming have on infectious disease?
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Chapter 26: Applied Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements about spices are true except:
A)they have a well deserved reputation as antimicrobials
B)most microorganisms found in spices are not pathogens
C)often mask odors of putrefaction
D)while they teem with bacteria they aren't harmful as they are used in small amounts
Q2) A bacterial strain used to remove the pectin in the outer layer of the coffee bean in preparation for processing is _____.
A)Phytophthora infestans
B)Erwinia carotovora
C)Erwinia dissolvens
D)Hemileia vastatri
Q3) What statement about microbial production of enzymes is incorrect?
A)All enzymes used in industrial processes are synthesized in living organisms.
B)Enzyme specificity minimizes the problems of product purification.
C)Invertase is the commercially available enzyme produced in greatest quantity.
D)Aspergillus molds produce proteases and amylases.
Q4) Are food spoilage microorganisms also pathogens? Give examples to support your answer. Outline 4 methods of food preservation. How does each method limit growth of microorganisms?
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